LE3 OB Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 28 year old primigravid in the Delivery Room has these internal exam (IE) findings : cervix 4 cms. dilated, 60% effaced, intact bag of water. What Phase of Parturition is she in ?
    A. Quiescence
    B. Activation
    C. Stimulation
    D. Involution
A

B. Activation
Rationale: The activation phase of parturition involves the early stages of labor where there is progressive dilation and effacement of the cervix. This is when the body prepares for the active labor process, typically characterized by cervical dilation up to 6 cm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. A G3P3 patient is in the ward, with baby breastfeeding. What phase of parturition is she in ?
    A. Quiescence
    B. Activation
    C. Stimulation
    D. Involution
A

D. Involution
Rationale: The involution phase of parturition refers to the period after the delivery of the placenta, where the uterus begins to return to its pre-pregnancy size and state. Breastfeeding can also help accelerate this process as it stimulates the release of oxytocin, which aids in uterine contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. A G3P3 patient comes at 28 weeks with occasional hypogastric pains, internal exam revealed a closed, uneffaced cervix.. What phase of parturition is she in?
    A. Quiescence
    B. Activation
    C. Stimulation
    D. Involution
A

A. Quiescence
Rationale: The quiescence phase of parturition is the period during pregnancy when the uterus is relatively inactive, marked by a lack of significant cervical changes (dilation and effacement). This phase lasts until labor begins or any pre-labor activity starts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. A primigravid at 38 weeks says she now “breathes better, as there is more space below her ribs” What phase of parturition is she in?
    A. Quiescence
    B. Activation
    C. Stimulation
    D. Involution
A

B. Activation
Rationale: This situation likely describes the phenomenon known as “lightening” or “dropping,” where the fetal head descends into the pelvis, preparing for birth. This occurs during the late quiescence transitioning into the activation phase, making it easier for the mother to breathe as the baby no longer presses against the diaphragm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. In the recovery room one hour after delivery, a patient complains of moderate vulvar pain. What stage of labor is she in?
    A. Stage I
    B. Stage II
    C. Stage III
    D. Fourth stage
A

D. Fourth stage
Rationale: The fourth stage of labor refers to the first few hours after delivery, where the focus is on the mother’s recovery and observation for any complications such as excessive bleeding. Vulvar pain could be associated with post-delivery swelling or a perineal tear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. A G2P2 patient is In the delivery room, with the placenta and umbilical cord visible at the introitus. What stage of labor is the patient in ? *
    A. Stage 1
    B. Stage 2
    C. Stage 3
    D. “Fourth Stage”
A

C. Stage 3
Rationale: Stage 3 of labor involves the delivery of the placenta. Since the placenta and umbilical cord are visible at the introitus, this indicates that the patient is in the process of completing the third stage of labor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. A G1P0 patient in the labor room is in lithotomy position, with the obstetrician ready to do an episiotomy. What stage of labor is she in?
    a. Stage 1
    b. Stage 2
    c. Stage 3
    d. “Fourth Stage”
A

B. Stage 2
Rationale: Stage 2 of labor is characterized by the period from full cervical dilation to the delivery of the baby. The preparation for an episiotomy, typically performed to enlarge the vaginal opening for delivery, indicates that the baby’s delivery is imminent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The mechanism by which the uterus can accommodate the enlarging fetus is ____?
    A. Addition of more myometrial fibers as pregnancy advances
    B. Increasing hydrostatic pressure of the amniotic fluid
    C. Stretching of uterine muscle fibers
    D. Increased mitotic division among uterine muscle fibers
A

C. Stretching of uterine muscle fibers
Rationale: As the pregnancy progresses, the primary mechanism allowing the uterus to accommodate the growing fetus is the stretching of existing uterine muscle fibers. This stretching allows the uterus to expand significantly to hold the fetus, amniotic fluid, and placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Who among the following patients is in the activation phase of parturition?
    A. G2P1 patient with cervix 6 cms, dilated, 80% effaced
    B. G1P0 patient requesting for epidural anesthesia at 5cms
    C. G4P3 patient at 34 weeks with irregular uterine contractions
    D. G5P5 patient in the recovery room with the baby sulking on the breast
A

A. G2P1 patient with cervix 6 cms dilated, 80% effaced
Rationale: The activation phase of parturition involves the early stages of labor, characterized by cervical changes leading up to more intense labor. A cervix that is 6 cm dilated and 80% effaced indicates active labor, which is the later part of the activation phase, moving towards full dilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. The hormone which promotes parturition is ______
    A. Estrogen
    B. Progesterone
    C. Oxytocin
    D. Cortisol
A

C. Oxytocin
Rationale: Oxytocin is a key hormone that promotes parturition. It stimulates uterine contractions, which are crucial for the progression of labor and the delivery of the baby. Oxytocin release is also enhanced by feedback mechanisms during labor, particularly through the stimulation of the nipples and the stretching of the cervix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The mechanism by which the uterine myometrium helps maintain pregnancy is due to?*
    A. the myometrial cells rendered non-responsive to stimuli
    B. the effect of bed rest
    C. changes in extracellular matrix
    D. increased vascularity
A

A. the myometrial cells rendered non-responsive to stimuli
Rationale: During pregnancy, progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining uterine quiescence by rendering the myometrial cells less responsive to contractile stimuli. This hormonal influence helps prevent premature contractions and supports the continuation of pregnancy until term.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12 Which mechanism initiates uterine contractions? *
A. Activation of ATPase
B. Phosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase
C. Intracellular calcium combines with the protein calmodulin
D. Hydrolysis of ATP

A

C. Intracellular calcium combines with the protein calmodulin
Rationale: Uterine contractions are primarily initiated by the increase in intracellular calcium levels, which combine with calmodulin. This complex then activates myosin light chain kinase, leading to muscle contraction through phosphorylation processes. This is a critical step in initiating uterine contractions during labor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13 The graphic analysis of labor considers 2 parameters which include
A. Uterine contractions and hours in labor
B. Fetal head descent versus cervical dilatation
C. hours in labor and cervical dilatation
D. cervical dilatation and uterine contractions

A

C. hours in labor and cervical dilatation.

The Friedman labor curve is a graphical representation that tracks the progress of labor, specifically looking at the relationship between cervical dilatation and the duration of labor. This curve is used to evaluate whether labor is progressing normally by showing how the cervix dilates over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. A 22 year old primigravid comes at 37 weeks for recurring lower abdominal discomfort, with no associated watery nor bloody discharge. The cervix was long and closed on examination. What advice can be given to this patient ?
    A. She must be admitted.
    B. Labor has begun and delivery is expected within the day.
    C. She is in false labor.
    D. If symptoms disappear spontaneously she should be readmitted in 2 weeks for induction of labor.
A

C. She is in false labor.
Rationale: The symptoms described, such as lower abdominal discomfort with a long and closed cervix, are indicative of false labor (Braxton Hicks contractions). These contractions are irregular and do not lead to cervical changes, which differentiates them from true labor contractions that are more regular, painful, and cause cervical dilation and effacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. One of the following processes occurs in the Phase of Stimulation
    A. Increase in oxytocin receptors
    B. Pain elicited with cervical stretching
    C. Lactogenesis
    D. Stromal hypertrophy of myometrium
A

B. Pain elicited with cervical stretching
This choice directly correlates with the physiological events occurring in the first stage of the Phase of Stimulation, where cervical dilation and effacement are crucial, and the pain associated with these processes is significant and impactful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A G4P4 patient delivered 5 weeks ago. She did not breastfeed, and had her menstruation 2 days ago. What phase of parturition is she in?
    A. Quiescence
    B. Activation
    C. Stimulation
    D. Involution
A

D. Involution.
Involution is the process by which the uterus returns to its pre-pregnancy size and condition. This typically takes about 6-8 weeks. The fact that the patient has already menstruated indicates that her reproductive system is returning to its pre-pregnancy state, aligning with the phase of involution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A primigravid comes at 11:00 am with cervix 4 cms. dilated. When is her cervix expected to be fully dilated ?
    A. 3:00 pm
    B. 4:00 pm
    C. 5:00 pm
    D. 6:00 pm
A

A. 3:00 pm

Active Phase Details:

Cervical Dilatation Rate: The cervical dilatation rate in a primigravida during the active phase ranges from 1.2 to 6.8 cm/hour.

Mean Duration: The mean duration for the active phase in primigravida is approximately 4.9 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Placental separation is initiated usually as a result of
    A. Maternal expulsive efforts
    B. Diminution of the placental site
    C. Administration of uterotonics
    D. Massage of the uterine fundus
A

B. Diminution of the placental site.
After delivery, as the uterus contracts, the placental site on the uterine wall diminishes in size, which leads to the placenta detaching. This is a natural consequence of uterine contraction rather than being primarily induced by the factors listed in the other options.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

19.In which functional division of labor is the relationship of the fetal head and pelvis apparent
A. Preparatory
B. Dilatational
C. Pelvic
D. Latent Phase

A

C. Pelvic.
The pelvic phase (or division) of labor refers to the stage where the mechanics of how the fetal head navigates through the maternal pelvis become apparent. This phase includes engagement, descent, and the necessary rotations of the fetal head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. A G1P0 patient inquires as to how exactly bleeding is controlled after the baby is delivered. How should she be advised ? *
    A. Bleeding is an expected consequence after the baby is delivered.
    B. Large blood vessels of the uterus are compressed after delivery.
    C. Endogenous oxytocin helps stop the bleeding.
    D. Control of bleeding depends on the birth attendant’s skill.
A

C. Endogenous oxytocin helps stop the bleeding.

This option specifically addresses the physiological mechanism by which the body naturally controls bleeding after the delivery of a baby. Endogenous oxytocin release during and after delivery stimulates strong uterine contractions, which help to compress the blood vessels at the site where the placenta was attached, reducing blood loss. This natural hormonal response is critical for promoting hemostasis and is a fundamental aspect of the postpartum period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. All of the following processes describe a patient in the Stimulation Phase of Parturition, except one:

A. Increase in the amount of contraction-assisted proteins
B. Increase in collagen solubility
C. Increase in responsiveness to uterotonins
D. Increase in oxytocin receptors

A

B. Increase in collagen solubility

Rationale: The stimulation phase of parturition involves preparing the uterus for labor, characterized by physiological changes that enhance uterine contractility. These changes include increases in contraction-assisted proteins, responsiveness to uterotonins, and oxytocin receptors, all aimed at promoting effective labor contractions. However, the increase in collagen solubility, while related to the preparation for labor, is primarily involved in the process of cervical ripening rather than the stimulation of uterine contractility. Therefore, option B, “Increase in collagen solubility,” does not describe a process in the Stimulation Phase directly linked to enhancing uterine contraction capabilities, making it the exception in this list.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. In the Friedman Labor Curve, which part illustrates when the cervix becomes soft and is preparing to dilate?

A. Latent Phase
B. Active Phase: Acceleration
C. Active Phase: Phase of Maximum Slope
D. Active Phase: Deceleration

A

A. Latent Phase

Rationale: The Friedman Labor Curve is a graphical representation of the stages and progress of labor. The Latent Phase illustrated in the curve is when the cervix is softening, thinning (effacing), and gradually dilating up to about 3-4 cm. This phase is characterized by less intense, more irregular contractions that are necessary to prepare the cervix for the more rapid dilation that occurs in the subsequent active phase. Thus, the Latent Phase is the correct answer, as it represents the initial cervical changes leading up to more significant dilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. As the clinical clerk assigned in the recovery room, what should you closely monitor after the patient has delivered?
    Your primary responsibilities in the recovery room include monitoring:

A. Ensure that the uterus is well-contracted.
B. Check that the intravenous fluids are running as scheduled.
C. Observe if the baby is latched on properly to mother’s breast.
D. Verify if the nurse has administered oral analgesics.

A

A. Ensure that the uterus is well-contracted

Rationale: In the immediate postpartum period, one of the most critical aspects to monitor is the contraction status of the uterus. Effective uterine contractions are essential to control bleeding from the site where the placenta was attached. Ensuring that the uterus is well-contracted helps prevent postpartum hemorrhage, a significant risk following delivery. This makes it the most important task to prioritize in the recovery room immediately after the patient has delivered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. A 25-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation comes for blood-tinged, mucoid vaginal discharge, associated with lumbosacral and hypogastric pains noted 4 hours prior. She is in the stage of labor.

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

A

A. First

Rationale: The description of a blood-tinged, mucoid vaginal discharge along with lumbosacral and hypogastric pains in a primigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation are indicative of early labor signs. The bloody show and initial pains are characteristic of the first stage of labor, which encompasses cervical changes from the beginning of cervical dilation up to full dilation at 10 cm. This is the stage where labor is established and progresses until the cervix is fully dilated, ready for the baby to pass through the birth canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. A 25-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation in the ER is concerned about the blood-tinged, mucoid vaginal discharge, associated with lumbosacral and hypogastric pains noted 4 hours prior. What should she be advised?

A. She is in the early part of labor.
B. Reassure that it is normal at this age of pregnancy.
C. It is an indication for immediate abdominal delivery.
D. She should stop taking any food from thereon.

A

A. She is in the early part of labor

Rationale: Advising that she is in the early part of labor is the most appropriate response, given her symptoms of blood-tinged, mucoid vaginal discharge and early labor pains. This advice provides clear information about her current state, confirming that her symptoms are typical for the onset of labor and educating her on what to expect as labor progresses. This guidance is crucial for managing expectations and preparing her for the birth process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. The process of placental separation wherein blood from the placental site pours into the membrane sac and does not escape until after extrusion of the placenta
    A. Duncan mechanism
    B. Schultze mechanism
    C. Mauriceau maneuver
    D. Leopolds maneuver
A

B. Schultze mechanism

Rationale: According to Williams’ Obstetrics, the Schultze mechanism of placental separation is characterized by the central separation of the placenta, wherein the blood from the placental site collects in the membrane sac and does not escape externally until the placenta is expelled. This mechanism is distinguished by the shiny fetal surface of the placenta appearing first as it emerges. This contrasts with the Duncan mechanism, where separation begins peripherally and blood often escapes alongside the emerging placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. This describes the descent of the fetal biparietal diameter in relation to a line drawn between maternal ischial spines
    A. Dilatation
    B. Descent
    C. Station
    D. Effacement
A

C. Station

Rationale: In obstetrics, the station refers to the descent of the fetal head (measured by the biparietal diameter) in relation to the ischial spines of the maternal pelvis. This measurement is crucial for assessing the progress of labor and determining how far the head has descended into the birth canal. It is expressed in negative, zero, or positive numbers. Zero station indicates that the leading part of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, with negative numbers indicating it is above, and positive numbers below, the spines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

28.If expulsive efforts are inadequate or expeditious delivery is needed, one applies gloved fingers beneath a draped towel to exert forward pressure on the fetal chin through the perineum just in front of the coccyx. This maneuver is called:
A. Mcroberts maneuver
B. Mauriceau maneuver
C. Woods corkskrew maneuver
D. Ritgen’s maneuver

A

D. Ritgen’s maneuver

Rationale: The Ritgen’s maneuver involves the application of upward pressure from the perineal body to the fetal chin through the vagina to facilitate the delivery of the head, especially during the final stages of delivery when expulsive efforts are inadequate. This maneuver aids in controlling the delivery of the head and minimizing perineal trauma by extending the head slowly and gently. This technique differs from other maneuvers like McRoberts or Mauriceau, which are used in different contexts of labor and delivery.

29
Q
  1. The umbilical cord is cut between two clamps 5 cms from the fetal abdomen and later an umbilical clamp is applied at this length from its insertion into the fetal abdomen *
    A. 1 cm
    B. 4-5 cms
    C. 2 cms
    D. 3 cms
A

C. 2 cms.

After the umbilical pulsations have ceased, the proper procedure involves placing an umbilical clamp or tie approximately 2 cm from the insertion of the cord into the fetal abdomen. This is followed by placing another clamp at 5 cm from the base, and then cutting the cord close to the first clamp. This method ensures safe and effective cord clamping, minimizing risks and promoting healthy outcomes for the newborn.

30
Q
  1. An episiotomy technique, fingers are insinuated between the crowning head and the perineum and the scissors are positioned at the 6 o’ clock on the vaginal opening and directed posteriorly *
    A. Mediolateral episiotomy
    B. Lateral episiotomy
    C. Horizontal episiotomy
    D. Median episiotomy
A

D. Median episiotomy

Rationale: A median episiotomy involves a straight incision made at the midline, starting at the vaginal opening and directed posteriorly towards the anus but typically does not extend all the way to it. This type of episiotomy is designed to enlarge the vaginal orifice to facilitate childbirth, reduce the risk of irregular tearing, and is easier to repair than other types, although it may be associated with a higher risk of extending into the anal area. This technique contrasts with mediolateral, lateral, or horizontal episiotomies, which are angled away from the midline.

31
Q
  1. The most common maternal indication for operative vaginal delivery *
    A. Heart disease
    B. Maternal exhaustion
    C. Per request of the mother
    D. Intrapartum infection
A

B. Maternal exhaustion

Rationale: The most common maternal indication for operative vaginal delivery, such as using forceps or a vacuum extractor, is maternal exhaustion. Maternal exhaustion can impair a woman’s ability to effectively push during the later stages of labor, especially if she has been in labor for an extended period. This condition can compromise the progress of labor, leading to potential risks for both the mother and the fetus. While other options like heart disease or intrapartum infection might necessitate expedited delivery, maternal exhaustion specifically impacts the ability to conduct a normal delivery, thus often necessitating operative intervention.

32
Q
  1. The sloughing of decidual tissues which contains erythrocytes, shredded decidual, epithelial cells and bacteria usually pale in color discharged 3 to 4 days after delivery is called: *
    A. Lochia rubra
    B. Lochia alba
    C. Lochia serosa
    D. Lochia albinica
A

C. Lochia serosa

Rationale: Lochia serosa is the term used to describe the vaginal discharge that occurs approximately 3 to 4 days postpartum, following the lochia rubra phase. Lochia serosa is typically pale or pink in color and consists of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and debris from the decidual and remaining placental tissues. This phase is distinct from lochia rubra, which is primarily blood and occurs immediately after birth, and from lochia alba, which is the later creamy white or light yellow discharge that follows lochia serosa.

33
Q
  1. Duration of the latent phase in a multigravida is
    A. 1-2 hours
    B. 2-4 hours
    C. 4-6 hours
    D. 7-8 hours
A

C. 4-6 hours

Rationale: The duration of the latent phase in a multigravida (a woman who has been pregnant more than once) is typically shorter than in primigravidas. The latent phase, which involves early labor with cervical effacement and dilation up to about 3-4 cm, usually lasts between 2-4 hours in multigravidas. This shorter duration is due to the cervix often responding more quickly in subsequent pregnancies because of prior stretching.

34
Q
  1. After the delivery of fetus, placenta should be removed by:
    A. Fundal pressure
    B. Dilatation and curettage
    C. Brandt-Andrews maneuver
    D. Manual removal
A

C. Brandt-Andrews maneuver

Rationale: The Brandt-Andrews maneuver is a technique used to facilitate the delivery of the placenta by controlled cord traction. This method involves applying gentle traction on the umbilical cord while supporting the uterus with the other hand to prevent uterine inversion and assist in the natural separation and expulsion of the placenta. This technique is preferred over manual removal, which is only used when the placenta fails to separate naturally and there are signs of potential complications. Fundal pressure is discouraged as it can lead to uterine inversion or increased bleeding.

35
Q
  1. Total bishop score is
    A. 10
    B. 11
    C. 12
    D. 13
A

D. 13

Rationale: The Bishop score is used to evaluate the readiness of the cervix for induction of labor and involves scoring the cervix based on five criteria: dilation, effacement, consistency, position, and fetal station. Each criterion is scored from 0 to 3, except for cervical position which is scored from 0 to 2. The total Bishop score can thus reach a maximum of 13 points, but typically a score of 12 is used as a practical upper limit in many scoring interpretations, with higher scores indicating a more favorable cervix for induction.

36
Q
  1. A 26 year old G1P0 at 38 weeks presents in active labor at 6 cms dilated with ruptured membranes. On internal examination, the posterior fontanel is palpated.
    The fetal heart tracing is 140 bpm, with accelerations and no decelerations. The patient’s pelvis is adequate. Which of the following is the then perform internal podalic version with breech most appropriate management for the patient?
    A. Do immediate Cesarean section
    B. Allow spontaneous labor with vaginal delivery
    C. Perform forceps delivery
    D. Allow patient to undergo labor spontaneously with complete cervical dilatation is achieved and extraction
A

B. Allow spontaneous labor with vaginal delivery

Rationale: For a 26-year-old G1P0 at 38 weeks in active labor, 6 cm dilated with ruptured membranes, the presentation of the posterior fontanelle and a fetal heart rate of 140 bpm with accelerations and no decelerations indicates a favorable fetal condition. The adequate pelvic size and positive fetal heart tracing suggest that continued labor with an eye towards a spontaneous vaginal delivery is appropriate. There is no indication for a Cesarean section solely based on the current presentation and labor progress. Forceps delivery and internal podalic version are not indicated without fetal distress or malpresentation, making spontaneous vaginal delivery the best management.

37
Q
  1. A primipara is in labor and an episiotomy is about to be done. Compared with a midline episiotomy, which of the following is an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy?
    A. Easy to repair
    B. Less prone to infection
    C. Less blood loss
    D. Less extension of the incision
A

D. Less extension of the incision

Rationale: A mediolateral episiotomy, compared to a midline episiotomy, has a lower risk of extending into the anal sphincter or rectal mucosa. While a mediolateral episiotomy may be more painful and difficult to repair than a midline episiotomy, its primary advantage is preventing severe perineal trauma, especially protecting the anal sphincter.

38
Q
  1. This appears to lengthen the second stage of labor
    A. Paracervical block
    B. Spinal block
    C. Pudendal block
    D. Epidural block
A

D. Epidural block

Rationale: An epidural block can lengthen the second stage of labor. This regional anesthesia provides pain relief but can also decrease the mother’s ability to feel and push effectively during contractions, which may prolong the duration of the second stage. The other options listed typically do not have a significant impact on the length of the second stage of labor.

39
Q
  1. This method hastens labor by about two hours:
    A. Membrane stripping
    B. Epidural anesthesia
    C. Intentional amniotomy
    D. Oxytocin
A

C. Intentional amniotomy

Rationale: Intentional amniotomy, or artificially rupturing the membranes, is a method used to hasten labor. By breaking the water, it can increase the efficiency of contractions and potentially shorten the labor duration by about two hours. This intervention directly affects the mechanics of labor progression.

40
Q
  1. A primigravida underwent spontaneous vaginal delivery. A median episiotomy was done. On inspection of the vagina, the tear involved the left anal sphincter but did go through the rectal mucosa. What is the degree of laceration incurred?
    A. First degree
    B. Second degree
    C. Third degree
    D. Fourth degree
A

D. Fourth degree.

This is because the tear described in the scenario involved both the left anal sphincter and extended through the rectal mucosa, which precisely defines a fourth-degree laceration. This degree of tear is the most severe, involving both the anal sphincter and the rectal mucosa, requiring careful surgical repair to prevent long-term complications such as fecal incontinence.

41
Q

41 A 37 year old G2P1(1001) at 38 weeks in labor handled by a midwife came in the ER. After delivery of the baby, there was tear noted from the vaginal mucosa down to the rectal mucosa, what is the degree of laceration?
A. First degree
B. Second degree
C. Third degree
D. Fourth degree

A

D. Fourth degree

Rationale: A fourth-degree laceration is the most severe form of perineal tear, extending through the vaginal mucosa, perineal body, anal sphincter, and the rectal mucosa. The description of a tear from the vaginal mucosa down to the rectal mucosa clearly indicates a fourth-degree tear, involving all layers, including the anal and rectal mucosa. This requires careful surgical repair to ensure proper healing and function.

42
Q
      1. What is the correct order of cardinal movements? *
  1. Extension
  2. Engagement
  3. External rotation
  4. Descent
  5. Flexion
  6. Internal rotation
  7. Expulsion
A

ED FIRE ERE

43. Engagement
- Rationale: Engagement is the initial cardinal movement, where the biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet at its widest part and enters the pelvic cavity. This is when the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines or lower.

45. Descent
- Rationale: Following engagement, descent continues as the fetus moves downward through the birth canal during contractions. This movement is facilitated by the bony pelvis and the muscular and ligamentous structures.

46. Flexion
- Rationale: As the fetal head descends, it encounters resistance from the cervix, pelvic wall, and pelvic floor, leading to flexion. This means the fetal chin is brought closer to its chest, presenting the smallest diameter (suboccipitobregmatic diameter) to the birth canal.

47. Internal rotation
- Rationale: Internal rotation occurs as the fetal head rotates about 45 degrees to align the fetal head’s long axis with the maternal pelvis’s long axis. This rotation is necessary for the head to pass through the pelvic cavity efficiently.

42. Extension
- Rationale: Extension occurs when the fetal head reaches the vaginal opening and must navigate under the pubic symphysis. The head extends so that the face, forehead, and chin successively emerge from the birth canal.

44. External rotation (Restitution)
- Rationale: After the head emerges, it rotates briefly to realign the head with the body, which has remained relatively unchanged in orientation since the internal rotation.

48. Expulsion
- Rationale: Finally, expulsion is achieved after external rotation, where the shoulders and the rest of the body are delivered easily, marking the completion of childbirth.

43
Q
  1. At what point does one initiate episiotomy? *
    A. When the head is at station +2
    B. When the head is visible at about 3 to 4 cms in diameter
    C. When the head is palpated at station 0
    D. When tufts of hair becomes visible in between the labia minora
A

B. When the head is visible at about 3 to 4 cms in diameter

Rationale: An episiotomy is typically performed when the fetal head stretches the perineum and is visible at about 3 to 4 cms in diameter during a contraction. This timing helps ensure the episiotomy is done late enough in the second stage of labor to be effective in preventing severe perineal tearing, facilitating a controlled and timely extension of the vaginal opening to accommodate the delivery of the head.

44
Q
  1. The vaginal examination of a primigravid revealed 6 cms, 50% effaced, cephalic, intact bag of waters, station -1. How will you interpret this information?
    A. Effacement is 1/3 from completion
    B. Dilatation is 50% completed
    C. The fetus has passed through the level of the ischial spines
    D. The fetal presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines
A

D. The fetal presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines

Rationale: In obstetric measurements, the station of the fetus refers to the position of the presenting part relative to the ischial spines of the maternal pelvis. A station of -1 indicates that the presenting part (typically the fetal head in a cephalic presentation) is 1 cm above the level of the ischial spines.

45
Q
  1. When is the end of the puerperium
    A. 2 wks
    B. 3 wks
    C. 4 wks
    D. 6 wks
A

D. 6 wks

Rationale: The puerperium or postpartum period traditionally extends until about 6 weeks after childbirth. This time allows for the physiological changes of pregnancy to reverse and the reproductive organs, particularly the uterus, to return to their pre-pregnant state.

46
Q
  1. What do you call the bloody discharge upon placental separation
    A. Lochia serosa
    B. Lochia rubra
    C. Lochia alba
    D. Lochia verde
A

B. Lochia rubra

Rationale: Lochia rubra is the term used for the bloody discharge that typically occurs immediately after placental separation and continues for the first few days postpartum. It consists of blood, decidual tissue, and trophoblastic debris.

47
Q
  1. What is the mechanism postpartum which prevents blood loss?
    A. Platelets have an increased production
    B. Contraction of the myometrium constricts the spiral arterioles
    C. Release of endogenous epinephrine
    D. Release of prolactin as the placenta is expelled
A

B. Contraction of the myometrium constricts the spiral arterioles

Rationale: After delivery, the contraction of the myometrium plays a critical role in controlling postpartum bleeding. These contractions effectively constrict the spiral arterioles that supplied the placenta, thereby reducing blood flow and preventing excessive hemorrhage.

48
Q
  1. How do you differentiate a nulligravida from a multigravida just by doing a speculum examination? *
    A. The cervix is smooth with a circular hole at the center
    B. The cervix is violaceous
    C. The cervix has lateral tears
    D. The cervix is posteriorly deviated
A

C. The cervix has lateral tears

Rationale: A multigravida often shows signs of previous deliveries during a speculum examination, one of which can be lateral cervical tears. These are scars or lacerations from previous deliveries and are indicative of the cervix that has undergone dilation and possibly other obstetrical interventions.

49
Q
  1. Mrs. A delivered via normal delivery at a lying in. After one week, she went back to the lying in for check up. On IE, the uterus was enlarged to 20 weeks. What is this condition called?
    A. Uterine involution
    B. Puerperal sepsis
    C. Uterine sub-involution
    D. Uterine synechiae
A

C. Uterine sub-involution

Rationale: Uterine sub-involution refers to the slower than expected return of the uterus to its pre-pregnancy size following childbirth. If Mrs. A’s uterus is palpably enlarged to about 20 weeks’ size one week post-delivery, it indicates that the uterus is not involuting properly, which can be due to various reasons such as retained placental fragments or infection.

50
Q
  1. Mrs. B delivered via normal spontaneous delivery at a nearby hospital. She noted foul smelling vaginal discharge. She is afebrile and can perform her usual chores. What is the most common cause of this condition?
    A. Poor hygiene
    B. Her birth attendant might have transected the anal sphincter
    C. Cervico-vaginitis
    D. A retained operative sponge
A

C. Cervico-vaginitis

Rationale: Foul-smelling vaginal discharge post-delivery is commonly caused by cervico-vaginitis, an inflammation or infection of the cervix and vagina, which can occur due to a variety of bacterial, viral, or fungal pathogens. In the absence of fever and other systemic symptoms, local infections like cervico-vaginitis are likely, particularly following the disruption and exposure during delivery. While poor hygiene and retained foreign objects like a sponge could also cause infection, cervico-vaginitis is more common and consistent with the symptoms described without the presence of fever.

51
Q
  1. Why is a postpartum patient more prone to urinary tract infection?
    A. The urinary bladder is lax
    B. The pregnant patient’s bladder is full of anaerobes.
    C. There is overdistention of the bladder during labor.
    D. The ureters are constricted
A

C. There is overdistention of the bladder during labor

Rationale: Postpartum women are more prone to urinary tract infections primarily due to overdistention of the bladder, which is common during labor. Overdistention can impair bladder function and lead to urinary stasis, providing an environment conducive to bacterial growth. Additionally, the physical process of labor may interfere with the complete emptying of the bladder, exacerbating this issue.

52
Q
  1. What is the best answer to the patient who claims that she has inadequate breastmilk?
    A. It is because she has small breasts.
    B. She has to breastfeed more often
    C. She must supplement with milk formula
    D. She has to pump her breasts
A

B. She has to breastfeed more often

Rationale: Frequent breastfeeding is the most effective method to increase milk supply. Breastfeeding more often stimulates the breasts and promotes the production of prolactin, which is crucial for milk production. It is a common misconception that breast size correlates with milk production capability. Supplementing with formula or exclusively pumping might reduce the baby’s demand at the breast, potentially decreasing milk supply rather than increasing it.

53
Q
  1. Where milk production first occurs in the breast anatomy?
    A. Alveoli
    B. Ducts
    C. Lobules
    D. Nipple
A

A. Alveoli

Rationale:
Milk production begins in the alveoli, which are small glandular structures within the breast. Each alveolus is a milk-producing gland that is part of a larger grouping called a lobule. The lobules are connected to a network of ducts that transport the milk toward the nipple. The alveoli are lined with milk-secreting epithelial cells and are crucial for the synthesis and secretion of milk. Thus, the alveoli are the site where milk production first occurs, making option A the correct answer based on the anatomy of the breast as described in typical medical resources including Williams’ Obstetrics.

54
Q

60 What is the best management for a 19 year old primipara who complains of lumps in her breast after breastfeeding? She says it is painful *
A. Massage the breast in a gentle circular motion
B. Have a breast ultrasound
C. Consult a surgeon for excision of the mass
D. Take oral antibiotics

A

A. Massage the breast in a gentle circular motion

Rationale: For a 19-year-old primipara complaining of painful lumps in her breast after breastfeeding, the most likely cause is milk stasis or the beginnings of a blocked duct. Massaging the breast in a gentle circular motion can help to relieve the blockage, alleviate pain, and promote milk flow. This non-invasive approach should be the first line of management. If symptoms persist or worsen, further medical evaluation may be necessary, but initial management should focus on techniques to improve milk flow and reduce inflammation.

55
Q

61 In the physiology of breastfeeding, what part of the brain is stimulated when the infant starts sucking and milk is released? *
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Cerebellum
D. Corpus callosum

A

B. Posterior pituitary

Rationale: During breastfeeding, the sucking action of the infant stimulates nerve endings in the nipple and areola, which send signals to the hypothalamus in the brain. This, in turn, triggers the posterior pituitary gland to release oxytocin. Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for the milk let-down reflex, causing the milk-secreting cells in the breasts to contract and release milk. The anterior pituitary releases prolactin, which is crucial for milk production but not directly involved in the immediate release of milk.

56
Q
  1. What is the event in parturition that triggers the start of milk production
    A. Delivery of the fetus
    B. When the mother is already fully dilated
    C. Delivery of the placenta
    D. When there is active labor
A

C. Delivery of the placenta

Rationale: The delivery of the placenta is a significant trigger for the start of milk production. With the placenta’s removal, there is a sudden drop in progesterone levels, which, during pregnancy, inhibit milk production. This hormonal shift allows prolactin to effectively stimulate the mammary glands to produce milk, marking the transition from colostrum to more voluminous milk production.

57
Q
  1. Mrs. C, a 28 y.o. G1P1 (1001) noted that her reddish vaginal discharge gradually decreased as her breastfeeding duration increased. What is the physiologic explanation of this?
    A. During breastfeeding, the release of prolactin stimulates the uterus to contract.
    B. As one breastfeeds, the myoepithelial cells of the breast is stimulated and oxytocin is released
    C. The release of progesterone hastens milk let-down.
    D. There is less breastfeeding time that is why the reddish vaginal discharge is increased.
A

B. As one breastfeeds, the myoepithelial cells of the breast are stimulated, and oxytocin is released

Rationale: Breastfeeding stimulates the release of oxytocin, which not only helps with milk let-down but also causes the uterus to contract. These contractions (often referred to as afterpains) help the uterus shrink back to its pre-pregnancy size more quickly and can reduce the duration and volume of lochia, the postpartum vaginal discharge which transitions from reddish (lochia rubra) to lighter (lochia serosa) and eventually to white or yellowish (lochia alba).

58
Q
  1. What is the management of painful left breast in a postpartum woman on her 5th day post-normal delivery? Other breast
    A. Wear nylon bras.
    B. Discontinue breastfeeding and give milk formula.
    C. Apply warm compress and breastfeed on the
    D. Advise her to take more frequent baths
A

C. Apply warm compress and breastfeed on the affected side

Rationale: A common cause of breast pain in the postpartum period is engorgement or blocked milk ducts. Applying a warm compress can help relieve the pain and facilitate milk flow, reducing engorgement. Continuing to breastfeed, especially from the affected side, is recommended to ensure that the breast is being emptied regularly, which can alleviate discomfort and prevent complications like mastitis.

59
Q
  1. What is the best advice for a 3 month-postpartum patient who complains of sagging abdomen?
    A. Use a girdle
    B. Go on a reducing diet
    C. Consult a plastic surgeon
    D. Perform sit up exercises
A

D. Perform sit-up exercises

Rationale: For a patient 3 months postpartum who complains of a sagging abdomen, the best advice is to encourage physical activity that targets abdominal muscles. Sit-up exercises or other core-strengthening activities can help tone and tighten the abdominal muscles that were stretched during pregnancy. This approach is non-invasive and promotes overall fitness, whereas options like a girdle or surgery do not address the underlying muscle tone and could have other implications.

60
Q
  1. A 28 y.o. G1P1 (1001) delivered via outlet forceps extraction after a prolonged labor. Postpartum, the intern noted that the uterus was soft and boggy. IE done
    Showed intact episiorrhaphy. What is this condition called?
    A. Postpartum hemorrhage probably due to blood dyscracia
    B. Uterine atony
    C. Postpartum hemorrhage secondary to genital tract laceration
    D. Uterine rupture
A

B. Uterine atony

Rationale: Uterine atony refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The description of the uterus as “soft and boggy” is characteristic of uterine atony, where the muscle tone of the uterus is inadequate to control bleeding from the placental site. This condition can be influenced by several factors, including prolonged labor and instrumental delivery (e.g., forceps), as noted in the scenario. The intact episiorrhaphy rules out genital tract lacerations as the cause of bleeding, focusing the diagnosis on uterine atony.

61
Q

67.A 36 y.o. G7P6 (6006) came in for profuse vaginal bleeding. She delivered at a nearby lying-in one hour prior to admission. At the lying- in, she had difficulty bearing down, so fundal pushing was done by the midwife. She delivered a 4.0 kg term, live baby boy. On IE, the MD palpated a 4 cm longitudinal tear at the right lateral aspect of the uterus. What is the cause of the bleeding? *
A. Uterine rupture
B. Blood dyscracia
C. Postpartum hemorrhage secondary to retained placental fragments
D. Uterine atony

A

A. Uterine rupture

Rationale: The clinical description of a palpable longitudinal tear at the right lateral aspect of the uterus immediately suggests uterine rupture, a severe but rare complication of childbirth. This condition can occur due to excessive uterine stress, such as during difficult labor or aggressive fundal pressure, as mentioned. Uterine rupture typically leads to significant bleeding and requires immediate surgical intervention.

62
Q
  1. A 28 y.o. G1P1 (1001) delivered by outlet forceps delivery after 20 hours of labor. She was bearing down for more than 2 hours. Postpartum, she was unable to urinate. The resident inserted an indwelling urinary catheter and 700 cc of urine was evacuated. What is this condition called? *
    A. Urinary tract infection
    B. Traumatic bladder injury
    C. Bladder atony
    D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
A

A. Urinary tract infection

Rationale: Considering the broader context of urinary tract changes during pregnancy and the specific risks associated with UTIs postpartum, this condition might indeed be the most appropriate diagnosis for the scenario described. UTIs are common in the postpartum period due to several factors:

Rationale: Considering the broader context of urinary tract changes during pregnancy and the specific risks associated with UTIs postpartum, this condition might indeed be the most appropriate diagnosis for the scenario described. UTIs are common in the postpartum period due to several factors:

  1. Dilated Ureters and Bladder Trauma: The physical stress of pregnancy and delivery can lead to dilated ureters, overdistention of the bladder, and increased residual urine, all of which contribute to the risk of infection.
  2. Incomplete Bladder Emptying: During a prolonged labor and especially with instrumental delivery such as forceps, the bladder can be traumatized or affected in a way that leads to incomplete emptying. This stasis of urine provides a fertile ground for bacterial growth.
  3. Signs and Symptoms: While the specific symptoms typical of UTI, like dysuria, fever, or cloudy urine, are not mentioned, the inability to urinate and the retention of a significant volume of urine (700 cc) evacuated post-catheterization align with common postpartum UTI complications where initial symptoms might only be retention or incontinence.
63
Q
  1. What is this condition called? The nipples of the mother is painful and would sometimes bleed.
    A. Breast abscess
    B. Mastitis
    C. Sore nipples
    D. Blocked lactiferous ducts
A

C. Sore nipples

Rationale: Sore nipples are typically characterized by pain, sensitivity, and sometimes bleeding, especially associated with the early days of breastfeeding. This condition often results from improper latching techniques or positioning, leading to trauma on the nipples during nursing. Unlike mastitis or a breast abscess, sore nipples do not involve systemic symptoms or localized breast tissue infections.

64
Q
  1. An area of redness was noted at the left upper outer quadrant of the breast. It measure 4 x 4 cm and is painful to touch and warm. What is this condition called?
    A. Mastitis
    B. Breast abscess
    C. Sore nipples
    D. Blocked Lactiferous ducts
A

A. Mastitis

Rationale: Mastitis is an inflammation of the breast tissue that often involves an infection. It is characterized by symptoms such as pain, warmth, redness in a localized area of the breast, and sometimes fever. The scenario describes a localized area of redness and pain, which are typical signs of mastitis. This condition is usually seen in breastfeeding women due to milk stasis, infection, or blocked milk ducts leading to inflammation.

65
Q
  1. A 19 y.o. G1P1 (1001) consulted for painful breast. On PE, there was note of a firm, non-tender, slightly movable mass on right upper outer quadrant of the breast measuring 4 x 4 cm. She has been breastfeeding for 1 month now. What is this condition called?
    A. Breast abscess
    B. Breast nodule
    C. Mastitis
    D. Fibroadenoma
A

D. Fibroadenoma

Rationale: Fibroadenoma is a benign tumor made up of both glandular breast tissue and stromal (connective) tissue. Fibroadenomas are usually non-tender, firm, and movable upon examination, fitting the description provided. They are the most common benign tumors found in young women and can appear during periods when hormonal changes are prevalent, such as during breastfeeding. This diagnosis is likely given the characteristics of the mass described and the patient’s age and breastfeeding status.

66
Q

72.A 26 y.o. G1P1 (1001) patient complains of breast pains. On PE, her breasts were rock hard and her nipples are dripping. What is this condition called? *
A. Engorgement
B. Mastitis
C. Fibroadenoma
D. Breast abscess

A

A. Engorgement

Rationale: Breast engorgement is common when breastfeeding, especially in the early weeks. It occurs when the breasts are excessively full of milk, which can also cause them to become very firm (rock hard) and painful, with nipples that may drip milk. Engorgement can be distinguished from mastitis, which typically includes symptoms of infection such as fever and red, hot areas on the breasts.

67
Q
  1. A 29 y.o. G1P1 (1001) was noted to be bleeding profusely after outlet forceps extraction. Cervical inspection was done and there was a note of a 2 cm laceration at the 9 o’clock position of the cervix. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
    A. Uterine atony
    B. Blood dyscracia
    C. Genital tract laceration
    D. Uterine rupture
A

C. Genital tract laceration

Rationale: Profuse bleeding postpartum, combined with the discovery of a cervical laceration, indicates that the primary source of bleeding is a genital tract laceration. In this scenario, a 2 cm laceration at the cervical position would be sufficient to cause significant bleeding. This diagnosis is consistent with the physical findings and the context of a traumatic delivery using outlet forceps.

68
Q
  1. A 27 y/o G1P1 (1001) came in for perineal pain. She delivered vaginally at a lying-in and birth weight of the baby was 3.5 kg. on PE, the patient’s episiorrhaphy site was converted into 3x4x4 cm violaceous mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    A. Vulvar hematoma
    B. Vulvar hemangioma
    C. Vulavar abcess
    D. Vulvar cancer
A

A. Vulvar hematoma

Rationale: The description of a violaceous mass at the episiorrhaphy site that has developed postpartum suggests a vulvar hematoma. This condition involves the collection of blood within the vulvar tissues due to blood vessel rupture, often associated with childbirth. Hematomas can be painful, and the size and color described are typical of this type of injury.

69
Q
  1. A 29 y.o. G1P1 (1001) was noted to be bleeding profusely after outlet forceps extraction. Cervical inspection was done and there was a note of a 2 cm laceration at the 9 o’clock position of the cervix. What is the diagnosis for this patient? *
    A. Uterine atony
    B. Blood dyscracia
    C. Genital tract laceration
    D. Uterine rupture
A

C. Genital tract laceration

Rationale: The presence of a noted cervical laceration following a forceps delivery and associated profuse bleeding points directly to a genital tract laceration as the cause of the bleeding. While uterine atony also causes postpartum hemorrhage, the specific finding of a cervical laceration confirms that the bleeding source is traumatic in nature related to the delivery process. Uterine atony typically involves a diffuse and generalized bleeding pattern without discrete lacerations.