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LE2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Oogenesis occurs in which kind of ovary?
    A. Fetal
    B. Infantile
    C. Adult
    D. Atrophic
A

a. Fetal
Explanation: Oogenesis begins in the female fetus (fetal ovary) before birth. The process starts with the formation of oogonia, which then enter meiosis to become primary oocytes. These primary oocytes are arrested in prophase I of meiosis until puberty.

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2
Q
  1. Spermatogenesis occurs in which of the following structures?
    A. Glans Penis
    B. Scrotum
    C. Inguinal canal
    D. Seminiferous tubules
A

D. Seminiferous tubules
Explanation: Spermatogenesis, the process of sperm production, occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. This is where spermatogonia divide and differentiate into mature spermatozoa.

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the process of gametogenesis is CORRECT?
    A. The primordial germ cells are derived from the ectoderm in the yolk sac.
    B. Both primary oocytes and primary spermatocytes are arrested in prophase 1 at birth.
    C. Two meiotic divisions are necessary to produce haploid gametes.
    D. At the completion of meiosis I, mature gametes are formed.
A

C. Two meiotic divisions are necessary to produce haploid gametes.
Explanation: Both oogenesis and spermatogenesis involve two meiotic divisions to reduce the chromosome number by half, resulting in haploid gametes (sperm and ova), which is essential for sexual reproduction.

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4
Q
  1. Oogonia and Spermatogonia are specialized primordial germ cells which share the following developmental milestones EXCEPT
    A. Both undergo mitosis in utero.
    B. Both undergo 2 meiotic divisions to produce mature gametes.
    C. Both discard excess genetic material in the form of polar bodies.
    D. Both complete the diploid number of chromosomes at the time of fertilization
A

C. Both discard excess genetic material in the form of polar bodies.
Explanation: This statement is true only for oogonia/oocytes. During oogenesis, the oocyte discards excess genetic material in the form of polar bodies to retain most of the cytoplasm in the egg. Spermatogonia/spermatocytes do not form polar bodies; instead, they undergo spermatogenesis to produce spermatids, which then differentiate into spermatozoa.

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5
Q
  1. Undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to produce haploid spermatids
    A. Primary spermatocyte
    B. Secondary spermatocyte
    C. Spermatid
    D. Spermatozoa
A

A. Primary spermatocyte
Explanation: Primary spermatocytes undergo two meiotic divisions to produce haploid spermatids. The first meiotic division (Meiosis I) produces two secondary spermatocytes, and the second division (Meiosis II) produces spermatids, which are haploid cells that will mature into spermatozoa.

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6
Q

6.Undergoes a series of complex steps from acrosome formation to development of flagellum
A. Primary spermatocyte
B. Secondary spermatocyte
C. Spermatid
D. Spermatozoa

A

C. Spermatid
Explanation: Spermatids undergo a series of transformations known as spermiogenesis, which includes the formation of the acrosome and the development of the flagellum, ultimately maturing into spermatozoa.

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7
Q
  1. The stage of development which are stored in the caudal epididymis
    A. Primary spermatocyte
    B. Secondary spermatocyte
    C. Spermatid
    D. Spermatozoa
A

D. Spermatozoa
Explanation: Mature spermatozoa are stored in the caudal (tail) portion of the epididymis, where they gain motility and the ability to fertilize an ovum.

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8
Q
  1. A 25 year-old patient comes today because she suspects she might be pregnant. Menses are every 28 days and her LMP is December 8, 2021. What diagnostic exam should be done first ?
    A. Urine HCG test
    B. Complete blood count
    C. Serum Estradiol
    D. Serum TSH
A

A. Urine HCG test
Explanation: The first diagnostic test to confirm pregnancy is usually a urine human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test, which can detect the presence of the hormone HCG, produced after implantation.

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9
Q
  1. A pregnant woman shows a serum pregnancy test to be positive; her last menses was 21 days ago, in what part of the reproductive tract will the conceptus be at this point?
    A. In the infundibular area of the tube
    B. Distal third of the fallopian tube
    C. Near the cornual portion of the tube
    D. In the upper portion of the uterine cavity
A

D. In the upper portion of the uterine cavity
Explanation: By the time a pregnancy test is positive (typically a few days before the missed period or about 14 days post-ovulation), the conceptus (now likely a blastocyst) would have already traveled through the fallopian tube and implanted in the uterine lining, or endometrium.

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10
Q
  1. A pregnant woman is already on the 5th week of her pregnancy, how should this conceptus be called
    A. Zygote
    B. Blastocyst
    C. Embryo
    D. Fetus
A

C. Embryo
Explanation: From the end of the 2nd week to the end of the 8th week after fertilization, the developing human is referred to as an embryo. After this period, from the 9th week until birth, it is called a fetus.

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11
Q

11.A G2P1 patient comes in for consult on her 20th week of pregnancy. What should the conceptus be called at this time ?
A. Fetus
B. Embryo
C. Blastocyst
D. Zygote

A

a. fetus
Explanation: After the 8th week of pregnancy until birth, the developing human is referred to as a fetus.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about gametogenesis is TRUE?
    A. Initiation of Meiosis 1 occurs at puberty.
    B. At the end of Meiosis 2, there are 4 haploid gametes are formed for both the males and the females.
    C. Completion of the 2N occurs at fertilization.
    D. Production of mature gametes is a staggered process and produces a finite number of mature
A

C. Completion of the 2N occurs at fertilization.
Explanation: The completion of the diploid number (2N) of chromosomes occurs at fertilization when the haploid sperm and egg nuclei fuse, restoring the diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote.

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13
Q
  1. Genetic diversity is ensured by which of the following processes?
    A. Activation of G1 in the cell cycle.
    B. Separation of sister chromatids in the mitotic phase.
    C. Pairing of homologous chromosomes in meiosis.
    D. Cytokinesis
A

C. Pairing of homologous chromosomes in meiosis.
Explanation: Genetic diversity is ensured through the process of meiosis, specifically during the pairing and subsequent recombination of homologous chromosomes, which allows for genetic variation.

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14
Q
  1. Refers to the one cell stage of the fertilized ovum after pronuclear membrane breakdown but before first cleavage occurs
    A.Zygote
    B.Morula
    C.Conceptus
    D.Embryo
A

A. Zygote
Explanation: The zygote is the one-cell stage that exists after the sperm and egg nuclei have fused but before the cell begins to divide (cleavage).

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15
Q

15 A ball of cells comprising the early embryo that produces the embryo, the placenta and membranes
A.Zygote
B. Morula
C.Conceptus
D.Embryo

A

B. Morula
Explanation: The morula is an early stage in embryonic development, a solid ball of cells resulting from the division of the zygote before the formation of the blastocyst. The term you might be looking for that encompasses the development of the embryo, placenta, and membranes more accurately might be the blastocyst, which forms after the morula stage. However, based on the options provided and the description, “morula” is the closest, although the description fits the blastocyst stage better, where differentiation into embryonic and extra-embryonic structures begins.

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16
Q

16 Fertilized oocyte and its derivatives at all stages of development from fertilization until birth
A. Zygote
B. Morula
C. Conceptus
D. Embryo

A

C. Conceptus
Explanation: The term “conceptus” refers to the fertilized oocyte and all of its derivatives (including the embryo, fetus, and associated membranes) at all stages of development from fertilization until birth.

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17
Q

17 What is the process wherein germ cells undergo a complex series of divisions to give rise to oocytes ?
A. Gametogenesis
B. Oogenesis
C. Ovulation
D. Fertilization

A

B. Oogenesis
Explanation: Oogenesis is the process by which the female germ cells undergo a series of divisions to produce mature oocytes (eggs).

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18
Q
  1. What is the transformation of round spermatids arising from the final division of meiosis Il into spermatozoa?
    A. Gametogenesis
    B. Spermatogenesis
    C. Spermiogenesis
    D. Spermiation
A

c. Spermiogenesis
Explanation: Spermiogenesis is the process by which round spermatids are transformed into mature spermatozoa. This process involves the formation of the acrosome, condensation of nuclear material, and development of the tail.

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19
Q
  1. The initiation of Meiosis 1 during spermatogenesis is dictated by
    A. Testosterone
    B. Aldosterone
    C. Estradiol
    D. Progesterone
A

A. Testosterone
Explanation: The initiation of meiosis I during spermatogenesis is influenced by testosterone, which is produced by the Leydig cells in the testes.

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about oogenesis is TRUE?
    A. The maximal oogonial content of the ovary is at 12-14 weeks age of gestation.
    B. At birth, the female fetus has approximately 2-4 million primary oocytes.
    C. The pool of oocytes are constantly replenished during every menstrual cycle.
    D. Oocyte depletion only occurs at puberty.
A

B. At birth, the female fetus has approximately 2-4 million primary oocytes.
Explanation: At birth, the female fetus has already formed all the primary oocytes she will ever have, numbering approximately 2-4 million. These oocytes are arrested in prophase I of meiosis and decrease in number throughout the female’s life until menopause.

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21
Q
  1. A newly married couple is planning to conceive. Both do not have vices, and the female has regular 28 day cycles. If the woman reveals that her last menses was January 15, 2022. When would you predict ovulation to occur?
    A Between Jan 15-20
    B. Between Jan 21-25
    C. Between Jan 26-31
A

C. Between Jan 26-31
Explanation: In a typical 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. If her last menses started on January 15, ovulation would likely occur around January 29.

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22
Q
  1. A 25 y.o single woman with regular cycles, complains that she felt a fleeting, tolerable, pricking pain at her right lower quadrant associated with pelvic fullness two weeks before her expected menses. You explain that this is probably
    A. Appendicitis
    B. Ovulation
    C. Fertilization
    D. Implantation
A

B. Ovulation
Explanation: The symptoms described are consistent with mittelschmerz, a term used to describe the pain sometimes associated with ovulation. This typically occurs in the middle of the menstrual cycle, about two weeks before the expected menses.

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23
Q

23.A newly married couple followed your advice regarding timing of coitus during her fertile days. She came back after a month and reports that her period is delayed. What information is necessary to obtain at this point?
A. Age at Menarche
B. Exact day of coitus
C. Last menstrual period
D. Past menstrual period

A

C. Last menstrual period
Explanation: The most critical piece of information to obtain is the date of her last menstrual period (LMP). This helps in calculating the gestational age of the pregnancy and determining the next steps in care.

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24
Q
  1. A 27 yo, G1P0, comes in for consult at her 8th week of pregnancy. Which of the following statements will hold true at this stage of the pregnancy?
    A. This coincides with the expected day that menstruation is expected to come
    B. This coincides with the time that HCG is detectable only by a blood exam.
    C. This is the time that organogenesis commences.
    D. This is the time that organogenesis is complete.
A

D. This is the time that organogenesis is complete.
Explanation: By the 8th week of pregnancy, all major organs and external body structures have begun to form, marking the completion of the organogenesis phase. The embryo has developed into a basic structure of what will become a newborn. The details provided, such as bones beginning to replace cartilage, the formation of fingerprints, and the ability to begin hearing, indicate significant development that aligns more closely with the completion of organogenesis rather than its commencement.

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25
Q

25.A patient on her 10th week of gestation is complaining of nausea and vomiting. This is attributable to rising levels of which hormone?
a. FSH
b. LH
c. HCG
d. Prolactin

A

c. HCG
Explanation: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy, often referred to as “morning sickness,” are commonly attributed to rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation.

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26
Q
  1. You are advising a pregnant patient that total duration of a normal pregnancy is computed to be:
    A. 9 calendar months
    B. 280 days
    C. 37 completed weeks
    D. 3 trimesters
A

B. 280 days
Explanation: A normal pregnancy is typically calculated as 280 days, 40 weeks, or 10 lunar months from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), which is roughly equivalent to 9 calendar months but more precisely defined in days or weeks.

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27
Q
  1. Fertilization occurs in what part of the fallopian tube?
    A. Fimbria
    B. Ampulla
    C. Isthmus
    D. Uterotubal junction
A

B. Ampulla
Explanation: Fertilization most commonly occurs in the ampulla, the widest section of the fallopian tube, where the sperm meets the egg.

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28
Q
  1. At the time of ovulation, in which stage of oogenesis would the oocyte be?
    A. Prophase I
    B. Prophase Il
    C. Metaphase II
    D. Metaphase I
A

C. Metaphase II
Explanation: At the time of ovulation, the oocyte is arrested in metaphase II of meiosis. It will only complete meiosis II if fertilization occurs.

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29
Q
  1. At the time of fertilization, which of the following statements about oogenesis is TRUE?
    A. There is a temporary arrest at prophase I
    B. There is a temporary arrest at metaphase Il
    C. There is rapid mitotic multiplication of germ cells
    D. There is completion of second meiotic division
A

B. There is a temporary arrest at metaphase II
Explanation: At the time of fertilization, the secondary oocyte, which is released during ovulation, is arrested in metaphase II. Fertilization triggers the completion of meiosis II, leading to the formation of a mature ovum and the expulsion of a second polar body. This process ensures that the ovum has the correct haploid number of chromosomes before it combines with the haploid sperm to restore the diploid number at fertilization.

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following statements BEST describes the embryonic period
    A. It coincides with the detection of serum beta HCG
    B. It commences at the third week after fertilization and lasts up to 8W
    C. Organogenesis is completed
    D. Coincides with the time the fetal heart is detected
A

B. It commences at the third week after fertilization and lasts up to 8W
Explanation: The embryonic period is defined as the time from the third week after fertilization until the end of the 8th week, during which all major organs and structures begin to develop.

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31
Q
  1. This process involves the regulation of paracrine interactions between the blastocyst and endometrium and must occur between days 20-24 of the cycle.
    A. Ovulation
    B. Fertilization
    C. Apposition
    D. Implantation
A

D. Implantation
Explanation: Implantation involves the blastocyst attaching to and embedding within the endometrium. This critical process typically occurs about 6-10 days after fertilization, which corresponds to days 20-24 of a typical menstrual cycle.

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32
Q

32.A pregnant woman is consulting for prenatal care. You proceed to obtain her Last Menstrual Period (LMP) so that you may establish
A. Conceptional age
B. Gestational age
C. Menarche
D. Coitarche

A

B. Gestational age
Explanation: Gestational age is calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) and is used to monitor the pregnancy and estimate the due date.

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33
Q

33.A woman is currently being treated by her dermatologist for severe acne with retinoic acid. She is 6 weeks pregnant and comes to see you for advice regarding her anti acne treatment. You proceed to tell her
A. No need to worry and may continue anti acne treatment.
B. She may continue treatment but at a lower dose for as long as necessary.
C. She needs to stop the anti acne treatment.
D. You will keep silent on this matter.

A

C. She needs to stop the anti-acne treatment.
Explanation: Retinoic acid (isotretinoin) is teratogenic and can cause serious birth defects. It is contraindicated in pregnancy, and women are advised to avoid pregnancy during treatment and for some time after the treatment has ended.

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34
Q

34.A first time pregnant mom is on her 5th week of pregnancy. You meticulously ask about her Medication and/ or radiation exposure for the past month because the 3rd-8th week is
A. The period of rising maternal hormones.
B. The period of organogenesis.
C. The period of organ maturation.
D. The period of detecting subchorionic hemorrhages.

A

B. The period of organogenesis.
Explanation: The period from the 3rd to the 8th week of pregnancy is critical for organogenesis, the formation of organs. During this time, the developing embryo is particularly vulnerable to teratogens, which can cause congenital anomalies.

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35
Q
  1. The time elapsed since the 1st day of last menstrual period and approximately 2 weeks before ovulation
    A. Menstrual age
    B. Ovulation age
    C. Estimated date of delivery
    D. All of the above
A

A. Menstrual age
Explanation: Menstrual age, also known as gestational age, is calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period. It includes the approximately 2 weeks before ovulation and fertilization occur.

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36
Q
  1. The transition from the embryonic period to the fetal period begins at:
    A. 8 weeks after 1st day of last menstrual period
    B. 8 weeks after fertilization
    C. 10 weeks after fertilization
    D. 12 weeks after 1st day of last menstrual period
A

B. 8 weeks after fertilization
Explanation: The transition from the embryonic period to the fetal period typically begins at 8 weeks after fertilization, which corresponds to 10 weeks of gestational age (since gestational age is calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period, which is approximately 2 weeks before fertilization).

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37
Q
  1. In cases of Gestational Diabetes or Diabetes Mellitus in Pregnancy, what leads to the development of Fetal Macrosomia?
    A. Fetal hyperinsulinemia
    B. Maternal hyperinsulinemia
    C. Fetal hypoglycemia
    D. Maternal hypoglycemia
A

A. Fetal hyperinsulinemia
Explanation: Fetal hyperinsulinemia is a response to maternal hyperglycemia. It stimulates fetal growth and fat deposition, leading to macrosomia.

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38
Q
  1. A 21 y/o patient came in at the clinic with a chief complaint of no menstrual cycle or menarche on examination, patient has a blind pouch as vagina, no pubic hair, and no axillary hair. On further investigation, karyotype showed 46 XY; ultrasound revealed absence of uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes. This patient most likely has:
    A. True hermaphroditism
    B. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
    C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    D. Klinefelter syndrome
A

B. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation: Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) is characterized by the presence of male (46,XY) chromosomes in an individual who has female external genitalia and secondary sexual characteristics but lacks a uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes due to resistance to the actions of male hormones (androgens).

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39
Q
  1. AB, a 28y/o G1P0 who cannot remember her LMP, came for prenatal consultation. She brought with her a transvaginal ultrasound done November 17 2021 which revealed an intrauterine pregnancy 10 weeks AOG. Plausible expectation in third case is at this time is:
    A. Patient should have felt quickening a month ago
    B. Age of gestation of this patient is 15 weeks
    C. EDS is on September 24,2022
    D. Fundic height could be 25 cm
A

D. Fundic height could be 25 cm

40
Q
  1. CD, 39 y/o primigravid on her 14 weeks amenorrhea, came for prenatal today. She is anxious that her baby may be abnormal. Most appropriate to do to ease her anxiety is:
    A. Refer for abortion
    B. Do a quad screen at 3rd trimester
    C. Offer congenital anomaly scan at 18-22 weeks
    D. Prepare her emotionally
A

C. Offer congenital anomaly scan at 18-22 weeks
Explanation: A congenital anomaly scan (also known as an anatomy scan) is typically offered between 18-22 weeks of gestation to assess the fetus for any structural abnormalities. This can provide reassurance and is appropriate for addressing concerns about fetal abnormalities.

41
Q

71 In order to decrease fetal neural tube defects in a nulligravid planning to start a family, folic acid must be taken during
A. 3-4 months before conception
B. 3rd trimester
C. 2nd trimester
D. 1st trimester

A

A. 3-4 months before conception
Explanation: Taking folic acid 3-4 months before conception and continuing through the first trimester has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus.

42
Q
  1. When oligohydramnios is present, most common condition causing it is
    A. Renal agenesis
    B. Fetal CNS abnormality
    C. Rupture of membranes
    D. Post maturity
A

A. Renal agenesis
Explanation: While premature rupture of membranes is a common cause of oligohydramnios, renal agenesis (the absence of one or both kidneys at birth) directly impacts the production of amniotic fluid, as fetal urine is a major component of amniotic fluid in the second and third trimesters. This condition can lead to significantly reduced amniotic fluid levels because the fetus is unable to contribute to the amniotic fluid volume through urination. This explanation aligns with the context provided about how congenital anomalies, such as renal agenesis, can result in oligohydramnios due to the lack of urine production by the fetus.

43
Q
  1. Initial prenatal visit should elicit most importantly the following:
    A. uterine abnormality
    B. baseline blood pressure
    C. assignment of age of gestation
    D. placental localization
A

C. assignment of age of gestation
Explanation: The assignment of the age of gestation is crucial during the initial prenatal visit to establish an estimated due date (EDD), which guides the management and monitoring of the pregnancy.

MAJOR GOALS OF PRENATAL CARE
* To define the health status of the mother and fetus
* To estimate the gestational age
* To initiate a plan for continuing obstetrical care

44
Q
  1. Initial testing or laboratory requests to unmask asymptomatic disease include:
    A. Rubella IgG titers
    B. Urine C&S
    C. AntiHepaB S
    D. Pelvic ultrasound
A

A. Rubella IgG titers
Explanation: Rubella IgG titers are important to determine immunity to rubella, as infection during pregnancy can lead to serious fetal complications. Other tests like urine culture and sensitivity (C&S), hepatitis B surface antigen (AntiHepaB S), and pelvic ultrasound are also important but Rubella IgG titers are specifically aimed at unmasking a potentially asymptomatic but harmful condition.

45
Q
  1. FG, a 21 year old G1P0 on her 34 weeks age of gestation, came for prenatal check up. She complained of nausea and vomiting especially after eating. Advise should include:
    A. Take ginger and candies with meals
    B. Assume upright position for at least 40 minutes after meals
    C. Stop hematinics, milk, and vitamin B
    D. Intake more fluids
A

A. Take ginger and candies with meals
Explanation: The recommendation to take ginger is based on its effectiveness in reducing nausea and vomiting, as mentioned in “Williams Obstetrics.” Ginger has been studied for its antiemetic properties and is considered a safe and natural remedy for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Eating small, frequent meals can also help manage these symptoms, and incorporating ginger into the diet or taking ginger supplements can provide relief.

46
Q
  1. Internal examination should be done on
    A. Every prenatal check up
    B. 2nd Trimester in patients with complaint of hypogastric pain
    C. 3rd Trimester patients with chief complaints of vaginal bleeding
    D. On first prenatal check up
A

B. 2nd Trimester in patients with complaint of hypogastric pain
Explanation: While routine internal examinations at every prenatal check-up are not necessary and are generally not performed on the first prenatal visit unless indicated, specific symptoms such as hypogastric pain in the second trimester warrant a more thorough evaluation. This pain could be indicative of various conditions, including the stretching of ligaments (a normal but sometimes painful part of pregnancy) or more concerning issues like an ectopic pregnancy. Although ectopic pregnancies are more commonly identified earlier in pregnancy (usually before the second trimester), any new onset of pain should be evaluated. The context provided suggests a cautious approach to hypogastric pain, emphasizing the need for an examination in cases where the pain’s cause is uncertain and could indicate a serious condition.

47
Q
  1. HI, 42 y/o G1P0, presented for prenatal for the first time. Most importantly, a first trimester ultrasound is warranted to asses.
    A. fetal congenital anomaly
    B. fetal aging by CRL
    C. placental position
    D. amniotic fluid volume
A

B. fetal aging by CRL (Crown-Rump Length)
Explanation: In the first trimester, the most critical use of ultrasound is to establish or confirm gestational age through measurements such as the crown-rump length (CRL), which is the most accurate method for dating a pregnancy at this stage. While assessing for fetal congenital anomalies, placental position, and amniotic fluid volume are also important, accurate dating early in pregnancy is crucial for appropriate prenatal care and timing of certain screenings.

48
Q
  1. Tdap is given to all pregnant women
    A. 3x during entire pregnancy
    B. 28-37W
    C. Only when delivery is expected to be in a lying-in clinic
    D. Anytime
A

B. 28-37W
Explanation: The Tdap vaccine is recommended for all pregnant women during each pregnancy, between 28 and 37 weeks gestation (3rd Trimester), to protect against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis. This timing optimizes the transfer of maternal antibodies to the fetus, providing protection to the newborn until they are old enough to receive their own vaccinations.

Trimester
First : 1-14 weeks
Second : 15- 28 weeks
Third: : 29 - 42 weeks

49
Q
  1. Vaccines contraindicated during prenancy includes
    A. Hepatitis B
    B. MMR
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Inactive Influenza
A

B. MMR
Explanation: The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy because it is a live-attenuated vaccine. Live vaccines are generally avoided during pregnancy due to theoretical risks to the fetus. Hepatitis B vaccine is not contraindicated during pregnancy, Hepatitis C vaccine does not exist, and the Inactivated Influenza vaccine is recommended during pregnancy.

50
Q
  1. The most important determinant of appropriate care in pregnancy is the:
    A. Maternal Health
    B. Fetal Health
    C. Gestational Age
    D. Estimated Fetal Weight
A

C. Gestational Age
Explanation: Gestational age is a critical determinant of appropriate care in pregnancy as it guides the timing of prenatal visits, interventions, and assessments to optimize both maternal and fetal health. It helps in monitoring the pregnancy’s progress and planning for the delivery.

MAJOR GOALS OF PRENATAL CARE
* To define the health status of the mother and fetus
* To estimate the gestational age
* To initiate a plan for continuing obstetrical care

51
Q
  1. if we are confined to a single ultrasound to be done in a pregnancy, it is best done on
    A. 18-22 weeks
    B. 10-14 weeks
    C. 39-41 weeks
    D. 37 weeks
A

A. 18-22 weeks
Explanation: If only one ultrasound is to be performed during pregnancy, doing it between 18-22 weeks gestation is most beneficial. This timing allows for a detailed anatomy scan to assess fetal structures for abnormalities, determine placental location, and verify fetal growth and well-being. This period is optimal for detecting a wide range of potential issues that could affect the pregnancy’s outcome.

52
Q
  1. JK a 24 year old primigravid, consulted at the OPD due to missed menses. Pregnancy test is positibe. She could not recall her last menstrual period because she has been experiencing irregular cycles since her teenage years. You did a pelvic exam and noted that the cervix was soft, and uterus was enlarged, reaching halfway between the symphysis pubic and the umbilicus. What is the approximate age of gestation in weeks for this patient’s pregnancy?
    A. 20
    B. 16
    C. 32
    D. 12
A

B. 16
Explanation: The uterus reaching halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus typically indicates a gestational age of approximately 16 weeks. This is a general physical examination finding used to estimate gestational age in the second trimester.

Height recorded in cm = approximate AOG in weeks
* 12 weeks after LMP - Above pubic symphysis
* 16 weeks - Halfway between pubic symphysis and umbilicus
* 20 weeks - At the level of umbilicus
* 36 weeks - Fundus is just below ensiform cartilage

53
Q

83 What structure constricts or collapses after birth?
A. Umbilical vessels
B. Ductus venosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)
Explanation: After birth, the umbilical vessels, ductus venosus, and foramen ovale all undergo functional closure or constriction as part of the normal physiological transition from fetal to neonatal circulation.

54
Q
  1. This is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, whereby vaginal mucosa becomes congested and violaceous to bluish in color
    A. Gooddell’s sign
    B. Hegar’s sign
    C. Chadwick’s sign
    D. Spalding sign
A

C. Chadwick’s sign
Explanation: Chadwick’s sign is the change in color of the vaginal mucosa to a deep violet or bluish color due to increased vascularization and blood flow, considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

55
Q
  1. This is a probable sign of pregnancy characterized by the softening of the uterus isthmus,resulting in its compressibility on bimanual examination
    A. Spalding dign
    B. Goodell’s sign
    C. Hegar sign
    D. Chadwick sign
A

C. Hegar’s sign
Explanation: Hegar’s sign is the softening of the lower uterine segment (isthmus), making it compressible on bimanual examination, and is considered a probable sign of pregnancy.

56
Q

86 This is a probable sign of pregancy characterized by cyanosis and softening of the cervix due to increased vascularilty of the cervical tissue
A. Hegar sign
B. Spalding sign
C. Goodells sign
D. Chadwick sign

A

C. Goodell’s sign
Explanation: Goodell’s sign is the softening of the cervical tip due to increased vascularity, edema, and softening of the cervical tissue, making it a probable sign of pregnancy.

57
Q
  1. OP, a 32 year old G3P2 (2002), on her 30th week of gestation computed her last menstrual period, came to your clinic for her first prenatal check up. Her fundic height was noted to be 25 cm. What is the next best step in management of this patient
    A. Request for an ultrasound to determine or confirm age of gestation, or detect any fetal compromise
    B. Inform the patient that her correct age of gestation is 25 weeks and not 30 weeks
    C. Reassure patient that is a normal finding, and she could come back after 1 month for her regular prenatal check up
    D. Advise patient to start taking protein supplements in order for the baby to catch up in size
A

A. Request for an ultrasound to determine or confirm age of gestation, or detect any fetal compromise
Explanation: Given the discrepancy between the gestational age based on the last menstrual period and the fundal height measurement, an ultrasound is the next best step to accurately assess gestational age, evaluate fetal growth, and check for any signs of fetal compromise.

58
Q
  1. QR, a 17 yr old female student, accompanied by her mother, came to the ER complaining of nausea and vomiting.
    On history, you found that her last normal menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. She refuses internal exam. What would you do first?
    A. Do pregnancy test
    B. Give patient antibiotics for her gastroenteritis
    C. Give patient progesterone to induce menses
    D. Give the patient anti-emetics, then send her home
A

A. Do pregnancy test
Explanation: Given the history of a missed period and the presentation with nausea and vomiting, a pregnancy test is the first and most appropriate step to confirm or rule out pregnancy as the cause of her symptoms.

59
Q
  1. TS, a 24 yr old primigravid, on her 10th week age of gestation, is worried about her severe GI symptoms like nausea and vomiting, and asked you if her symptoms will ever stop. How would you counsel your patient?
    A. Advise her that symptoms will definitely worsen as the pregnancy progresses since this is her first pregnancy
    B. Advise her that the Gl symptoms will abate after the first trimester, correlating with the levels of beta HCG in her blood
    C. Inform patient that nausea and vomiting is not normal during the 12th week of pregnancy and should normally manifest around second month of pregnancy
    D. Inform patient that her symptoms will not stop and that she has to take antiemetic for the whole duration of pregnancy
A

B. Advise her that the GI symptoms will abate after the first trimester, correlating with the levels of beta HCG in her blood
Explanation: Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, often referred to as morning sickness, typically peak during the first trimester and tend to improve as beta HCG levels plateau and then decrease. Most women experience relief from these symptoms by the end of the first trimester or early in the second trimester.

60
Q
  1. UV, a 28 yo primigravid came consulted at the OPD, 10-11 weeks age of gestation, and very anxious about her baby’s well being. She worries why she hasn’t felt any fetal movements so far. She has no vaginal bleeding nor abdominal pain. How could you counsel this patient?
    A. Inform the patient this is abnormal, and that baby might probably be dead
    B. Advise this patient to undergo ultrasound as soon as possible to confirm fetal status
    C. Use your stethoscope to detect any fetal heart beat, and to confirm fetal status
    D. Reassure patient and advise her that quickening does not happen until at
    least 4-5 months age of gestation
A

D. Reassure the patient and advise her that quickening does not happen until at least 4-5 months of gestation
Explanation: Fetal movements, or quickening, are typically first felt by primigravidas around 18-20 weeks of gestation (4-5 months). It is normal not to feel any fetal movements at 10-11 weeks of gestation, and reassuring the patient about this normal timeline can help alleviate her anxiety.

61
Q
  1. Came to the clinic complaining of irregular contractions, she is on her 30th weeks age of gestation. She notes that her contractions usually increase in frequency when her uterus is massaged or stimulated and abate when she res. Internal exam revealed a closed, uneffaced cervix, how would you counsel the patient?
    A. Admit patient and start intravenous tocolytics because she is definitely in preterm labor
    B. Reassure patient that she might just be experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions, which are normally felt starting 28 weeks age of gestation
    C. Give oral tocolytics for 1 month
    D. Put patient on complete bed rest until she delivers
A

B. Reassure the patient that she might just be experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions, which are normally felt starting 28 weeks age of gestation
Explanation: Braxton-Hicks contractions are common and typically start around the second or third trimester of pregnancy. They are irregular, usually painless contractions that do not lead to cervical changes (dilation or effacement), distinguishing them from true labor contractions.

62
Q
  1. The beaded cellular pattern of the cervical mucus of a pregnant patient is due to which hormone?
    A. Progesterone
    B. Estrogen
    C. bHCG
    D. Leutinizing hormone
A

A. Progesterone
Explanation: Progesterone, which increases during pregnancy, is responsible for changes in cervical mucus, including the beaded cellular pattern. This hormone helps maintain the pregnancy and changes the consistency of cervical mucus to form a mucus plug, protecting the uterus from infections.

63
Q

93 This is a probable evidence of pregnancy described as the sensation of something hard “bouncing” against the palm of examiner’s hands when uterus is moved from side to side
A. Outlining of Uterus
B. Spalding sign
C. Quickening
D. Ballotment

A

D. Ballottement
Explanation: Ballottement is a technique used in pregnancy examination where a sudden tap on the cervix during a pelvic exam causes the fetus to rise in the amniotic fluid and then rebound to its original position. It is considered a probable sign of pregnancy.

64
Q
  1. This is the term used for imaginary pregnancy/spurious pregnancy which may happen among women strongly desirous of pregnancy, and where patient may feel signs and symptoms of pregnancy.
    A. Pseudocyesis
    B. PICA
    C. Heterotypic
    D. Pseudocyst
A

A. Pseudocyesis
Explanation: Pseudocyesis is a condition where a woman believes she is pregnant and may even exhibit signs and symptoms of pregnancy, but there is no actual pregnancy. It is often associated with a strong desire or fear of becoming pregnant.

65
Q
  1. A condition where a pregnant woman suffers from an extreme case of nausea and vomiting associated with hyperplacentosis, like multiple pregnancies or molar pregnancy:
    A. Striae gravidarum
    B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
    C. Pseudocyesis
    D. Braxton Hicks
A

B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation: Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition characterized by severe nausea and vomiting in pregnancy that can lead to dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. It is more likely to occur in conditions associated with high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), such as multiple pregnancies or molar pregnancies.

66
Q
  1. You instructed your OPD nurse to determine the fetal heart rate of your pregnant patient who came at the OPD for prenatal check-up. The nurse reported the fetal heart rate to be “80 per minute” How should you interpret this finding?
    A. Tell the nurse to wheel the patient to the operating room for an emergency caesarean section due to fetal bradycardia.
    B. This is a normal heart rate. You can proceed with your regular check up routine.
    C. Inform the patient the baby is probably dying
    D. Double check the nurse’s findings by quickly recounting the fetal heart rate. The nurse must have measured the maternal pulse instead
A

D. Double check the nurse’s findings by quickly recounting the fetal heart rate. The nurse must have measured the maternal pulse instead.
Explanation: A fetal heart rate of 80 beats per minute is abnormally low, as normal fetal heart rates range from 110 to 160 beats per minute. It’s possible the nurse accidentally measured the maternal heart rate instead of the fetal heart rate.

67
Q
  1. What is the function of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
    A. Supports fetal implantation
    B. produces estrogen that is important in producing skin changes in pregnancy
    C. supports early pregnancy by preventing involution of corpus luteum
    D. Produce progesterone to support uterine quiescence
A

C. supports early pregnancy by preventing involution of corpus luteum
Explanation: hCG is produced by the placenta after implantation. Its primary function in early pregnancy is to prevent the involution of the corpus luteum, ensuring it continues to produce progesterone and estrogen to maintain the uterine lining and support early pregnancy.

68
Q
  1. AZ a 25 year old primigravid comes for prenatal care. She does not remember her last normal menstrual period since she has very irregular menstrual cycles. On abdominal exam, the uterus is at the level of the umbilicus. What is the estimated age of gestation in weeks?
    A. 12
    B. 20
    C. 30
    D. 16
A

B. 20
Explanation: The uterus typically reaches the level of the umbilicus at about 20 weeks of gestation, making this the most likely estimate for the age of gestation.

Height recorded in cm = approximate AOG in weeks
* 12 weeks after LMP - Above pubic symphysis
* 16 weeks - Halfway between pubic symphysis and umbilicus
* 20 weeks - At the level of umbilicus
* 36 weeks - Fundus is just below ensiform cartilage

69
Q
  1. A woman who has delivered only once a fetus or fetuses born alive or dead with an estimated length of gestation of 20 or more weeks.
    a. Primipara
    b. Nulligravida
    c. Multipara
    d. Nullipara
A

a. Primipara
Explanation: A primipara is a woman who has given birth once to a fetus or fetuses, alive or dead, at a gestational age of 20 weeks or more.

70
Q
  1. DH, a primigravid 18 weeks AOG, consulted at the OPD for her 2nd prenatal check up. All laboratory results were unremarkable. Patient was asymptomatic. When will you advise her to follow up?
    A. at 22 weeks AOG
    B. at 24 weeks AOG
    C. at 20 weeks AOG
    D. at 32 weeks AOG
A

B. at 24 weeks AOG
- Explanation: Routine prenatal visits for a low-risk pregnancy are typically scheduled every four weeks until about 28 weeks of gestation, then more frequently as the pregnancy progresses. Advising a follow-up at 24 weeks AOG fits within this schedule and allows for appropriate monitoring of the pregnancy’s progression.

71
Q

76.A 24 y.o. GO patient is afraid of getting gonorrhea from her sexual partner. What is the best protection for her?
A. Condom
B. IUD
C. Diaphragm
D. Oral contraceptive pills

A

A. Condom
Explanation: Condoms are the only contraceptive method that also provides significant protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including gonorrhea.

72
Q

77.A 20 y.o. G1P1(1001) with rheumatic heart disease with mitral stenosis, is not desirous of getting pregnant for now. Her husband refuses to use the condom because he feels it is itchy. What is the best advice for her? *
A. Condom
B. IUD
C. Diaphragm
D. Oral contraceptive pills

A

B. IUD
Explanation: For a woman with rheumatic heart disease and mitral stenosis who needs effective contraception and whose partner refuses to use condoms, an intrauterine device (IUD) could be a suitable option. It provides long-term contraception without the systemic effects that might exacerbate her condition, unlike oral contraceptive pills which could increase her risk for thromboembolic events.

73
Q

78.A 34 y.o. G4P4 (4004) consulted for family planning. She is not desirous of having another pregnancy. She is quite forgetful. Her husband uses the condom but wears it only when about to climax. What is the best contraception for her? *
A. Condom
B. IUD
C. Diaphragm
D. Oral contraceptive pills

A

B. IUD
Explanation: An intrauterine device (IUD) is a good option for someone who is forgetful and seeks effective, long-term contraception. It does not require daily attention and provides one of the highest effectiveness rates among contraceptive methods.

74
Q

79.A 25 y.o. GO who has had 5 sexual partners, is not desirous of getting pregnant.
Which contraceptive is most disadvantageous for her? *
A. Condom
B. IUD
C. Diaphragm
D. Oral contraceptive pills

A

C. Diaphragm
Explanation: The diaphragm is a barrier method of contraception that must be used with spermicide to be effective. It needs to be inserted before intercourse and left in place for at least 6 hours after sex to ensure effectiveness, but not longer than 24 hours. Given the scenario of a woman with multiple sexual partners and the desire for effective contraception without the disadvantages associated with frequent spermicide use and the need for careful timing in removal, the diaphragm might be considered less advantageous compared to other options like condoms, which also provide STI protection, or an IUD, which does not require action at the time of intercourse.

75
Q

80.A 28 y.o. G1P1 (1001) had history of preeclampsia in her first pregnancy. She withheld this information from her physician. Her OB advised OCP. After intake of the pill, she had severe leg cramps, so much so that she could not walk. Duplex scan showed 60% occlusion of the right femoral vein. What contraception did she most likely use? *
A. Condom
B. IUD
C. Diaphragm
D. Oral contraceptive pills

A

D. Oral contraceptive pills
Explanation: The description of severe leg cramps and the finding of a 60% occlusion of the right femoral vein suggest a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a known risk associated with the use of oral contraceptive pills (OCPs), especially in individuals with risk factors for thromboembolic event

76
Q

81.A 21 y.o. G1P1 (1001) desire a family planning method that does not require a lot of remembering. She is also afraid of injections and is on a low budget. What is the best contraceptive for her?
A. Oral Contraceptive
B. Injectable contraceptive
C. Implant
D. Levonorgestrel-containing lUD

A

D. Levonorgestrel-containing IUD (LNG-IUD)
Explanation: The LNG-IUD is a long-acting reversible contraceptive (LARC) that doesn’t require daily attention, making it ideal for someone who doesn’t want to remember to take a pill every day. It’s also cost-effective over time, despite the initial higher upfront cost, and doesn’t involve injections.

77
Q

82 A 35 y.o. G3P3 (3003) is having profuse menses and on TVS, her endometrium is thickened. She is desirous of a family planning method. She doesn’t like injections and is very forgetful, that is why she had her 3rd child. what is the best contraception for her? *
a. Oral contraceptive pills
b. Injectable contraceptives
c. Implants
d. LNG-IUD

A

D. LNG-IUD
Explanation: The LNG-IUD not only provides effective contraception but can also reduce menstrual bleeding and decrease endometrial thickness. It’s suitable for someone who is forgetful and doesn’t prefer injections.

78
Q

83.A 26 y.o. G0 patient is desirous of a family planning method which would also improve her facial acne.
A. Oral contraceptive pills
B. Injectable contraceptives
C. Implant
D. LNG- containing IUD

A

A. Oral contraceptive pills
Explanation: Certain oral contraceptive pills are approved for the treatment of acne. They regulate hormones that can cause acne, making them a good choice for someone looking to address both contraception and acne improvement.

79
Q
  1. A 34 y.o.G2P2 (2002) likes a short-acting contraceptive method which is easy to change if ever she wants to shift to another medicine. She is a very busy woman and because of workload, she sometimes forgets her medicine.
    A. Oral contraceptive pills
    B. Injectable contraceptives
    C. Implant
    D. LNG- containing IUD
A

B. Injectable contraceptives
Explanation: While injectable contraceptives are not as short-acting as oral pills, they offer a good balance between ease of use (with injections typically every three months) and the flexibility to stop use if desired. However, given her forgetfulness, a better long-term solution might be considered, but among the options provided and considering her preferences, injectables might suit her current needs best.

80
Q
  1. A 28 y.o. G1P1 (1001) is married to a seaman. She desires a family planning method which she could use while her husband is back home here in the Phil. for the duration of his stay.
    A. Oral contraceptive pills
    B. Injectable contraceptives
    C. Implant
    D. LNG- containing IUD
A

A. Oral contraceptive pills
Explanation: Oral contraceptive pills offer flexibility and control over family planning, suitable for someone whose partner is away for extended periods and who may only need contraception intermittently. However, this option requires daily adherence to be effective.

81
Q
  1. This is applied once a week for three weeks followed by a one-week break
    A. Oral contraceptive pills
    B. Diaphragm
    C. IUD
    D. Transdermal patch
A

D. Transdermal patch
Explanation: The transdermal contraceptive patch is applied once a week for three consecutive weeks, followed by a one-week break during which menstruation occurs.

82
Q
  1. This should not be removed for 6 hours after coitus.
    A. Oral contraceptive pills
    B. Diaphragm
    C. IUD
    D. Transdermal patch
A

B. Diaphragm
Explanation: The diaphragm is a barrier method of contraception that should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness but not longer than 24 hours.

83
Q
  1. This is associated with pelvic inflammatory disease because of ascending infection.
    A. Oral contraceptive pills
    B. Diaphragm
    C. Intrauterine device
    D. Transdermal patch
A

C. Intrauterine device
Explanation: While the risk is primarily associated with the insertion process and is relatively low, intrauterine devices (IUDs) have been historically linked to an increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) due to the potential for ascending infections, especially in the presence of an STI at the time of insertion.

84
Q

89 This is associated with thromboembolism:
A. Oral contraceptive pills
B. Diaphragm
C. Intrauterine device
D. Transdermal patch

A

A. Oral contraceptive pills
Explanation: Oral contraceptive pills, especially those containing estrogen, are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism (blood clots), particularly in women who smoke or have other risk factors for cardiovascular disease.

85
Q
  1. The wick of this methods serves as a point of entry of the microorganisms into the uterine cavity.
    A. Oral contraceptive pills
    B. Diaphragm
    C. Intrauterine device
    D. Transdermal patch
A

C. Intrauterine device
Explanation: The “wick” effect was a concern with older models of IUDs, where the string of the device could potentially act as a conduit for bacteria to enter the uterine cavity, leading to infection. However, this risk is considered very low with modern IUDs, and they are a safe and highly effective form of contraception for most women.

86
Q
  1. A spermicide is applied to this device prior to use:
    A. Oral contraceptive
    B. Diaphragm
    C. Intrauterine device
    D. Transdermal patch
A

B. Diaphragm
Explanation: Spermicide is applied to the diaphragm before insertion to increase its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

87
Q
  1. Mrs. A has a 27-30 day menstrual cycle. What is the 1st day of her fertile period if the first day of her menses is March 12,2022? *
    A. April 9,2022
    B. April 5,2022
    C. March 10,2022
    D. March 20,2022
A

D. March 20, 2022
Explanation: For a 27-30 day cycle, subtract 18 days from the shortest cycle (27) to estimate the start of the fertile window, which is day 9 of the cycle. Counting from March 12 (day 1), day 9 would be March 20.

88
Q
  1. Mrs.S has a 27-32 day cycle. If her 1st day of menses is April 1,2022, when is the last day of her fertile period?
    A. April 9,2022
    B. April 5,2022
    C. April 21,2022
    D. April 3,2022
A

C. April 21, 2022
Explanation: For a 27-32 day cycle, subtract 11 days from the longest cycle (32) to estimate the end of the fertile window, which is day 21 of the cycle. Counting from April 1 (day 1), day 21 would be April 21.

89
Q
  1. Mrs. C has a 28-30 day cycle. If her LMP- March 1,2022, when is the start of her fertile period? *
    A. March 10,2022
    B. March 19,2022
    C. March 13,2022
    D. March 15,2022
A

A. March 10, 2022
Explanation: For a 28-30 day cycle, subtract 18 days from the shortest cycle (28) to estimate the start of the fertile window, which is day 10 of the cycle. Counting from March 1 (day 1), day 10 would be March 10.

90
Q
  1. Mrs. D has a 29-31 day menstrual cycle. Her LMP-March 26,2022. When is the first day of her fertile period?
    A. April 10,2022
    B. April 5,2022
    C. April 15,2022
    D. April 9,2022
A

B. April 5, 2022
Explanation: For a 29-31 day cycle, subtract 18 days from the shortest cycle (29) to estimate the start of the fertile window, which is day 11 of the cycle. Counting from March 26 (day 1), day 11 would be April 5.

91
Q

96.Mrs. E has a 27-31 menstrual cycle. Her LMP- March 15,2022. When is the last day of her fertile period? *
A. April 3, 2022
B. April 5,2022
C. April 15,2022
D. April 9,2022

A

A. April 3, 2022

To calculate the last day of the fertile period, you subtract 11 days from the longest cycle length. For a 31-day cycle, this would be day 20 of the cycle. Starting from March 15, which is day 1, the last day of the fertile period would be:

March 15 + 19 days = April 3, 2022.

92
Q
  1. Why is it not advisable to give combined oral contraceptive pills to a postpartum patient? *
    A. She can have drug allergy to the estrogen component.
    B. She can aspirate the tablet if she is still sedated.
    C. She is likely to develop thromboembolism.
    D. She is more predisposed to develop infection of the episiorrhaphy site
A

C. She is likely to develop thromboembolism.
Explanation: The postpartum period is associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism, and estrogen in combined oral contraceptive pills can further increase this risk.

93
Q
  1. What is/ are the causes) of failure in the use of condom as a form of family planning?
    A. The whole penile shaft is not covered..
    B. Some males use the condom when they are about to ejaculate.
    C. Rough handling of the condom can cause it to tear.
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above
Explanation: The effectiveness of condoms can be compromised by not covering the entire penile shaft, using them only at the moment of ejaculation, and rough handling leading to tears.

94
Q
  1. What is the most common source of error of the patient who uses the calendar method of family planning?
    A. Patient has irregular menses
    B. The patient couldn’t tell if it is her menses (small quantitiy)
    C. Wrong dates
    D. Any of the above
A

D. Any of the above
Explanation: The calendar method’s effectiveness can be compromised by irregular menstrual cycles, misidentification of menstrual bleeding, and errors in tracking dates.

95
Q
  1. A 30 y.o. G4P4 (4004) patient consulted for family planning advice. She gave a history of pre-eclampsia in her last pregnancy (Feb. 14,2022). Presently, her BP is normal. What is the best family planning method for this patient? *
    A. Levonorgestrel containing IUD
    B. Condom
    C. Combined oral contraceptive pills
    D. Diaphragm
A

A. Levonorgestrel containing IUD
- Explanation: A levonorgestrel-containing IUD is a safe and effective long-term contraceptive method that does not carry the risk of increasing blood pressure or the risk of thromboembolism associated with estrogen-containing contraceptives. It would be suitable for someone with a history of pre-eclampsia where avoiding additional cardiovascular risk factors is advisable.

OB1 (5 decks)

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