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IMMUNOLOGY Exam #1- Lo > Lec 01- Overview of Immune Responses > Flashcards

Lec 01- Overview of Immune Responses Flashcards

1
Q

How can microbes survive in animals?

A

grow extracellular (immersed in nutrients)

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2
Q

How can intracellular microbes survive?

A

replicate utilizing host-cell energy sources

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3
Q

What is immunity?

A

defense mechanisms providing protection from infectious disease

self vs. non-self

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4
Q

Noninfectious foreign substances

A

antigens (Ags)

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5
Q

An immune response against microbes that causes tissue injury

A

Immunopathology

Collateral damage

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6
Q

Antigens

A

substances which induce an immune response

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7
Q

What do antigens include?

A
  • proteins
  • carbs
  • lipids
  • nucleic acids
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8
Q

Smallest unit of an antigen

A

antigenic determinant

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9
Q

How many amino acids/sugar residues are there in the smallest unit that an antibody can make?

A

3-6 amino acids

5-6 sugar residues

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10
Q

Which molecules are multi determinant (multiple epitomes)?

A

All large structures of antigens

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11
Q

What binds to conformational antigenic determinants?

A

Antibodies (dependent on folding of the molecule)

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12
Q

What can recognize linear amino acid sequences?

A

T cell receptors

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13
Q

What are antigens that can stimulate an immune response called?

A

Immunogens

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14
Q

All _____ are antigens but not all antigens are ______.

A

All IMMUNOGENS are antigens but not all antigens are IMMUNOGENS

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15
Q

Which molecules can bind to Ab’s or TCR’s, but not initiate an immune response?

A

Haptens

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16
Q

Which type of immunity is the first line of defense against infection?

A

Innate immune system

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17
Q

The innate immune system gives rise to ______.

A

acute inflammatory response

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18
Q

What type of immunity has some specificity for microbes, but no memory?

A

innate immune system

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19
Q

What type of immunity takes longer to develop?

A

adaptive immune system

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20
Q

What type of immunity is highly specific and shows memory?

A

adaptive immune system

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21
Q

2 other names for innate immunity

A

natural immunity

native immunity

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22
Q

What type of immunity responds rapidly to infections and exists even before infection?

A

innate immunity

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23
Q

What type of immunity doesn’t distinguish fine differences between microbes?

A

innate immunity

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24
Q

3 principal components of innate immunity

A

1- physical and chemical barriers

2- phagocytic cells (macrophages/neutrophils), dendritic cells, natural killer cells, other innate lymphoid cells

3- blood proteins (complement system and other mediators of inflammation)

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25
Q

Timing differences of innate and adaptive immunity?

A
  • Innate immunity = hours

- Adaptive immunity = days, weeks

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26
Q

Innate immunity component examples:

Cellular and chemical barriers

A
  • skin
  • mucosal epithelia
  • antimicrobial molecules
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27
Q

Innate immunity component examples:

Blood proteins

A
  • complement
  • acute phase proteins
  • cytokines
  • others
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28
Q

Innate immunity component examples:

Cells

A
  • phagocytes (macrophages, neutrophils)
  • dendritic cells
  • natural killer cells
  • innate lymphoid cells
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29
Q

Adaptive immunity component examples:

Cellular and chemical barriers

A
  • lymphocytes in epithelia

- antibodies secreted at epithelial surfaces

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30
Q

Adaptive immunity component examples:

Blood proteins

A
  • antibodies

- cytokines

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31
Q

Adaptive immunity component examples:

Cells

A

B and T lymphocytes

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32
Q

Specificity of innate immunity

A
  • Molecules shared by groups of related microbes

- Molecules produced by damaged cells

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33
Q

Specificity of adaptive immunity

A

microbial and nonmicrobial antigens

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34
Q

Diversity of innate immunity

A

limited

germline encoded

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35
Q

Diversity of adaptive immunity

A
  • very large

- receptors produced by somatic recombination of gene segments

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36
Q

Reactivity to self?

A

Innate = none

Adaptive = none

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37
Q

What type of immunity is also a “decision-making stage” of an immune response?

A

innate immune system

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38
Q

Innate immunity ________ the invader in the context of intracellular vs. extracellular microbes. It then sends the instructions to adaptive immunity.

A

evaluates

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39
Q

Cells communicate through what type of contact?

A

direct cell-to-cell contact

cytokines and chemokines

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40
Q

What proteins regulate and coordinate many activities of the cells of innate and adaptive immunity?

A

cytokines

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41
Q

Each cell expresses a set of ___________________________ for several cytokines.

A

specific signaling receptors

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42
Q

What is the function of cytokines?

A
  • growth and differentiation of all immune cells

- activation of effector functions of lymphocytes and phagocytes

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43
Q

What large subset of cytokines regulate cell migration and movement?

A

chemokines

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44
Q

2 type of lymphocytes

A

B and T cells

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45
Q

Interactions between _____ and ____, and between ____ and ____ are critical to the development of specific immunity

A

T and B cells

T cells and Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

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46
Q

Where do the T cells mature?

A

thymus

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47
Q

Where do the B cells mature?

A

bone marrow

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48
Q

T cell maturation is stimulated by what?

A

antigens

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49
Q

What type of immunity do T cells give rise to?

A

cellular immunity

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50
Q

What type of immunity do B cells give rise to?

A

humoral immunity

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51
Q

What type of pathogens for T cells and B cells?

A

T cells = Intracellular pathogens

B cells = Extracellular pathogens

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52
Q

Humoral immunity produces which soluble molecules?

A

immunoglobulins

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53
Q

What did Paul Ehrlich hypothesize?

A
  • immune cells use receptors to recognize toxins

- secrete receptors to combat microbes

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54
Q

What term did Paul Ehrlich coin?

A

antibodies = serum proteins that bind toxins

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55
Q

Ehrlich’s concepts = what model?

A

Function of B cells in humoral immunity

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56
Q

Humoral adaptive immunity is mediated by what?

A

antibodies in:

  • blood
  • mucosal secretions
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57
Q

What do B lymphocytes (B cells) produce?

A

antibodies in blood and mucosal secretions

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58
Q

3 functions of antibodies (Abs)

A
  • RECOGNIZE microbial antigens
  • NEUTRALIZE the infectivity of microbes
  • TARGET microbes for elimination by various effector mechanisms
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59
Q

What is the principal defense mechanism against extracellular microbes and their toxins?

A

Humoral adaptive immunity

-Abs bind and eliminate them

60
Q

Elie Mechnikoff was considered the father of what?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

61
Q

Cellular theory of immunity states____?

A

host cells are the principal mediators of immunity

62
Q

What did Metchnikoff discover at Pasteur in 1883?

A

phagocytes

63
Q

What was Metchnikoff unable to prove?

A

that specific immunity to microbes could be mediated by cells

64
Q

Cellular theory of immunity became re-established when ______.

A

resistance to an intracellular bacterium could be transferred with cells but not serum

65
Q

Specificity and mediation of cell-mediated immunity is due to _______.

A

T lymphocytes

66
Q

T lymphocytes work in concert with _______ to eliminate microbes.

A

phagocytes

67
Q

T lymphocytes mediate defense against _______.

A

intracellular microbes that are inaccessible to circulating Abs

  • viruses
  • some bacteria
68
Q

Function of cell-mediated immunity

A
  • destruction of microbes residing in phagocytes

- killing of infected cells to eliminate reservoirs of infection

69
Q

Function of T helper cells

A

eradication of extracellular microbes by helping B cells make effective Abs

70
Q

Humoral immunity:
Microbe = Extracellular Microbes

1) Responding lymphocytes?
2) Effector mechanism?
3) Transferred by?
4) Functions?

A

1) B lymphocyte
2) Secreted antibody
3) Serum
4) Block infections and eliminate extracellular microbes

71
Q

Cell-Mediated Immunity:
Microbe = Phagocytosed microbes in macrophage

1) Responding lymphocytes?
2) Transferred by?
3) Functions?

A

1) Helper T cells
2) Cells (T lymphocytes)
3) Activate macrophages to kill phagocytosed microbes

72
Q

Cell-mediated Immunity:
Microbe = Intracellular microbes replicating within infected cell

1) Responding lymphocytes?
2) Transferred by?
3) Functions?

A

1) Cytotoxic T cells
2) Cells (T lymphocytes)
3) Kill infected cells and eliminate reservoirs of infection

73
Q

What ensures that the immune response to a microbe (or non microbial antigen) is targeted to that microbe or antigen?

A

specificity

74
Q

What enables the immune system to respond to a large variety of antigens?

75
Q

What increases the ability to combat repeat infections by the same microbe?

76
Q

What increases the number of antigen-specific lymphocytes to keep pace with microbes?

A

clonal expansion

77
Q

What generates responses that are optimal for defense against different types of microbes?

A

specialization

78
Q

What allows the immune system to recover from one response so that it can effectively respond to newly encountered antigens?

A

contraction and homeostasis

79
Q

What prevents injury to the host during responses to foreign antigens?

A

nonreactivity to self

80
Q

When Ag is introduced and lymphocytes with receptors for Ag seek and bind it, they are triggered to _____.

A

proliferate and differentiate

gives rise to clones of cells that are specific for the Ag

81
Q

Cells that seek and bind the Ag, react with the Ag to ______.

A

neurtralize or eliminate the Ag

82
Q

Ag-specific cells late in the immune response are responsible for________.

A

memory in adaptive immunity

83
Q

What did Dr. Jerne and Dr. Burnet suggest?

A

Clonal selection hypothesis

Ag-specific clones of lymphocytes develop before and independent of exposure to Ag

84
Q

What is a clone?

A

A lymphocyte of one specificity and its progeny

85
Q

4 steps of the Hypothesis of Clonal Selection

A

1) MATURE – Lymphocyte clones mature in generative lymphoid organs (in absence of antigens)
2) ENTER – Clones enter lymphoid tissue
3) ACTIVATED – Clones activated (selected) by antigens
4) RESPONSE – Antigen-specific immune responses occur

86
Q

5 Phases of Adaptive Immune Responses

A

1) Antigen recognition
2) Lymphocyte activation (clonal expansion and differentiation)
3) Antigen elimination (antibodies and effector T cells)
4) Contraction/Homeostasis (apoptosis)
5) Memory

87
Q

Primary vs. Secondary Adaptive Immune Response

A

Secondary response = more rapid and larger than primary response (memory)

88
Q

In what phase do the expanded lymphocyte clones die?

A

contraction phase

homeostasis is then restored

89
Q

Which English physician was the first to successfully vaccinate against smallpox?

A

Edward Jenner

Cowpox material&raquo_space; 8 y.o. boy&raquo_space; no disease developed when inoculated with smallpox later

90
Q

Who is the father of immunology?

A

Dr. Pasteur

developed vaccines

91
Q

What is active immunity?

A
  • Conferred by a host response to a microbe or microbial Ags
  • Provides resistance to infection
  • Generates immunologic memory
92
Q

What is passive immunity?

A
  • Conferred by adoptive transfer of Abs or T cells specific for the microbe
  • Provides resistance to infection
93
Q

Which type of immunity generates immunologic memory (active or passive)?

A

Active immunity

94
Q

B lymphocytes

1] Antigen recognition
2] Effector functions

A

1] Recognize soluble Ags and develop into Ab-secreting cells

2] Functions:

  • Neurtalize microbe
  • Phagocytize
  • Complement activation
95
Q

T helper lymphocytes

1] Antigen recognition
2] Effector functions

A

1] Recognize Ags on surface of Ag-presenting cells and secrete cytokines –> stimulate different immunity and inflammation

2] Functions:

  • Activation of macrophages
  • Inflammation
  • Activation (proliferation and differentiation) of T and B cells
96
Q

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

1] Antigen recognition
2] Effector functions

A

1] Recognize Ags on infected cells

2] Function:
-Kill infected cells

97
Q

Regulatory T cells

1] Antigen recognition
2] Effector functions

A

1] Self antigens

2] Functions:
-Suppress of other lymphocytes to prevent immune responses (to self antigens)

98
Q

8 Cells of Innate Immunity

A
  • neurtophil
  • eosinophil
  • basophil
  • mast cell
  • monocyte
  • macrophage
  • dendritic cell
  • natural killer cell
99
Q

WBC

  • Normal range
  • Mean
A

4,500-11,000

7,400

100
Q

Neutrophils

  • Normal range
  • Mean
A

1,800-7,700

4,400

101
Q

Eosinophils

  • Normal range
  • Mean
102
Q

Basophils

  • Normal range
  • Mean
103
Q

Monocytes

  • Normal range
  • Mean
104
Q

Lymphocytes (T and B cells)

  • Normal range
  • Mean
A

1,000-4,800

2,500

105
Q

Phagocyte function

A

Scavenger function

  • ingest and destroy microbes
  • get rid of damaged tissues
106
Q

What cells are phagocytes?

A
  • neutrophils

- macrophages

107
Q

4 Steps of Phagocyte Response

A
  • RECRUITMENT of cells to infection site
  • RECOGNITION of and activation by microbes
  • INGESTION of microbes by phagocytosis
  • DESTRUCTION of ingested microbes
108
Q

Activated phagocytes also secrete _____ to promote or regulate immune responses

109
Q

What are polymorphonuclear leukocytes?

A
  • Neutrophils in normal blood
  • Nucleus = segmented into 3-5 connected lobules
  • Most abundant population of circulating WBC
  • Diameter = 12-15 um
110
Q

Polymorphonuclear leukocyte (neutrophils) function

A

mediate the earliest phases of inflammatory reactions

111
Q

Where are neutrophils produced?

A

bone marrow

pleuripotent stem cells

112
Q

Neutrophils arise from precursors that also give rise to _______.

A

Mononuclear phagocytes

113
Q

What stimulates the production of neutrophils?

A

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

a cytokine

114
Q

How many neutrophils does an adult human produce daily?

115
Q

How long does a neutrophil circulate in the blood?

A
  • hours or a few days

- function in tissues for 1-2 days, then die

116
Q

What stain is used for neutrophils?

A

neutral dyes

117
Q

What stain is used for eosinophils?

118
Q

What stain is used for basophils?

A

basic dyes

119
Q

What are azurophilic granules?

A
  • Lysosomes

- Contain enzymes and other microbicidal substances

120
Q

What happens after neutrophils bind and internalize yeast cells via phagocytosis?

A
  • yeast is sequestered in phagosomes

- fuse with azurophilic granules

121
Q

What contributes to the killing of the phagosome?

A
  • the production of ROS

- the release of enzymes (neutrophil elastase) into the phagosome

122
Q

What happens when neutrophils encounter hyphae?

A
  • not able to internalize them
  • azurophilic granules = free to deliver their contents into the nucleus
  • triggers chromatin decondensation and NET release
123
Q

What do NET contribute to?

A

immobilization and killing of extracellular organisms

COST = some tissue damage

124
Q

NET formation characteristics

A
  • rapid, active process (minutes)
  • mediated by cell death-dependent process (NETosis)
  • composed of DNA (from mitochondria) and histones
  • decorated by proteins from 1’ and 2’ granules
125
Q

NETosis

A
  • chromatin decondensation

- nuclear membrane disintegration

126
Q

What is NET formation associated with?

A
  • bacterial clearance
  • thrombosis
  • sepsis
  • SLE
127
Q

What protects against helminthes and reactions that cause allergic diseases?

A
  • mast cells
  • basophils
  • eosinophils
128
Q

Mast cells

  • Filled with?
  • Stained with?
A
  • Histimines and other mediators

- Giemsa&raquo_space; PURPLE

129
Q

Blood basophils

Stained with?

A

Giemsa&raquo_space; BLUE

130
Q

Eosinophil granules

  • Filled with?
  • Stained with?
A
  • basic proteins

- eosin (acidic dye)&raquo_space; RED

131
Q

8 Functions of Mast Cells

A
  • Recruitment and activation of monocytes and macrophages
  • Migration and activation of dendritic cells
  • Recruitment and activation of T cells
  • Recruitment and activation of neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
  • Phagocytosis and/or antimicrobial activity
  • Effects on epithelial cells, tight junction proteins, etc…
  • Degradation of endogenous toxic mediators
  • Degradation of snake venom components
132
Q

Where are mast cells commonly found?

A
  • sites that are exposed to the external environment (skin)

- close to BV

133
Q

Mast cells can regulate ____ and _____.

A

regulate vascular permeability and effector-cell recruitment

134
Q

The mononuclear phagocyte system includes _____ and _____.

A
  • Circulating monocytes

- Resident tissue macrophages

135
Q

What type of immunity do macrophages play a role in?

A

Innate & Adaptive immunity

136
Q

Where do cells of macrophage lineage arise from?

A

Committed precursor cells in bone marrow

137
Q

What stimulates macrophage formation?

A

Monocyte/Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

138
Q

Monocyte pathway

A 
1- Bone marrow
2- Activated
3- Maturation
4- Enter blood circulation
5- Migrate to tissues
6- Mature into macrophages (especially during inflammation)
139
Q

Fetus Mononuclear Phagocyte pathway

A 
1- (Yolk sac) Hematopoietic stem cell
2- Embryonic tissue macrophage precursor
3- Blood
4- Differentiation in tissues
    > Brain = Microglial cells
    > Liver = Kuppfer cells
    > Liver = Alveolar macrophage
    > Spleen = Sinusoidal macrophages
140
Q

Adult Mononuclear Phagocyte pathway

A 
1- (Bone marrow) Hematopoetic stem cell
2- Monocyte/dendritic cell precursor
3- Monoblast
4- Blood
5- Monocyte
6- Macrophage activation in tissues
141
Q

Mononuclear Phagocytes (Bone Marrow&raquo_space; Peripheral Blood)

A 
Bone Marrow:
  > HSC
  > GM-CFU
  > M-CFU
  > Monoblast
  > Pro-monocyte

Peripheral Blood:
> Inflammatory monocyte
> Resident monocyte

142
Q

Monocyte Differentiation Options

A

-Bone = osteoclast
-CNS = microglial cells
-Lung = Alveolar macrophage
-Liver = Kupffer cells
-Connective tissue = Histiocyte
-Spleen =
> White pulp macrophage
> Red pulp macrophage
> Marginal zone macrophage
> Metallophilic macrophage

143
Q

6 Functions of Monocytes/Macrophages

A 
1- Activation
2- Chemotaxis, tissue inflammation
3- Phagocytosis, scavenger function, tissue repair
4- Effector function
5- Antigen presentation
6- Immunomodulation
144
Q

MO present Ags to helper T cells at the sites of infection that leads to ______.

A
  • T cell activation
  • Activation of cytokines&raquo_space; Activation of MO
  • Eradication of phagocytized microbes that are resistant to killing
145
Q

Common dendritic cell precursors

A

ADULTS:
-Pre-classical DC&raquo_space; Classical DC

  • Plasmacytoid DC&raquo_space; Plasmacytoid DC (pDCs)
  • Monocyte&raquo_space; Inflammatory DC

FETUS:
-Embryonic tissue precursor&raquo_space; Langerhans cells

IMMUNOLOGY Exam #1- Lo (6 decks)

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