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LE 4 - Para Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Ring stage trophozoites contains 2 chromatin granules
    a. Plasmodium ovale
    b. Plasmodium falciparum
    c. Plasmodium malariae
    d. Plasmodium falciparum
A

d. Plasmodium falciparum

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2
Q
  1. mosquitoes
    a. japanese b encephalitis
    b. paragonimiasis
    c. onchocerciasis
    d. plague
A

a. japanese b encephalitis

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3
Q
  1. invades all red cells regardless of age
    a. Plasmodium vivax
    b. Plasmodium ovale
    c. Plasmodium falciparum
    d. Plasmodium malariae
A

c. Plasmodium falciparum

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4
Q
  1. Preferred breeding place of aedes mosquito
    a. Forest Gump
    b. Rice fields
    c. Forest swamps
    d. Axils of abaca and banana
A

c. Forest swamps

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5
Q
  1. Mainstay of malarial diagnosis
    a. Antigen capture test
    b. Wrights stain
    c. Giemsa stain
    d. AOTA
A

c. Giemsa stain

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6
Q
  1. Flagellate form with the kinetoplast located at the posterior end of the organism
    a. Amastigotes
    b. Promastigotes
    c. Trypomastigotes
    d. Epimastigotes
A

c. Trypomastigotes

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7
Q
  1. Death from cardiac failure may precede CNS symptoms.
    a. T. brucei rhodesiense
    b. T. brucei gambiense
    c. T. cruzi
    d. None of the above
A

a. T. brucei rhodesiense

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8
Q
  1. An infected triatomine insect vector (or “kissing bug”) takes a blood meal and releases trypomastigotes in its feces near the site of the bite wound.
    a. T. brucei rhodesiense
    b. T. brucei gambiense
    c. T. cruzi
    d. None of the above
A

c. T. cruzi

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9
Q
  1. Found in muscles, nerve cells, and reticuloendothelial systems
    a. Amastigotes
    b. Promastigotes
    c. Trypomastigotes
    d. Epimastigotes
A

a. Amastigotes

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10
Q
  1. The flea is the intermediate host of this parasite.
    a. Hymenolepis
    b. Paragonimus
    c. Dracunculus
    d. Ascaris
A

a. Hymenolepis

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11
Q
  1. The most common manifestation of acute acquired toxoplasmosis
    a. microphthalmia,
    b. lymphadenopathy
    c. petechial rashes
    d. splenomegaly
A

b. lymphadenopathy

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12
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding fire ants ?
    a. injects venom repeatedly
    b. does not cause severe life-threatening allergic reaction
    c. causes burning and itchy lesion which develop into pustules
    d. stings from the abdomen
A

b. does not cause severe life-threatening allergic reaction

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13
Q
  1. Formic acid (causes the paralysis) can be found at the base of the stinger.
    a. Yellow Jacket Wasp
    b. Fire Ant
    c. Black Widow Spider
    d. Arizona Bark Scorpion
A

a. Yellow Jacket Wasp

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14
Q
  1. May cause stabbing pain in the bite area.
    a. Yellow Jacket Wasp
    b. Fire Ant
    c. Black Widow Spider
    d. Arizona Bark Scorpion
A

c. Black Widow Spider

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15
Q
  1. During an attack, it latches onto the skin with its jaw, then stings from its abdomen
    a. Yellow Jacket Wasp
    b. Fire Ant
    c. Black Widow Spider
    d. Arizona Bark Scorpion
A

b. Fire Ant

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16
Q
  1. Treatment of choice for malaria in pregnant women
    a. halofantrine
    b. amodiaquine
    C. mefloquine
    d. fluoroquine
A

C. mefloquine

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17
Q
  1. Very pleomorphic older trophozoites
    a. P vivax
    b. P malariae
    c. P ovale
    d. P falciparum
A

d. P falciparum

Plasmodium falciparum infections are known for having very pleomorphic (variable in shape) older trophozoites compared to the other Plasmodium species that cause malaria in humans. P. falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and can lead to complications and high mortality if not treated promptly and effectively.

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18
Q
  1. Asexual reproduction of toxoplasma is called
    a. cryptozony
    b. gametes
    c. schizogony
A

c. schizogony

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19
Q
  1. Usual host of leshmania are the ff except
    a. human
    b. dog
    c. fox
    d. rodent
A

a. human

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20
Q
  1. Dark yellow course pigment
    a. P ovale
    b. P malariae
    c. P falciparum
    d. P vivax
A

a. P ovale

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21
Q

Identify common and scientific name

A

CN: Brown Recluse Spider
SN Loxosceles reclusa

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22
Q

Identify common and scientific name

A

CN: Black widow spider
SN Latrodectus mactans

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23
Q

What is the typical initial sensation associated with a brown recluse spider bite?
a) Stabbing pain
b) Itchiness
c) Painlessness
d) Burning sensation

A

c) Painlessness

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24
Q

What can happen to the skin after a brown recluse spider bite?
a) It turns blue
b) It becomes numb
c) It may redden, turn white, blister, and become painful
d) It develops a rash

A

c) It may redden, turn white, blister, and become painful

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25
Q

In some cases of brown recluse spider bites, what may develop at the bite site?
a) A tattoo
b) An ulcer
c) A bruise
d) A pimple

A

b) An ulcer

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26
Q

What is the most common progression of symptoms after a brown recluse spider bite?
a) Immediate severe pain
b) Rapid healing with no symptoms
c) Painlessness followed by blistering
d) Swelling without any change in skin color

A

c) Painlessness followed by blistering

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a brown recluse spider bite?
a) Blister formation
b) Painless initial bite
c) Skin turning purple
d) Ulcer formation

A

c) Skin turning purple

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28
Q

What is a common characteristic of pain associated with a black widow spider bite?
a) Burning sensation
b) Itching
c) Stabbing pain
d) Numbness

A

c) Stabbing pain

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29
Q

How many red fang marks may be present at the site of a black widow spider bite?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three

A

c) Two

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30
Q

In addition to red fang marks, what is another common feature of a black widow spider bite?
a) Blue discoloration of the skin
b) Blister formation
c) Numbness
d) A nodule at the bite site

A

d) A nodule at the bite site

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding pain associated with a black widow spider bite?
a) It is always excruciating
b) It is typically painless
c) It may be stabbing or painless
d) It is characterized by itching

A

c) It may be stabbing or painless

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32
Q

What should you look for when assessing a possible black widow spider bite?
a) Yellow discoloration of the skin
b) One or two red fang marks, redness, tenderness, and a nodule
c) Green-colored skin
d) Presence of blisters

A

b) One or two red fang marks, redness, tenderness, and a nodule

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33
Q
  1. All leishmania spp are transmitted by
    a. Anopheles Mosquito
    b. Tsetse fly
    c. Triatoma reduvid bug
    d. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug
A

d. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug

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34
Q
  1. In the diagnosis of infection with L.donovani, these can be found later in the infection in the RES, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
    a. Neilbodies
    b. Macrophages
    c. LD bodies
    d. Chromatidbodies
A

c. LDbodies

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35
Q
  1. Rapidly growing intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii
    a. Bradyzoites
    b. Zygote
    c. Sporozoites
    d. Tachyzoites
A

d. Tachyzoites

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36
Q
  1. Slowly multiplying intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii
    a. Sporozoites
    b. Bradyzoites
    c. Zygote
    d. Tachyzoites
A

b. Bradyzoites

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37
Q
  1. In serological studies , a 16-fold increase IgG antibody in a second sample taken 21 days later indicates
    a. No infection
    b. Acute infection
    c. Chronic infection
    d. Reinfection
A

c. Chronic infection

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38
Q

Crabs
A. paragonimiasis
b. plague
c. onchocerciasis
d. japanese b encephalitis

A

A. paragonimiasis

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39
Q

2 Enlarged host cells
A. P. Falciparum
b. all of the choices are correct
c P. Malariae
D. P. Ovale and Vivax

A

D. P. Ovale and Vivax

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40
Q
  1. Quartan nephrois is associated with
    a. P. Vivax
    b. P Falciparum
    c . P. Malariae
    D. P. Ovale
A

c . P. Malariae

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41
Q

Kissing bugs have the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
A. Reaction to its bite is Sensitization
B. They bite usually during the day
C. They inflict painful bites
D. Frequent site of bites is face

A

B. They bite usually during the day

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42
Q

5Level of maximum parasitemia up to 30,000uL of blood
a. P Ovale
b. P malariae
c. P. Vivax
d P. Falciparum

A

c. P. Vivax

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43
Q
  1. the chigger mite is vector of which of the following infections?
    a. scrub thypus
    b. filariasis
    c. dengue
    d. thypoid fever
A

a. scrub thypus

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44
Q
  1. Mainstay of malarial diagnosis
    A. Wright stains
    B. Giemsa stains
    C. AOTA
    D. Antigen capture test
A

B. Giemsa stains

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45
Q
  1. The initial chagoma reaction at bite site with periorbital edema if bitten near the eye
    a. Romana’s sign
    B. Winterbottom’s sign
    C. Winter’s sign
    D. Racoon sign
A

a. Romana’s sign

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46
Q

9 48 hours asexual cycle in humans
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. Plasmodium malariae

A

a. Plasmodium vivax

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47
Q

10 the continuous cultivation of the erythrocytic phase undergoing schizoony is of critical importance in vaccine development
TRUE
FALSE

A

TRUE

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48
Q
  1. one of the following arthropods does not cause envenomization
    a. caterpillar hairs
    b. tick
    c. kissing bugs
    d. ants
A

b. tick

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49
Q
  1. Treatment of choice for malaria in pregnant women
    A. Halofantrine
    B. Amodiaquine
    C. Mefloquine
    D. Fluroquine
A

C. Mefloquine

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50
Q

13Maggots can produce condition called.
A. sparganosis
b myiasis
c. creeping eruption
d. larva currens

A

b. myiasis

Myiasis is the condition caused by the infestation of the skin, wounds, or body cavities of a living host by fly larvae (maggots) that feed on the host’s dead or living tissue, liquid body substances, or ingested food. It can occur in tropical and subtropical areas, as well as temperate zones.

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51
Q
  1. Very pleomorphic older trophozoited
    A. P vivax
    b P malariae
    C. P Ovale
    D. P Falciparum
A

D. P falciparum

Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite responsible for the most severe form of malaria, is known for having very pleomorphic (variable in shape) older trophozoites. This characteristic distinguishes it from other Plasmodium species, such as P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. ovale, which cause malaria in humans but have different morphological features.

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52
Q
  1. Centipedes do NOT demonstrate this characteristic
    A. The thinner the skin bitten, the larger the amount of venom absorbed
    B. They have 2 pairs of legs per segment
    C. They can cause death
    D. The amount of venom introduced depends on its size
A

B. They have 2 pairs of legs per segment

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53
Q
  1. The infective stage of Trypanosoma transmitted by the insect vector
    A. Promastigote
    B. Trypomastigote
    C. Epimastigote
    D. Amastigote
A

B. Trypomastigote

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54
Q
  1. Relapse in 5 years
    A. P Falciparum
    B. p ovale
    C. P vivax
    D. P malariae
A

C. P vivax

Plasmodium vivax is known for having dormant stages (hypnozoites) in the liver that can reactivate and cause relapses of malaria months to years after the initial infection. This can potentially happen up to 5 years after the original infection, making P. vivax notorious for causing relapses.

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55
Q
  1. Body lice are important vectors of
    a. all of the choices
    b. epidermic typhus
    c. louse borne relapsing fever
    d. trench fever
A

a. all of the choices

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56
Q
  1. alternative drug for treatment of chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum malaria
    a. Amodiaquine
    b. fluoroquine
    c. halofantrine
    d. mefloquine
A

d. mefloquine

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57
Q

When the host’s red blood cell hemoglobin is broken down, the globin part gives malarial pigment
A. True
B False

A

B False

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58
Q
  1. Arthropods that have been shown to cause asthma in children are:
    A. House dust mite
    B. Cockroaches
    C. Both
    D. Neither
A

C. Both

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59
Q
  1. Asexual reproduction of Toxoplasma is called
    A. Cryptozony
    B. Gametes
    C. Sporogony
    D. Schizogony
A

D. Schizogony

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60
Q
  1. Usual host of leishmania are the following except:
    A. Human
    B. Dog
    C. Fox
    D. Rodent
A

A. Human

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61
Q
  1. Blackwater fever is caused by?
    A. P. ovale
    B. P. malariae
    C. P. vivax
    D. P. falciparum
A

D. P. falciparum

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62
Q
  1. One of the following arthropods role in the transmission of amoebiasis
    A. Cockroach
    B. Tick
    C. Crab
    D. Flea
A

A. Cockroach

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63
Q
  1. Band shaped trophozites
    A. Plasmodium ovale
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Plasmodium vivax
A

C. Plasmodium malariae

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64
Q

27Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by
A. Anopholes mosquito
b. Triatoma reduvid bug
c. simulium fly
d. tsetse fly

A

b. Triatoma reduvid bug

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65
Q
  1. one of the following statements is incorrect regarding fire ant.which is one?
    a. injects venom repeatedly
    b. does not caus severe life-threatening allergic reaction
    c. causes burning and itchy lesion which develop into pustules
    d. stings from the abdomen
A

b. does not caus severe life-threatening allergic reaction

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66
Q

29 one of the following arthropods does not cause envenomization.
a. tick
b. kissing bugs
c. caterpillar hairs
d. ants

A

b. tick

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67
Q
  1. the copepod, a primitive crustacean, is an intermediate host of which parasite?
    a. dracunculus
    b. Diphyllobothrium
    c. both
    d. neither
A

c. both

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68
Q

31 L. Donovani causes
a. Kala-azar
b. Visceral leishmaniasis
c. all of the choices are correct
d. dumdum fever

A

c. all of the choices are correct

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69
Q
  1. Dark yellow course pigment
    A. P. ovale
    B. P. malariae
    C. P. falciparum
    D. P. vivax
A

A. P. ovale

70
Q
  1. The flea is the intermediate host of this parasite.
    A. Hymenolepis
    B. Paragonimus
    C. Dracunculus
    D. Ascaris
A

A. Hymenolepis

71
Q
  1. Kissing bugs have the following characterisitics, except:
    A. Reaction to its bite is sensitization
    b. they bite usually during the day
    c. the inflict painful bites
    d. frequent site of the bite is face
A

b. they bite usually during the day

72
Q

35.True of the methods of diagnosis of African Trypanosomiasis except
A. High levels of both IM and spinal fluid proteins are characteristic
B. Thick blood smears increase the chance of diagnosis
C. Late in the infection, trypomastigotes are best found in the urine
D. Animal inoculation in mice or young rats

A

C. Late in the infection, trypomastigotes are best found in the urine

73
Q
  1. Exhibits Maurer’s cleft
    A. P Malariae
    B. P Falciparum
    C. P ovale
    D P Vivas
A

B. P Falciparum

74
Q
  1. True of fire ants, except:
    A. They suck blood
    B. They are venomous
    C. They cause allergic reactions
    D. They produce a necrotizing toxin
A

A. They suck blood

75
Q

38 Rapidly growing intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii
A. Bradyzoites
B. Zygote
C.Sporozoites
D. Tachyzoites

A

D. Tachyzoites

76
Q
  1. Causative agent for Baghdad boil
    A. L. braziliensis
    B. L. donovani
    C. L. tropica
    D. L. mexicana
A

C. L. tropica

77
Q

40 Causes american Typanosomiasis
A. Tryponosoma brucei gambiense
B. Tryponosoma donovani
C. Tryponosoma brucei rhodensiensi
D. Tryponosoma cruzi

A

D. Tryponosoma cruzi

78
Q
  1. Causes East African Trypanosomiasis:
    A. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
    B. Trypanosoma donovani
    C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
    D. Trypanosoma cruzi
A

C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

79
Q
  1. This organisms are seen as C-shaped trypomastigotes in stained tissue scraping of skin lesion
    A. Trypanosoma cruzi
    B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
    C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
    D. Trypanosoma donovani
A

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

80
Q
  1. Naturally genetically determined partial immunity includes the following:
    A. G6PD deficiency
    B. Sickle cell disease
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Lack of duffy antigen for p. vivax
A

C. All of the choices are correct

81
Q
  1. Fleas
    A. Japanese B encephalitis
    B. Onchocerciasis
    C. Plague
    D. Paragonimiasis
82
Q
  1. Invades older red cells
    A. Plasmodium ovale
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Plasmodium falciparum
A

C. Plasmodium malariae

83
Q
  1. Cytoplasmic shuffner’s dots
    A. Plasmodium falciparum
    B. Plasmodium ovale and vivax
    C. AOTA
    D. Plasmodium malariae
A

B. Plasmodium ovale and vivax

84
Q

47.Slowly multiplying intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii
A. Sporozoites
B. Bradyzoites
C. Zygote
D. Tahcyzoites

A

B. Bradyzoites

85
Q
  1. Diagnostic stage for Leishmania spp
    A. Epimastigote
    B. trypomastigotes
    C. Amastigotes
    D. Promastigote
A

C. Amastigotes

86
Q
  1. scorpions rarely stings human, but when they do, they introduce venom that is:
    A. Hemolytic
    b neurotoxic
    c.both
    d neither
87
Q
  1. bitten are becomes necrotic or gangrenous:
    a. loxosceles
    b latrodectus
    c both
A

A. Loxosceles

Loxosceles spiders, commonly known as brown recluse spiders, have venom that can cause a reaction leading to necrosis or gangrene at the bite site. The venom contains enzymes that can destroy skin tissues and cause a condition known as loxoscelism, which is characterized by a localized necrotic wound.

Latrodectus spiders, known as black widow spiders, produce venom that is neurotoxic, affecting the nervous system and causing symptoms such as pain, muscle cramps, and spasms, rather than necrotic wounds.

88
Q

51P. Ovale has thick rings which adhere to red blood cells manifesting the severe type of disease
a. true
b false

A

b. False

Plasmodium ovale does not typically manifest with thick rings adhering to red blood cells or cause the severe types of disease associated with this description. The characteristic of thick ring stages adhering to red blood cells is more commonly associated with Plasmodium falciparum, which is known for causing severe malaria, including cerebral malaria and other complications. P. ovale infections are generally milder compared to those caused by P. falciparum.

89
Q
  1. Ring stage trophozoites contains 2 chromatin granules
    A. Plasmodium ovale
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Plasmodium falciparum
A

B. Plasmodium falciparum

90
Q
  1. Only ring stages or gametocytes are seen in the peripheral blood infected with P. Falciparum
    a. true
    b. false
91
Q
  1. pre-erythrocyte cycle is 9 days
    a. plasmodium ovale
    b. plasmodium malariae
    c. plamosdium vivax
    d. plasmodium falciparum
A

a. plasmodium ovale

92
Q
  1. West african sleeping sickness is caused by
    A. Trypanosoma donovani
    B. Trypanosoma cruzi
    C. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
    D. Trypanosoma gambiense
A

D. Trypanosoma gambiense

93
Q

56 Erucism is a condition which results from
A.tick bites
B. the bite of fire ants
C. Extreme fear of insects
D. contact with poison hairs of caterpillars

A

D. contact with poison hairs of caterpillars

94
Q

57 these are examples of arthropods undergoing complete metamorphosis, EXCEPT:
a. beetles
b. flies
c. ants
d. cockroaches

A

d. cockroaches

95
Q

58 Treatment for Tryposomniasis in late disease when theres involvement of the CNS
A. Nifurtimox
B. Tetracycline
C. Tryparsamide
D. Antimony

A

C. Tryparsamide

96
Q
  1. mosquitoes
    a. japanese b encephalitis
    b. paragonimiasis
    c. onchocerciasis
    d. plague
A

a. japanese b encephalitis

97
Q
  1. The hematin part of the host’s hemoglobin is split and digested
    A. True
    B. False
98
Q

61To establish the diagnosis of trypanosomias, these are found in the fluid from bite site chancre or buffy coat of blood
a. merozoites
b bradyzoites
c tachyzoites
d trypomastigotes

A

d trypomastigotes

99
Q
  1. to maximize recover of parasites causing ectoparasitism specifically pediculus humanus corporis, examine the
    a. hairs of genital area
    b scalp
    c. discarded clothing
    d. body surface
A

c. discarded clothing

100
Q
  1. Toxoplasma are obligate endoparasitic protozoa under the class
    A. Sporozoa
    B. Kinetoplastida
    C. Spirocheta
    D. Protista
A

A. Sporozoa

101
Q
  1. Black flies
    A. Paragonimiasis
    B. Onchocerciasis
    C. Japanese B encephalitis
    D. Plague
A

B. Onchocerciasis

Onchocerciasis, also known as river blindness, is caused by the filarial worm Onchocerca volvulus, which is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected black flies (Simulium spp.).

102
Q
  1. Infective organisms are deposited on the skin in the feces of the bug and are rubbed into the wound when scratched
    A. Trypanosoma cruzi
    B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
    C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
    D. Both T. brucei gambiencse and rhodesiense
A

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

103
Q
  1. This may spread to cause a disfiguring form, diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis (DCL)
    A. L. braziliensis
    B. L. tropica
    C. L. mexicana
    D. L. donovani
A

C. L. mexicana

104
Q
  1. invades all red cells regardless of age
    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium ovale
    C. Plasmodium falciparum
    D. Plasmodium malariae
A

C. Plasmodium falciparum

105
Q
  1. Vectors in which pathogens multiply and develop are called:
    A. paratenic hosts
    B. mechanical vectors
    C. biological vectors
    D. passive vectors
A

C. biological vectors

106
Q
  1. Black coarse pigment in developing trophozoites:
    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium ovale
    C. Plasmodium falciparum
    D. Plasmodium malariae
A

C. Plasmodium falciparum

107
Q
  1. Males of the sucking lice do not suck blood. They just feed on the tissue juices of the host.
    True
    False
A

False.
Males of the sucking lice do not feed on blood or tissue juices; they typically do not feed at all and primarily exist to mate with females.

108
Q
  1. All leishmania spp are transmitted by
    A.Anopheles Mosquito
    B. Tsetse fly
    C. Triatoma reduvid bug
    D. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug
A

D. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug

109
Q
  1. Trypomastigotes multipy in the body fluids by
    A. sporogony
    B. both asexual and sexual reproduction
    C. binary fission
    D. schizogony
A

C. binary fission

110
Q
  1. The only definite host of toxoplasma gondii
    A. Dog
    B. Rat
    C. Bird
    D. Cat
111
Q
  1. These are examples of anthropods undergoing incomplete metamorphosis:
    A. All of the choices are correct
    B. Ants
    C. Louse
    D. Beetles
112
Q

75the infective stage of toxoplasma gondii
a. sporozoite
b oocyte
c. gametes
d. oocyst

113
Q
  1. the process of alowing uninfected bugs to feed on patient then later examin bug feces for parasite
    a. autodiagnosis
    b xenodiagnosis
    c. reverse diagnosis
    d misdiagnosis
A

b xenodiagnosis

114
Q
  1. drug of choice for treatment of all susceptible forms of malaria during the acute attack
    a. halofantrine
    b chloroquine
    c. fluoroquinine
    d. metfloquine
A

b chloroquine

115
Q

78.the form of T. cruzi found multiplying in the heart
a. epimastigote
b. promastigote
c. amastigote
d. trypomastigote

A

c. amastigote

116
Q
  1. Enlarged lymph nodes in the posterior cervical chain caused by is called
    A. Romana’s sign
    B. Winterbottom sign
    C. Winter sign
    D. Racoon Sign
A

B. Winterbottom sign

117
Q
  1. Incubation period is 28 days
    A. P. falciparum
    B. P. ovale
    C. P. vivax
    D. P. malariae
A

D. P. malariae

118
Q

Which class of arthropods includes crabs, lobsters, shrimps, and copepods?
a. Arachnida
b. Hexapoda
c. Chilopoda
d. Crustacea

A

d. Crustacea

119
Q

What is a characteristic feature of Crustacea?
a. 4 pairs of legs
b. 3 pairs of legs
c. 6 or more pairs of walking legs
d. 2 pairs per body segment

A

c. 6 or more pairs of walking legs

120
Q

Which class of arthropods includes mites, ticks, scorpions, and spiders?
a. Crustacea
b. Arachnida
c. Hexapoda
d. Chilopoda

A

b. Arachnida

121
Q

How many pairs of legs do arachnids typically have?
a. 1 pair per body segment
b. 2 pairs per body segment
c. 3 pairs of legs
d. 4 pairs of legs

A

d. 4 pairs of legs

122
Q

Which class of arthropods includes mosquitoes, flies, lice, and bugs?
a. Arachnida
b. Hexapoda
c. Crustacea
d. Diplopoda

A

b. Hexapoda / Insecta

123
Q

How many pairs of legs do insects (Hexapoda/ Insecta) typically have?
a. 1 pair per body segment
b. 2 pairs per body segment
c. 3 pairs of legs
d. 4 pairs of legs

A

c. 3 pairs of legs

124
Q

Which class of arthropods includes centipedes?
a. Diplopoda
b. Pentatomida
c. Chilopoda
d. Crustacea

A

c. Chilopoda

125
Q

What is the characteristic regarding the number of leg pairs per body segment in centipedes?
a. 1 pair per body segment
b. 2 pairs per body segment
c. 3 pairs of legs
d. Legless

A

a. 1 pair per body segment

126
Q

Which class of arthropods includes millipedes?
a. Hexapoda
b. Chilopoda
c. Diplopoda
d. Pentatomida

A

c. Diplopoda

127
Q

What is the characteristic regarding the number of leg pairs per body segment in millipedes?
a. 1 pair per body segment
b. 2 pairs per body segment
c. 3 pairs of legs
d. 4 pairs of legs

A

b. 2 pairs per body segment

128
Q

Which class of arthropods includes tongue worms?
a. Crustacea
b. Pentatomida
c. Arachnida
d. Diplopoda

A

b. Pentatomida

129
Q

What is the characteristic of Pentatomida?
a. 4 pairs of legs
b. 3 pairs of legs
c. Legless
d. 6 or more pairs of walking legs

A

c. Legless

130
Q

82 The Copepod, a primitive crustacean, is an intermediate host of which parasite?
A. Diphyllobothrium
B. Both
C. Dracunculus
D. Neither

131
Q
  1. Sausage type gametocytes
    A. P. ovale
    B. P. vivax
    C. P. falciparum
    D. P. malariae
A

C. P. falciparum

132
Q
  1. Fine, light brown scattered pigment
    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Plasmodium ovale
A

A. Plasmodium vivax

133
Q
  1. Female kills or destroys the male after mating
    A. Latrodectus
    B. Loxosceles
    C. both
A

A. Latrodectus

134
Q
  1. The leishmania spp that does not stay localized in the skin lesion but spread to the viscera eventually causing death
    A. L. brazilliensis
    B. L. donovani
    C. L. mexicana
    D. L. tropica
A

B. L. donovani

135
Q
  1. the vector transmits the infective organism by injecting metacyclic trypomastigotes from the salivary gland
    a. trypanosoma brucei gambiense
    b. trypanosoma cruzi
    c. both t. brucei gambiense and rhodesiense
    d. trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
A

c. both t. brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

136
Q
  1. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium spp. through the bite of which genus of mosquito
    A. Aedes
    B. Anopheles
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Culex
A

B. Anopheles

137
Q
  1. In the diagnosis of infection with L.donovani, these can be found later in the infection in the RES, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
    A. Neil bodies
    B. Macrophages
    C. LD bodies
    D. Chromatid bodies
A

C. LD bodies

138
Q
  1. Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted by the arthropod
    A. Phlebotomus bug
    B. Triatoma reduviid bug
    C. Tsetse fly
    D. Sandly
    E. Simulium fly
A

C. Tsetse fly

139
Q

Which taxonomic group includes organisms with no legs and no antennae?
a) Insecta
b) Pentastomida
c) Arachnida
d) Crustacea
e) Diplopoda

A

b) Pentastomida

140
Q

Organisms with 3 pairs of legs and 1 pair of antennae belong to which taxonomic group?
a) Insecta
b) Pentastomida
c) Arachnida
d) Crustacea
e) Diplopoda

A

a) Insecta

141
Q

Which taxonomic group comprises organisms with no antennae but having 4 pairs of legs?
a) Insecta
b) Pentastomida
c) Arachnida
d) Crustacea
e) Diplopoda

A

c) Arachnida

142
Q

Organisms with 2 pairs of antennae and 4 or more walking legs are classified under which taxonomic group?
a) Insecta
b) Pentastomida
c) Arachnida
d) Crustacea
e) Diplopoda

A

d) Crustacea

143
Q

Which taxonomic group includes organisms with 2 pairs of legs per body segment and 1 pair of antenna?
a) Insecta
b) Pentastomida
c) Arachnida
d) Crustacea
e) Diplopoda

A

e) Diplopoda

144
Q
  1. Clinical syndrome include severe pain of trunk and extremities, vomiting, abdominal pain resembling appendicitis
    A. Lactrodectus
    B. Loxosceles
    C. Both
A

A. Lactrodectus

145
Q

ID

A

Yellow Jacket Wasp

146
Q

ID

147
Q
148
Q
A

Centipede Myriapods

149
Q

CN and SN

A

HOUSE FLY / DOMESTIC FLY
(MUSCA DOMESTICA)

150
Q
A

Cockroach
Blattodea sp

151
Q

Vector for Trpanosoma cruzi is
a. Reduviid bug
b. Tsetse fly
c. Sandfly
d. Hard tick

A

a. Reduviid bug
Trypanosoma cruzi, the causative agent of Chagas disease, is primarily transmitted to humans through the feces of reduviid bugs, also known as “kissing bugs”.

152
Q

Romana’s sign occurs in
a. Babesiosis
b. Leishmaniasis
c. Trypanosomiasis
d. Toxoplasmosis

A

c. Trypanosomiasis
Romana’s sign is characterized by unilateral swelling of the eyelids and is associated with acute Chagas disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi.

153
Q

Vector for T. brucei gambiense is
a. Reduviid bug
b. Tsetse fly
c. Sandfly
d. House fly

A

b. Tsetse fly
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense, one of the causative agents of African trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness, is transmitted by the tsetse fly.

154
Q

Enlarged posterior cervical lymph node
a. Romana’s sign
b. Winter sign
c. Winterbottom’s sign
d. DCL

A

c. Winterbottom’s sign
Winterbottom’s sign, the presence of swollen cervical lymph nodes, is associated with African trypanosomiasis, particularly the form caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense.

155
Q

Diagnostic stage of Leishmania spp.
a. Amastigotes
b. Promastigotes
c. Trypomastigotes
d. Epimastigotes

A

a. Amastigotes
The amastigote stage of Leishmania spp. is the diagnostic stage found in the human host, typically within macrophages.

156
Q

Causative agent of American trypanosomiasis:
a. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
b. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. None of the above

A

c. Trypanosoma cruzi
Trypanosoma cruzi is the causative agent of American trypanosomiasis, also known as Chagas disease.

157
Q

Vector for L. donovani
a. Tsetse fly
b. Sandfly
c. House fly
d. House tick

A

b. Sandfly
Leishmania donovani, the causative agent of visceral leishmaniasis, is transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.

158
Q

Infective stage of Toxoplasma gondii
a. Oocysts
b. Tachyzoites
c. Bradyzoites
d. Trophozoites

A

a. Oocysts
The oocysts of Toxoplasma gondii, shed in the feces of infected cats, are one of the infective stages for humans, along with tissue cysts containing bradyzoites found in undercooked meat.

159
Q
  1. Classical finding of the acute Chagas disease
    a. Romana’s sign
    b. Winter sign
    c. Winterbottom’s sign
    d. DCL
A

a. Romana’s sign
Romana’s sign, the swelling of the eyelids on the side of the face near the bite wound or where the bug feces were deposited or rubbed into the eye, is a classical finding of acute Chagas disease.

160
Q
  1. Toxoplasma is under the class
    a. Sporozoa
    b. Kinetoplastidea
    c. Mastigophora
    d. None of the above
A

a. Sporozoa
Toxoplasma gondii belongs to the class Sporozoa, which includes parasitic protozoa characterized by their spore-forming capabilities.

161
Q
  1. This arachnid attaches itself in areas where skin meets clothing
    a. Chigger mites
    b. Sarcoptes scabie
    c. Spider
    d. Tick
A

a. Chigger mites.

Chigger mites, which are the juvenile (larval) form of a type of mite, tend to attach themselves to humans in areas where skin meets clothing, such as waistbands, the edges of socks, and other tight-fitting areas. They cause intense itching and dermatitis, known commonly as chigger bites. These mites are known for seeking out such spots to feed after attaching to the host.

162
Q
  1. Centipedes have the following characteristics
    a. Have two pairs of legs per segment
    b. Can cause death
    c. The thinner the skin bitten, the larger the amount of venom absorbed
    d. Amount of venom introduced depends on the size of the centipede
A

d. Amount of venom introduced depends on the size of the centipede
The amount of venom a centipede can inject is indeed dependent on the size of the centipede. Larger centipedes can inject more venom, potentially causing more pain and symptoms.

163
Q
  1. True of honey bee
    a. Usually pulled from wound
    b. Stinger unbarbed
    c. Not capable of multiple stings
    d. AOTA
A

a. Usually pulled from wound
Honey bee stingers are barbed, and when they sting, the stinger, along with part of their abdomen, is left in the wound. This ultimately leads to the bee’s death. The stinger is usually pulled from the wound by the bee’s flight away, not by the person stung.

164
Q
  1. Cockroaches are carriers of pathogens they also:
    a. Drop their feces while walking or feeding
    b. Are nocturnally active
    c. Carry more pathogens than flies
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA (All of the Above)
Cockroaches are indeed carriers of pathogens, drop their feces while walking or feeding, are nocturnally active, and can carry more pathogens than flies, making all the given options correct.

165
Q
  1. This arthropod is successfully removed with the mouth part remaining in the host, may result in granuloma formation
    a. Tick
    b. Sarcoptes scabie
    c. Chigger mite
    d. NOTA
A

a. Tick
If a tick is improperly removed and the mouthparts remain in the skin, it can lead to granuloma formation as the body reacts to the foreign material.

166
Q
  1. Quartan nephrosis is associated with?
    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium ovale
    D. Plasmodium malariae
A

D. Plasmodium malariae
Quartan nephrosis, a type of malaria-associated nephrotic syndrome, is specifically associated with infections by Plasmodium malariae, characterized by a 72-hour (quartan) fever cycle.

167
Q
  1. Relapse in 5 years
    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium ovale
    D. Plasmodium malariae
A

A. Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium vivax is known for having dormant liver stages (hypnozoites) that can reactivate and cause relapses of malaria months or even years after the initial infection. Plasmodium ovale can also cause relapses but is less commonly associated with long-term relapses compared to P. vivax.

168
Q
  1. 48 hours asexual cycle in humans
    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium ovale
    D. Plasmodium malariae
A

A. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium ovale
Both Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale have a 48-hour asexual cycle in humans, known as the tertian fever pattern, where fevers spike every second day.

169
Q
  1. Invades all red cells regardless of age
    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium ovale
    D. Plasmodium malariae
A

B. Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium falciparum is known for its ability to invade red blood cells of any age, contributing to its virulence and the severe nature of the disease it causes.

170
Q
  1. Cytoplasmic Schuffner’s dots
    A. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. AOTA
A

A. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
Schuffner’s dots are fine, red to orange granules seen in the cytoplasm of red cells infected with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, used as a diagnostic feature in microscopy.

MICRO / PARA (DUMP) (12 decks)

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