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MICRO / PARA (DUMP) > LE 1 - MICRO > Flashcards

LE 1 - MICRO Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Agents containing toxins
    a. Bacteria
    b. Fungi
    c. Virus
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA

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2
Q
  1. Chemical agent that has no activity against endospores
    a. chlorine
    b. Alcohol
    С. Phenolics
    d. Quats
A

d. Quats (Quaternary Ammonium Compounds)

a. Chlorine: Chlorine is generally effective against a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria and some viruses. However, it may not be completely effective against bacterial endospores.

b. Alcohol: Alcohol-based disinfectants are not typically effective against bacterial endospores.

c. Phenolics: Phenolic compounds can be effective against a variety of microorganisms, but they may not necessarily kill bacterial endospores.

d. Quats (Quaternary Ammonium Compounds): Quats are generally not effective against bacterial endospores.

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3
Q

7.
Structural difference of bacteria from archaea is on
a. Ribosome
b. Cytoplasm
c. Nucleus
d. Cell wall

A

d. Cell wall

Here’s a brief explanation:

a. Ribosome: Ribosomes in both bacteria and archaea are similar in structure and function.

b. Cytoplasm: While there might be subtle differences in the cytoplasmic components, they are not the primary structural difference between the two domains.

c. Nucleus: Both bacteria and archaea lack a true nucleus. They have a nucleoid region where the genetic material is located, but this is a common feature shared between them.

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4
Q

Beneficial uses of fungi
a. Medicine
b. Beverage
c. Food
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA (All of the above)

Here’s a brief explanation for each option:

a. Medicine: Fungi are used in medicine to produce antibiotics (e.g., penicillin from Penicillium), immunosuppressive drugs, and various other pharmaceuticals. They also have applications in biotechnology and the production of vaccines.

b. Beverage: Fungi, particularly yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae), are used in the fermentation process to produce alcoholic beverages like beer, wine, and spirits. Yeast converts sugars into alcohol and carbon dioxide during fermentation.

c. Food: Many fungi are used in the production of food items. For example, various types of mushrooms (e.g., Agaricus bisporus, shiitake, and oyster mushrooms) are consumed as food. Some fungi are also used in food fermentation processes, like the production of cheese (using specific fungal strains) and soy sauce (using Aspergillus oryzae).

So, fungi have diverse beneficial uses in medicine, beverages, and food production.

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5
Q

Known as the founder of experimental biology
a. Koch
b. Linnaeus
c. Pasteur
d. Redi

A

d. Redi

Francesco Redi, an Italian physician and biologist, is often credited as one of the early pioneers of experimental biology. He conducted experiments in the 17th century that helped refute the idea of spontaneous generation, which laid the foundation for modern experimental biology.

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6
Q

Known as the Father of Taxonomy
a. Pasteur
b. Linnaeus
c. Redi
d. Koch

A

b. Linnaeus

Carl Linnaeus, a Swedish botanist, physician, and zoologist, is often referred to as the Father of Taxonomy. He developed the binomial nomenclature system for naming and classifying organisms, which is still widely used in biological taxonomy today.

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7
Q

The cocci which mostly occur in single or pairs are
a. Tetracocci
b. Diplococci
C. Streptococci
d. None of the choices are correct

A

b. Diplococci

Diplococci are spherical bacteria that typically arrange themselves in pairs after cell division. This arrangement is a characteristic feature of certain bacteria, including those in the genus Neisseria, which includes pathogens like Neisseria gonorrhoeae (causing gonorrhea) and Neisseria meningitidis (causing meningococcal disease).

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following may contain fimbriae?
    a. Gram Negative Bacteria only
    b. Gram Positive Bacteria
    c. Both Gram Negative and Gram Positive Bacteria
    d. None of the choices are correct
A

a. Gram Negative Bacteria only

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9
Q
  1. Cluster of flagella at one pole
    a. Lophotrichous
    b. Ampitrichous
    С. Peritrichous
    d. Monotrichous
A

a. Lophotrichous

In lophotrichous flagellation, multiple flagella are located at one or both ends (poles) of the bacterium. This arrangement allows for rapid movement and is common in certain types of bacteria.

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10
Q

Flagella move the cell by
a. Spinning like a propeller
b. An individual flagellum beating in a whip-like motion
c. Many flagella beating in a synchronous whip-like motion
D. Attaching to nearby particles and contracting

A

a. Spinning like a propeller

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11
Q
  1. The protein from which a hook and filaments of flagella are composed of, is
    a. Peptidoglycan
    b. Gelatin
    c. Flagellin
    d. Casein
A

c. Flagellin

Flagellin is the protein from which the hook and filaments of bacterial flagella are composed.

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12
Q
  1. Peptidoglycan content of Gram positive bacteria?
    a. 50%
    b. 11+0.22%
    c. About 20%
    d. About 10%
A

a. 50%

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13
Q
  1. Bacteria without flagella are unable to
    a. Move
    b. Reproduce
    c. Attach
    d. NOTA
A

a. Move

Bacteria without flagella lack the primary means of active motility, so they are unable to move. However, they can still reproduce, attach, and carry out other essential functions.

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14
Q
  1. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria can easily be destroyed by
    a. Lysozyme
    b. Lipase
    c. Pectinase
    d. Peroxidase
A

a. Lysozyme

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15
Q
  1. True about gram positive bacteria
    a. Thicker wall than gram negative
    b. Has many cell layers
    c. Contains Teichoic Acid
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA (All Of The Above)

Explanation:
a. Thicker wall than gram negative - True. Gram-positive bacteria have a thicker peptidoglycan layer compared to gram-negative bacteria.
b. Has many cell layers - True. The cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is multi-layered due to the thick peptidoglycan.
c. Contains Teichoic Acid - True. Teichoic acids are polymers found in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria and play a role in maintaining cell wall structure and possibly in host-pathogen interactions.

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16
Q
  1. Removal of microbes by mechanical means:
    a. Sanitation
    b. Disinfection
    c. Degerming
    d. All choices are correct
A

c. Degerming

Degerming refers to the removal of microbes from a surface by mechanical means, such as scrubbing with soap and water. It doesn’t necessarily kill the microbes but reduces their number on the surface. Sanitation and disinfection, on the other hand, typically involve the use of chemical agents to reduce or kill microbial populations.

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17
Q
  1. It is an oxidizing halogen
    a. Iodine
    b. Triclosan
    c. Copper Solution
    d. Chlorine
A

d. Chlorine

Chlorine is an oxidizing halogen that is commonly used as a disinfectant in water treatment and other applications. Iodine is also a halogen, but the question specifically asks for an “oxidizing” halogen, making chlorine the more appropriate answer in this context. Triclosan is an antimicrobial agent, and copper solution is not a halogen.

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18
Q
  1. Factors affecting microbial resistance except:
    a. Indiscriminate
    b. All of the choices are correct
    c. Route of administration
    d. Use in viral infections
A

b. All of the choices are correct

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19
Q
  1. Leeuwenhoek’s microorganisms include the following, except:
    a. Arthropod
    b. Algae
    c. Virus
    d. Protozoa
A

c. Virus

Explanation:
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, often called the “father of microbiology,” was the first to observe and describe microorganisms using a single-lens microscope. He observed various microorganisms, including bacteria, algae, and protozoa. However, viruses are much smaller than the microorganisms Leeuwenhoek observed and were not discovered until much later. Thus, Leeuwenhoek did not observe viruses.

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20
Q
  1. Peptidoglycan provides structural strength to bacterial cell walls. This is made of polysaccharide and peptide chains and was formerly known as:
    a. N-Acetylglucosamine
    b. Murein
    c. N- Acetylmuramic Acid
    d. Dipropionic Acid
A

b. Murein

Explanation:
Peptidoglycan, which provides structural strength to bacterial cell walls, is composed of alternating units of N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) linked by β-1,4-glycosidic bonds. Attached to the NAM sugar is a peptide chain. This complex structure was formerly known as murein.

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21
Q
  1. Agents containing hyphae.
    a. Fungi
    b. Bacteria
    c. Virus
    d. All of the above
A

a. Fungi

Explanation:
Hyphae are long, branching filamentous structures that are characteristic of fungi. They are the main mode of vegetative growth in fungi. While some bacteria can form filamentous structures, they are not typically referred to as “hyphae.” Viruses do not have hyphae; they are much simpler entities without complex cellular structures. Thus, among the options provided, only fungi characteristically contain hyphae.

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22
Q
  1. What drug targets 30 S ribosomal subunits?
    a. Chloramphenicol
    b. Tetracycline
    c. Clindamycin
    d. None of the above
A

b. Tetracycline

Explanation:
Tetracycline antibiotics target the 30S ribosomal subunit in bacteria, preventing the attachment of the aminoacyl-tRNA to the RNA-ribosome complex. This inhibits protein synthesis in the bacterial cell. Chloramphenicol targets the 50S ribosomal subunit, and Clindamycin also targets the 50S subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis in a different manner.

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23
Q
  1. A virus known to require a helper virus.
    a. Hepatitis Virus
    b. HIV
    c. Capsid Virus
    d. Satellite Virus
A

d. Satellite Virus

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24
Q
  1. The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan
    a. Attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link
    b. Binding of Penicillin to a membrane protein
    c. Attachment of a peptide to muramic acid
    d. Attachment of a portion of peptidoglycan to a membrane protein
A

a. Attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link

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25
Q
  1. Hairpin viruses are:
    a. ssRNA
    b. ssDNA
    c. dsRNA
    d. dsDNA
A

b. ssDNA

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26
Q
  1. What is most likely to be exposed on the surface of gram negative bacterium?
    a. Pore protein (porin)
    b. Phospholipids
    c. Protein involved in energy generation
    d. Lipoteichoic Acid
A

a. Pore protein (porin)

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27
Q
  1. Structural difference of bacteria from archaea is on:
    a. Ribosome
    b. Nucleus
    c. Cell wall
    d. Cytoplasm
A

c. Cell wall

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28
Q
  1. The cell wall of:
    a. Gram-positive bacteria is thicker than Gram-negative bacteria
    b. Gram-negative bacteria is thicker than Gram-positive bacteria
    c. Gram-positive and Gram-negative have the same thickness but difference composition
    d. None of the above
A

a. Gram-positive bacteria is thicker than Gram-negative bacteria

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29
Q
  1. Beneficial use of microbes:
    a. beverages
    b. Food
    c. AOTA
    d. medicine
A

c. AOTA

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30
Q

Father of germ theory disease
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Joseph Lister
d. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

A

a. Louis Pasteur

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31
Q

43.Smallest infectious agent
a. Virus
b. Fungi
c. Bacteria

A

a. Virus

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32
Q
  1. The pathogenicity of an infectious agents includes:
    a. Damaging the host cells
    b. Production of antibodies
    c. Released of toxins by the host
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA

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33
Q
  1. Known as systemic constitutional symptoms during viral infections EXCEPT:
    a. 38 degrees and above body temperature
    b. myalgia
    c. Body pain
    d. All choices are correct
A

d. All choices are correct

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34
Q

Includes in medical microbiology
a. The study of the causative agents of infectious diseases of humans and their reactions to such infections. In other words, it deals with etiology, pathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis, special treatment and control of infection
b. Study of causative agents that are causing infectious diseases in the body, specifically those of viruses, bacteria, and fungi.
c. Immunization is included because these agents have that kind of antigen where it can trigger an immune response.
d . AOTA

A

d . AOTA

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35
Q
  1. Microbial growth can be inhibited by:
    a. Temperature
    b. Moisture control
    c. Antimicrobial chemicals
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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36
Q
  1. Arya, a 13 year old child was brought to the clinic due to 2 days of fever with associated maculopapular to petechial rashes on her skin. She was dx to have dengue which is spread by getting bitten by an infected Aedes aegypti mosquito. In this case, transmission of dengue via mosquito is considered as
    a. Biological transmission
    b. Mechanical transmission
    c. Indirect transmission
    d. Vehicular transmission
A

a. Biological transmission

Biological transmission occurs when the infectious agent (in this case, the dengue virus) undergoes developmental changes or multiplication within the vector (the mosquito) before being transmitted to the host (in this case, Arya).

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37
Q

52.
An inanimate object that is capable of infecting and providing an adequate environment for microorganisms to multiply and reproduce.
a. Host
b. Reservoir host
c. Definitive host
d. Fomite

A

d. Fomite

A fomite is an inanimate object or surface that can harbor and transmit infectious microorganisms, providing a suitable environment for them to multiply and reproduce.

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38
Q

The end result of all complementary pathways is the production of:
a. All of the Above
b. Cytolysis
c. Membrane Attack Complex
d. Opsonization

A

c. Membrane Attack Complex

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39
Q

You were asked to perform a complement fixation test. You noted sedimentation at the bottom of the test tube. This means that:
a. There are not enough unbound complement proteins to cause hemolysis
b. There is white precipitation that will indicate antibody-antigen complex
c. There should be precipitation instead of sedimentation
d. There are enough free complement proteins causing clumping of sample cells at the bottom of the tube

A

a. There are not enough unbound complement proteins to cause hemolysis

If there is sedimentation at the bottom of the test tube in a complement fixation test, it indicates that there are not enough unbound complement proteins available to cause hemolysis (the lysis of red blood cells). This suggests that the complement proteins have been bound to antigen-antibody complexes, preventing them from causing cell lysis.

Please note that sedimentation in this context does not refer to precipitation, but rather the settling of cells at the bottom of the tube due to lack of complement-mediated lysis.

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40
Q
  1. You are looking after a trauma patient that needs a blood transfusion. Before you do this you need to find his blood type. In the well you note sandy agglutination with anti-sera A and anti-sera B and note no agglutination with anti- sera D. What is the blood type?
    a. O+
    b. A-
    C. AB-
    d. AB+
A

c. AB-

The presence of A and B antigens and the absence of the Rh antigen (negative) results in an AB- blood type.

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41
Q
  1. Chemically the capsule may be
    a. both polysaccharide and polypeptide
    b. Polysaccharide only
    c. Polypeptide only
    d. None of the choices are correct
A

a. both polysaccharide and polypeptide

Capsules in bacteria can be composed of both polysaccharides and polypeptides. This combination provides protection to the bacteria and can play a role in virulence and immune evasion.

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42
Q

62.
This is the result of complement system activation causing disruption of the bacterial cell membrane permeability leading to bacterial lysis.
a. Membrane Attack Complex
b. C3 convertase
c. Opsonization
d. C5b

A

a. Membrane Attack Complex

The Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) is the result of complement system activation, and it causes disruption of the bacterial cell membrane permeability, ultimately leading to bacterial lysis.

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43
Q

3.
Opsonization in complement activation is brought about by which of the following proteins?
a. C1
b. C4b2aC3b
c. C3b
d. C3a

A

c. C3b

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44
Q
  1. Vaccination
    a. Active Immunity
    b. Passive Immunity
    c. Immunization
    d. Inoculation
A

a. Active Immunity:

Active immunity refers to the body’s own immune system generating a response to an antigen (usually through exposure to a weakened or inactivated form of the pathogen, as in vaccination).
It provides long-term protection because the immune system remembers how to fight the specific pathogen.

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45
Q
  1. Susceptibility
    a. Vulnerability or lack of immunity
    b. Proneness
    c. Susceptiveness
    d. Liability
A

a. Vulnerability or lack of immunity:

Susceptibility often refers to an individual’s vulnerability or lack of resistance to a particular disease or condition due to various factors like genetics, lack of vaccination, or weakened immune system.

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46
Q
  1. Which of these terms refers to diseases occurring primarily in animals but can be transmitted to humans?
    a. Vector transmission
    b. Accidental transmission
    c. Opportunistic infection
    d. Zoonotic infection
A

d. Zoonotic infection

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47
Q
  1. This refers to a relationship between two organisms in which at least one organism is dependent on the other
    a. Commensalism
    b. Symbiosis
    c. Mutualism
    d. Parasitism
A

b. Symbiosis

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48
Q
  1. Which of the following statements refer to a nosocomial or hospital acquired infection?
    a. Always occurs in patients who are discharged from the hospital
    b. The disease must not show evidence of being present at the time of admission
    c. The disease must be incubating in the patient at the the of incubation
    d. The pathogen originated from outside the hospital
A

b. The disease must not show evidence of being present at the time of admission

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49
Q
  1. This refers to passive transport of the pathogens on the insects feet or other body parts
    a. Mechanical Transmission
    b. Biologic Transmission
    c. Droplet Transmission
    d. Vehicle Transmission
A

a. Mechanical Transmission

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50
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most appropriate term referring to an asymptomatic person who can transmit the pathogen to others?
    a. Vehicle
    b. Host
    c. Reservoir
    d. Carrier
    e. Vector
A

d. Carrier

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51
Q
  1. Doy, a 9 y/o boy was playing with a new pet cat when he started having repeated bouts of sneezing & colds. He was brought to their pediatrician & was diagnosed to have an allergic reaction. This type of immune response is mediated by what type of immunoglobulin?
    a. IgE
    b. IgM
    c. IgG
    d. IgA
A

a. IgE

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52
Q
  1. Relationships where one organism gets nutrients at the expense of the other.
    a. Parasitism
    b. Symbiosis
    c. Mutualism
    d. Commensalism
A

a. Parasitism

Parasitism is a type of relationship in which one organism benefits (the parasite) at the expense of the other organism (the host), with the parasite deriving nutrients or other benefits from the host while often causing harm to the host.

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53
Q
  1. Antigen binding sites (antibody)
    a. Variable regions of the light and heavy chains
    b. Complementary Determining Regions (CDRs)
    c. Epitopes
    d. Paratopes
A

a. Variable regions of the light and heavy chains

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54
Q
  1. Rey, a medical clerk rotating at the emergency room, was called in to attend to a trauma case. Upon approaching the patient to assist, he was accidentally pricked on the finger by the surgery resident with an unused needle. He was afterwards given anti-tetanus immunoglobulin which is a form of:
    a. Innate immunization
    b. Active immunization
    c. Partial immunization
    d. Passive immunization
A

d. Passive immunization

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55
Q
  1. The ability to cause disease by overcoming the defenses of a host.
    a. Virulence
    b. Immunity
    c. Pathogenicity
    d. Susceptibility
A

c. Pathogenicity

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56
Q
  1. Every Tuesday, pregnant women go to health centers for prenatal check ups. Included in their visit is health teaching on proper breastfeeding to ensure that the new infant will receive the needed antibodies in the mother’s colostrum which is a form of:
    a. Immunoglobulin E
    b. Passive Immunity
    c. Active Immunity
    d. Immunoglobulin D
A

b. Passive Immunity

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57
Q
  1. Influenza virus has multiple short RNA capable of mutating rapidly resulting in the presentation of a wide variety of antigens which can invade host defenses. Which of the following refers to this type of microbial tactic against immune system?
    a. Antigenic Variation
    b. Resistance
    c. Encapsulation
    d. Escapism
A

a. Antigenic Variation

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58
Q
  1. An organism which is capable of causing disease is medically referred to as:
    a. Pathogen
    b. Germs
    c. Etiologic agent
    d. Bacteria
A

a. Pathogen

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59
Q
  1. Defense that are present at birth, always present and available, and provide rapid response to host from the disease?
    a. Innate Immunity
    b. Natural Killer Cells
    c. Adaptive Immunity
A

a. Innate Immunity

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60
Q
  1. A type of relationship that benefits the other while the one is generally unharmed
    a. Mutualism
    b. Parasitsm
    c. Commensalism
    d. Symbiosis
A

c. Commensalism

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61
Q
  1. E.coli in the gastrointestinal tract under normal conditions
    a. Parasitism
    b. Mutualism
    c. Commensalism
    d. Normal Flora
A

d. Normal Flora

E. coli (Escherichia coli) in the gastrointestinal tract under normal conditions is considered part of the normal flora or microbiota. It is a commensal bacterium, which means it typically resides in the gut without causing harm to the host and may even provide some benefits, such as aiding in digestion.

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62
Q
  1. Vehicle transmission
    a. is the transmission of disease agents by a medium
    b. involves direct contact between infected individuals
    c. primarily occurs through respiratory droplets
    d. is also known as vector transmission
A

a. is the transmission of disease agents by a medium

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63
Q
  1. Immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta
    a. IgG
    b. IgA
    c. IgM
    d. IgE
A

a. IgG

IgG is the immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta. It provides passive immunity to the developing fetus, offering protection against certain diseases that the mother has been exposed to or vaccinated against.

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64
Q
  1. Educating the staff
    a. Prevention
    b. Training
    c. Instruction
    d. Staff development
A

a. Prevention

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65
Q
  1. Which of the following statements refer to nosocomial or hospital acquired infection?
    a. Always occurs in patients who are discharged
    from the hospital
    b. The disease must not show evidence of being present at the time of admission
    c. The disease must be incubating in the patient at the time of admission
    d. The pathogen originated from outside the hospital
A

b. The disease must not show evidence of being present at the time of admission

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66
Q
  1. Alternative pathway complement proteins
    a. Factor B
    b. Factor D
    c. Factor P/properdin
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA

a. Factor B: Factor B is a key component of the alternative pathway. It is activated when it binds to complement component C3b on the surface of microorganisms. Once activated, it participates in the formation of the C3 convertase complex (C3bBb), which cleaves more C3 molecules and amplifies the complement cascade.

b. Factor D: Factor D is another essential component of the alternative pathway. It is an enzyme that cleaves Factor B when it is bound to C3b, generating the active fragment Bb. This cleavage step is crucial for the formation of the C3 convertase.

c. Factor P/Properdin: Factor P, also known as properdin, stabilizes the C3 convertase complex (C3bBb) in the alternative pathway. Properdin helps to prolong the activity of C3 convertase, allowing it to cleave more C3 molecules and continue the cascade of complement activation.

So, all of these proteins (Factor B, Factor D, and Factor P/properdin) are integral to the alternative pathway of the complement system, working together to enhance the immune response against pathogens.

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67
Q
  1. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a classic example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
    a. Type I
    b. Type II
    c. Type III
    d. Type IV
A

c. Type III hypersensitivity reaction

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by the formation of immune complexes composed of antigens and antibodies. These immune complexes can deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. In the case of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomeruli of the kidneys, causing kidney inflammation and dysfunction.

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68
Q
  1. What is an example of a Natural-Active Immunity?
    a. Pooled human Ig against Hepa A and B
    b. Horse antitoxin against botulism
    c. Placental IgG transport, colostrum
    d. Hepatitis B component vaccine
A

b. Horse antitoxin against botulism

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69
Q
  1. What is an example of Artificial-Passive Immunity?
    a. Pooled human Ig against Hepa A and B
    b. Horse antitoxin against botulism
    c. Placental IgG transport, colostrum
    d. Hepatitis B component vaccine
A

a. Pooled human Ig against Hepa A and B

Artificial-passive immunity is acquired by receiving pre-formed antibodies from another source, rather than through the individual’s own immune response. In this case, receiving pooled human immunoglobulins (Ig) against Hepatitis A and B provides immediate, temporary protection against these diseases by introducing pre-formed antibodies into the recipient’s body.

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70
Q
  1. Process used to render a surface or product free from viable organisms, including bacterial spores.
    a. Disinfection
    b. Sterilization
    c. Asepsis
    d. Biocide
A

b. Sterilization

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71
Q
  1. Products or biocides used to reduce the number of viable microorganisms, or bioburden, on or in a product or surface to a level previously specified as appropriate for its intended further handling or use.
    a. Bactericidal
    b. Bacteriostatic
    c. Antiseptic
    d. Disinfectant
A

d. Disinfectant

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72
Q
  1. Property by which a biocide is able to inhibit bacterial multiplication.
    a. Bactericidal
    b. Bacteriostatic
    c. Antiseptic
    d. Disinfectant
A

b. Bacteriostatic

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73
Q
  1. Which of the ff is not true regarding live vaccines
    a. Given as single dose
    b. Induces antibody but poor T cell responses
    c. Tend to be less stable
    d. Possess risk of spread of infection to unvaxxed individuals
A

b. Induces antibody but poor T cell responses

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74
Q
  1. True of Innate and Adaptive immune systems
    a. Complement activates antibodies
    b. Antibodies and complement reduce phagocytes
    c. Antibodies activates adaptive and innate responses
    d. Innate and Adaptive arms interact and augment each other
A

d. Innate and Adaptive arms interact and augment each other

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75
Q
  1. What are the two arms of the immune system?
    a. Active and Passive
    b. Anatomic and Physical
    c. Complement and phagocytes
    d. Innate and Adaptive
A

d. Innate and Adaptive

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76
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the immune system arm that involves T and B Lymphocytes and antigen presenting cells?
    a. Specific
    b. Self-limiting
    c. Self vs. Non-self distinction
    d. Skin involvement
A

d. Skin involvement

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77
Q
  1. What is involved in humoral immunity
    a. Neutrophils
    b. Cytotoxic T-cells
    c. Natural Killer cells
    d. Plasma cells
A

d. Plasma cells

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78
Q
  1. What is involved in cell-mediated immunity?
    a. T cell
    b. B cell
    c. Antibodies
    d. Plasma cells
A

a. T cell

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79
Q
  1. What vaccine should be given at birth?
    a. DPT
    b. HIB
    c. HepB
    d. OPV
A

c. HepB

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80
Q
  1. What is not a complication of vaccination?
    a. Teratogenic property of live vaccines
    b. Allergic effects
    c. Virulent infectious material in the vaccines
    d. Malnutrition
A

d. Malnutrition

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81
Q
  1. Which hypersensitivity reaction wherein ABO incompatibility or complement-mediated lysis belongs to?
    a. Type III HPS
    b. Type IV HPS
    c. Type I HPS
    d. Type II HPS
A

d. Type II HPS

ABO incompatibility or complement-mediated lysis is a result of antibodies binding to antigens on cell surfaces, leading to cell lysis. This type of reaction is characteristic of Type II hypersensitivity reactions.

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82
Q
  1. What product results from gene coding for Hep B be inserted to yeast cells which then will release the molecule to the culture medium?
    a. Conjugate vaccines
    b. Toxoid
    c. Adjuvants
    d. Protein-recombinant antigen
A

d. Protein-recombinant antigen

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83
Q

1 Treponema’s spiral shape is:
A. Regular
B. Flexous
C. C- Shaped
D. Irregular

A

B. Flexous

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84
Q
  1. Which of the following terms is appropriate to use on an organism, such as a person, who gets infected and arbors an organism which is not usually parasitic to that particular species.
    A. Commensal
    B. Accidental host
    C. Definitive host
    D. Reservoir host
    E. Opportunistic host
A

B. Accidental host

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85
Q

3 The Pathogenecity of an infectious agents, includes:
A. damaging the host cells
B. Production of Antibodies
C. Released of toxins by host
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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86
Q
  1. Opsonization in complement activation is brought about by which of the following proteins?
    A. C1
    B. C4b2aC3b
    C. C3b
    D. C3a
A

C. C3b

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87
Q
  1. Known as systemic constitutional symptoms during viral infection, EXCEPT:
    A. 38 degrees and above body temp
    B. Myalgia
    C. body pain
    D. All choices are correct
A

D. All choices are correct

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88
Q
  1. Which of the following may contain fimbriae?
    A. Gram Negative Bacteria only
    B. None of the choices are correct
    C. Gram Positive Bacteria
    D. Both Gram Negative and Gram positive Bacteria
A

A. Gram Negative Bacteria only

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89
Q
  1. The protein from which a hook and filaments of flagella are composed of, is
    A. Peptidoglycan
    B. Gelatin
    C. Flagellin
    D. Casein
A

C. Flagellin

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90
Q
  1. Also known as leafy lichens
    A. Crustose
    B. All of the above
    C. Foliose
    D. Fruticose
A

C. Foliose

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91
Q

. The cocci which mostly occur in single or pairs are
A. Tetracocci
B. None of the choices are correct
C. Diplococci
D. Streptococci

A

C. Diplococci

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92
Q
  1. During your first year orientation, the school committee reiterated that tehre are separate bins for biodegradable and infectious wastes. you blew your nose on a piece of tissue and decided to place it on the desk beside you. the piece of used
    A. Fomite
    B. Reservoir host
    C. Vehicle
    D. Vector
A

A. Fomite

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93
Q
  1. The ability to ward off disease caused by microbes or their products and to protect against environmental agents..
    A. Immunization
    B. Immunity
    C. Susceptibility
    D. Immunocompromised
A

B. Immunity

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94
Q
  1. Any organism that can be infected by a pathogen under normal conditions is referred to as a ____.
    A. Vehicle
    B. Host
    C. Vector
    D. Commensal
A

B. Host

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95
Q

13 Pathogenicity of an infectious agent is brought about by
A. Production of antibodies
B. Damage to the host cells
C. Release of toxins by the host
D. Maintenance of homeostatic functions of the tissue

A

B. Damage to the host cells

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96
Q
  1. You were going over a petient’s records when you noticed his chest xray which was read as pneumonia. Immediately, you remembered that this kind of infection can be transmitted via:
    A. Droplet infection
    B. Touching
    C. Mechanical Transmission
    D. Fomites
A

A. Droplet infection

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97
Q
  1. An Organism which is capable of causing disease is medically referred to as a
    A. Pathogen
    B. Germs
    C. Etiologic Agent
    D. Bacteria
A

A. Pathogen

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98
Q
  1. Leeuwenhoek’s microorganisms include the following, except:
    A. anthropod
    B. algae
    C. virus
    D. Protozoans
A

C. virus

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99
Q
  1. Based on genetic component, which of the following is not included in the group?
    a. HPV
    b. Coronavirus
    c. HSV
    d. Adenovirus
A

a. HPV

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100
Q
  1. Which of the following is the true statement?
    a. Opsonization is a process wherein phagocytosis is enhanced by antibody attachment to antigens
    b. Normally expressed major histocompatibility complexes
    c. All of the statements are true.
    d. Molecules that enhance phagocytosis by marking antigens to be targeted.
    e. Cancer cells are targeted for destruction by Natural
A

c. All of the statements are true.

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101
Q

19 A classmate of yours called in sick due to an acute viral illness. Virus infected cells are detected to your immune system by which of the following?
A. presence of exogenously produced proteins in the cell’s cytoplasm
B. presentation of viral antigenic particles on surface MHC class 2 molecules
C. presence of endogenously produced proteins in the cell’s cytoplasm
D. presentation of viral antigenic particles on surface MHC class I molecules

A

D. presentation of viral antigenic particles on surface MHC class I molecules

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102
Q

20 known as beard lichens
A. fruticose
B. foliose
C. crustose
D. none of the above

A

A. fruticose

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103
Q

21 staphylococcus aureus is an example of
A. cocci
B. NOTA
C. Spiral
D. Bacilli

A

A. cocci

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104
Q
  1. toxins which are actively released by a pathogenic organism as part of its metabolism are referred to as
    a. Toxic byproducts
    b. Exotoxins
    c. Virulence factor
    D. Endotoxins
A

b. Exotoxins

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105
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about cell wall of gram positive bacteria?
    A. All of the choices are correct
    B. It is thicker than that associated with gram- negative bacteria
    C. It consists of multiple layers
    D. It contains teichoic acid
A

A. All of the choices are correct

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106
Q
  1. Agents containing toxins
    A. All of the choices are correct
    B. Virus
    C. Fungi
    D. Bacteria
A

A. All of the choices are correct

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107
Q
  1. papilloma virus
    A. ssDNA
    B. ds RNA
    C. ds DNA
    D. ssRNA
A

C. ds DNA

papilloma virus = dsDNA
Reovirus = dsRNA

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108
Q
  1. Doy, a 9 year old boy was playing with anew pet cat when he started having repeated bouts of sneezing and colds. He was brught to their pediatrician and was diagnosed to have an allergic reaction. This type of immune response is mediated by what type of immunoglobulin?
    A. IgE
    B. IgM
    C. IgG
    D. IgA
A

A. IgE

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109
Q
  1. Reovirus is
    A. ssRNA
    B. dsDNA
    C. ssDNA
    D. dsRNA
A

D. dsRNA

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110
Q
  1. Factors affecting microbial resistance, except:
    A. Indiscriminate use of antibiotic
    B. All of the choices are correct
    C. Route of administration
    D. Use in viral infections
A

B. All of the choices are correct

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111
Q
  1. Very commonly known as plant viruses
    A. ssDNA
    b. dsRNA
    c. ssRNA
    d. dsDNA
A

c. ssRNA

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112
Q
  1. Which of the following terms refer to the degree or extent by which a pathogen can cause disease?
    A. Pathogenecity
    B. Infectiousness
    C. Virulence
    D. Opportunisms
A

C. Virulence

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113
Q
  1. The ability of an organism to ward off diseases caused by microbes or their products against enviromental agents
    A. Immunity
    B. Immunocompromise
    C. Immunization
    D. Susceptibility
A

A. Immunity

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114
Q
  1. Vibrio is an example of:
    A. Cocci
    B. NOTA
    C. Bacilli
    D. Spiral
A

D. Spiral

SPIRAL + BACILLI

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115
Q
  1. People with COVID-19 virus in their noses and throats may leave infected droplets on objects and surfaces when they sneeze, cough on, or touch surfaces. These objects of surfaces in these case are considered as which of the
    following?
    A. Direct transmission
    B. Fomite
    C. Vector
    D. Vehicle
A

B. Fomite

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116
Q
  1. Chemical agent that has no activity against endospores
    A. chlorine
    B. Alcohol
    C. phenolics
    d. quats
A

d. quats

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117
Q
  1. Agents containing toxins
    A. Bacteria
    B. AOTA
    C Fungi
    D. Virus
A

B. AOTA

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118
Q
  1. Based on genetic component, which of the following is not included in the group
    A. Hep A
    B. HIV
    C. Hep B
    D. None of the choices
A

A. Hep A

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119
Q
  1. This is the result of complement system activation causing disruption of the bacterial cell membrane permeability leading to bacterial lysis.
    A. Membrane Attack Complex
    B. C3 convertase
    C. Opsonization
    D. C5b
A

A. Membrane Attack Complex

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120
Q
  1. What are the potentially pathologic organism which does not cause any disease in normal conditions.
    A.Nosocomial pathogens
    B. Parasitic Pathogens
    C. Opportunistic pathogen
    D. Incidental pathogen
A

C. Opportunistic pathogen

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121
Q
  1. Which of the following does not contain protein?
    A. Pili
    B. Flagellum
    C. Porin
    d. Lipoteichoic acid
A

d. Lipoteichoic acid

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122
Q
  1. Blood typing is which typing of reaction
    A. Cell Mediated
    B. Antibody Mediated
    C. IgE Mediated
    D. Immune complex mediated
A

B. Antibody Mediated

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123
Q
  1. Every tuesday, pregnant women go to the health centers for pre-natal checkup. Included in their visit is health teaching on proper breastfeeding to ensure that the new infant will receive the needed antibodies in the mother’s
    A. Immunoglobulin E
    B. Passive Immunity
    C. Active Immunity
    D. Immunoglobulin D
A

B. Passive Immunity

124
Q

2 The process by which Anopheles mosquitoes colostrum which is a form of
pass on malaria from one person to another is an example of which of the following modes of transmission?
A. Fomite
B. Biological vector transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Mechanical vector transmission

A

B. Biological vector transmission

125
Q
  1. Which of the following are matched correctly?
    A. Staphylococcus epidermidis on intact skin: mutualism
    B. Hookworm drawing blood from the intestinal muscosa of humans: mutualism
    C. Vitamin K producing E. coli in the colon: Commensalism
    D. Mosquito having a blood meal: Parasitism
A

D. Mosquito having a blood meal: Parasitism

126
Q
  1. Agents containing hyphae
    A. Virus
    B. Bacteria
    C. Fungi
    D. AOTA
A

C. Fungi

127
Q
  1. Clostridia is an example of:
    A. Spiral
    B. Cocci
    D. Flexuous
    E. Bacilli
A

E. Bacilli

128
Q
  1. Which of the following terms refer to the component of the bacterium which enables it to cause disease?
    A. Adhesion
    B. Virulence factor
    C. Pathogenicity
    D. Antigen
A

C. Pathogenicity

129
Q
  1. You saw some children in your neighborhood playing when you noticed that one of the children is having cough and colds. His sister, however,
    is not affected. You thought to yourself that
    A. The sister is able to ward off respiratory infections because of mucosal antibodies of the respiratory tract
    B. The sister is able to ward off respiratory infections due to life long immunity by circulating IgA antibodies.
    c. The sister must be protected from respiratory infections due to lg antibodies in her respiratory mucosal surfaces
    d. The sister is able to ward off the infection due to the presence of IgM antibodies in her respiratory mucosa
A

d. The sister is able to ward off the infection due to the presence of IgM antibodies in her respiratory mucosa

130
Q
  1. Which of the following is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium tract.
    A. Polysaccharide portion of LTA
    B. Electron transport system components
    surfaces.
    C. O antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
    D. Braun lippoprotei
A

C. O antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

131
Q
  1. A virus known to require a helper virus.
    A. HIV
    B. Capsid Virus
    C. Satellite Virus
    D. Hepatitis Virus
A

C. Satellite Virus

132
Q

50 Houseflies are capable of transferring infectious organisms from one another, This is generally done by which of the ff. modes?
A. Mechanical vector
B. direct contact
C. biological transmission
D. Vehicle Transmission

A

A. Mechanical vector

133
Q
  1. The last step of synthesis of peptidoglycan is
    A. Attachment of a peptide to muramic acid
    B. Binding of penicillin to a membrane protein
    C. Attachment of a portion of a peptidoglycan to a membrane lipid
    D. Attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link
A

D. Attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link

134
Q

2 Neisseria gonorrhoeae is an example of
a. Cocci
b. Bacilli
c. Spiral
d. None of the above

A

a. Cocci

135
Q
  1. Removal of microbes by mechanical means:
    sanitation
    disinfection
    degerming
    all choices are correct
A

degerming

136
Q
  1. Titoy, a 5 year old boy started developing fever, nausea, vomiting with bouts of watery diarrhea. His last meal was noted to be fish ball from a vendor who happened to pass by their house. He was eventually brought to the emergency room due to severe dehydration where a neighboring kid was also admitted for a milder case of diarrhea. The characteristic of a pathogen to cause varying degrees of severity of disease is called
    A. Invasiveness
    B. Toxigenecity
    C. Infectivity
    D. Virulence
A

D. Virulence

137
Q
  1. What is the term which refers to animals that carry pathogens from one-host to another
    A. Insect
    B. Arthropod
    C. Vehicle
    D. Vector
A

D. Vector

138
Q
  1. Known as fusion of nuclei
    A. plasmogamy
    B. germination
    C. karyogamy
    D. meiosis
A

C. karyogamy

139
Q
  1. Senators defenders St. James declared that there. were cancer cells detected in her previous executive check up. However, the disease has not spread to her other vital organs. She said during her priviledge speech that she studied microbiology in pre-law that the first line of defense to cancer spread is the action of
    A. T lymphocytes
    B. Natural killer cells
    C. Macrophages
    D. B Lymphocytes
A

B. Natural killer cells

140
Q
  1. Which of the following statements refer to a nosocomial or hospital acquired infection?
    A. Always occurs in patients who are discharged from the hospital
    B. The disease must not show evidence of being present at the time of admission
    C. The disease must be incubating in the patient at the time of incubation
    D. The pathogen originated from outside the hospital
A

B. The disease must not show evidence of being present at the time of admission

141
Q
  1. Rey, a medical clerk rotating at the emergency room was called in to attend to a trauma case. Upon approaching the patient to assist, he was accidentally pricked on the finger by the surgery resident with an unused needle. He was afterwards given anti-tetanus immunoglobulin which is a form of:
    A. Innate immunization
    B. Active immunization
    C. Partial immunization
    D. Passive immunization
A

D. Passive immunization

142
Q

62 Influenza virus has multiple short RNA capable of mutating rapidly resulting in the presentation of a wide variety of antigens which can invade host defenses. Which of the following refers to this type of microbial tactic against immune system?
A. Antigenic variation
B. Resistance
C. Encapsulation
D. Escapism

A

A. Antigenic variation

143
Q
  1. Hairpin virus is
    A. ssRNA
    B. dsRNA
    C. ssDNA
    D. dsDNA
A

C. ssDNA

144
Q
  1. Chemically the capsule may be
    A. both polysaccharide and polypeptide
    B. Polysaccharide only
    C. Polypeptide only
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. both polysaccharide and polypeptide

145
Q
  1. At the emergenyc room, a 35 year old laborer was admitted due to traumatic injury to his right arm while operating a power tool. He lost a considerable amount of blood thus blood transfuion was oredered. Which statement is true when doing blood tyoing?
    A, Agglutination with anti-sera AB means that the patient is Blood type O
    B. Lack of agglutination with both anti-sera A and B indicates that the patient is Blood type AB
    C. Agglutination with anti- sera B indicates that the patients is Blood Type B
    D. Agglutination with anti-sera A indicates that the patient blood type is A
A

C. Agglutination with anti- sera B indicates that the patients is Blood Type B

146
Q
  1. Which of the following groups of people may be at increased risk of opportunistic infection?
    a. healthy 50 y/o male, admitted for his routine annual check up
    b. all are equally at risk for opportunistic infection
    c. telephone operator at a hospital
    d. members of a household in which there is a person which is HIV-positive
    e. recent post-transplant patient
A

e. recent post-transplant patient

147
Q
  1. Lipopolysacchride is an antigenic substance found in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. LPS causes disease when liberated from the lysed bacteria. LPS is considered what type of
    A. endotoxin
    B. Exotoxin
    C. Virulence factor
    D. Antigen
A

D. Antigen

148
Q

68Leptospira’s spiral shape is
a. irregular
b flexuous
c. regular
d. c- shaped

A

d. c- shaped

149
Q

69 the ability to cause disease by overcomming host defenses
a pathogenicity
b parasitism
c virulence
d invasiveness

A

pathogenicity

150
Q

70 What is most likely to be exposed on the surface of gram negative bacterium?
A. Lipotechoic acid
B. Phospholipids
C. Pore protein (porin)
D. Protein involved in energy generation

A

C. Pore protein (porin)

151
Q
  1. akira, a 13 y/o child was brought to the clinic due to 2 days of fever with associated maculopapular to petecchial rashes on her skin. she was diagnosed to have dengue which is spread by getting bitten by an infected aedes
    a. Direct transmission
    b. Fomite
    C. Infectious disease
    D. Insect vector
A

D. Insect vector

152
Q
  1. Saccharomyses is an example of
    A. Club fungi
    B. Zygote fungi
    C. Sac fungi
    D. Chytrid fungi
A

C. Sac fungi

153
Q
  1. known as simple fungi
    a. sac fungi
    b chytrid fungi
    c. zygote fungi
    d club fungi
A

b chytrid fungi

154
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most appropriate term referring to an asymptomatic person who can transmit the pathogen ot others?
    A. Vehicle
    B. Host
    C. Reservoir
    D. Carrier
    E. Vector
A

D. Carrier

155
Q
  1. Getting sick from eating poorly prepared pasta is what type of mode of transmission?
    A. Vector transmission
    B. Vehicle transmission
    C. Direct transmission
    D. Indirect transmission
A

B. Vehicle transmission

156
Q

77you werre attending to a trauma patient in the emergency room who neede immediate blood transufussion so you di the blood typing yourself. you found no sandy appearance on all three anti- sera which you tested. you would then request from which type of blood
a. AB -
b. AB +
C. O +
D. O -

A

D. O -

157
Q
  1. It is an oxidizing halogen
    A. iodine
    B. triclosan
    c.copper solution
    d. chlorine
A

d. chlorine

158
Q
  1. Structural difference of bacteria from archae is on:
    A. ribosome
    B. cytoplasm
    C. cell wall
    D. nucleus
A

C. cell wall

159
Q

80 aDenovirus is:
A.ssRNA
B.ssDNA
C.dsDNA
d.dsRNA

A

C.dsDNA

160
Q
  1. Beneficial uses of microbes
    A. Beverages
    B. Food
    C. AOTA
    D. Medicine
A

C. AOTA

161
Q
  1. The cell walls of many gram-positive bacteria can be easily destroyed by an enzyme known as:
    A. Lysozyme
    B. Lipase
    C. Protease
    D. Peroxidase
A

A. Lysozyme

162
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are true about high virulent organisms?
    A. pathogenic organisms which almost inevitably cause disease
    B. organisms which may or may not cause disease
    C. organism which is capable of causing disease
    D. all of the statemenrs are correct
A

A. pathogenic organisms which almost inevitably cause disease

163
Q
  1. Borrelia spiral shape
    A.Flexuous
    B.Regular
    C. Irregular
    D. C shaped
A

C. Irregular

164
Q
  1. Coronavirus is classified as
    A. ss RNA
    B. ss DNA
    C. ds RNA
    D. ds DNA
A

C. ds RNA

165
Q
  1. Known as the father of Taxonomy
    A. Redi
    B. Pasteur
    C. Linnaeus
    D. Koch
A

C. Linnaeus

166
Q
  1. considered as physical forms of microbial control
    A. application of germinal soap
    B. all of the above
    c. use of glutaraldehyde
    d. Use of extreme temperature
A

d. Use of extreme temperature

167
Q
  1. Which of these terms refers to diseases occuring primarily in animals but can be transmitted to humans?
    A. Vector transmission
    B. Accidental iinfection
    C. Opportunistic infection
    D. Zoonic Infection
    E. Transpecies infection
A

D. Zoonic Infection

168
Q
  1. The following are SSRNA viruses, except:
    A. HIV
    B. Measles
    C. Influenza
    D. Ebola
A

A. HIV

169
Q
  1. Surface molecules which serves to inhibit natural killer cells from targeting a persons own cells
    A. Normal major histocompatibility complex
    B. Abnormal major histocompatibility complex
    C. Complement proteins
    D. Integral membrane proteins
A

A. Normal major histocompatibility complex

170
Q
  1. swimming towards a chemical of bacteria is termed
    a.magnetaxis
    b.phototaxis
    c. negative chemotaxis
    d. positive chemotaxis
A

d. positive chemotaxis

171
Q
  1. It is a form of biguanide
    A. triclosan
    B. alcohol
    C. chlorhexidine
    D. phenol
A

C. chlorhexidine

172
Q
  1. Treponema pallidum is an example of:
    A. Bacilli
    B. Cocci
    C. Spiral
    D. NOTA
A

C. Spiral

173
Q
  1. You were going over your relative’s lab reports from the hospital. You noted that a particular test showed growth of Staphylococcus epidermis on skin scrapings tested. You remembered from your Microbiology lecture that:
    A. Corynebacterium thrive on the cornea of the eye which in turn protects the eye from foreign objects
    B. Staphylococcus epidermidis compete with intestinal bacteria and produce vitamin K which is
    C. Staphylococcus epidermidis are commensals naturally found on human skin
    D. Staphylococcus epidermidis are parasites on the skin but will not cause harm
A

C. Staphylococcus epidermidis are commensals naturally found on human skin

174
Q

95.Use of heat in reducing spoilage of food.
A. All of the choices are correct
B. Pasteurization
C. Sterilization
D. Autoclaving

A

B. Pasteurization

175
Q

96.The alternative pathway of the complement system begins with the formation of antigen- antibody (immune complex) and eventual activation of the complement protein which occurs when the antibody undergoes conformational
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

176
Q
  1. You were the top forensic pathologist in your change when bound tp an antigen.
    city and is investigating a crime scene. You saw some possible blood samples on the floor and needed to determine if it was a human blood from
    A. Whitish precipitates of antibody - antigen complexes between positive samples
    B. Agglutination of rbc due to antibody - antigen reactions
    C. No precipitation between posstive samples
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

B. Agglutination of rbc due to antibody - antigen reactions

177
Q
  1. True statement about innate immunity.
    A. Able to recognize and respond to a vast number of different antigens.
    B. Provides definitve defense against repeat exposure to pathogens
    C. Involves antigen- independent mechanisms.
    D. Able to discriminate subtle molecular differences among molecules.
A

C. Involves antigen- independent mechanisms.

178
Q

9 A classmate of yours called in sick and was diagnosed to have bacterial infection , Cells infected by bacteria would be recognized by which of the following:
A. Presence of bacterial antigen on the surface of MHC Class II molecules
B. Presence of endogenously produced proteins in cell cytoplasm
C. Presence of bacterial antigen on surface of MHC Class I molecules
D. Phagocytes by neutrophils

A

C. Presence of bacterial antigen on surface of MHC Class I molecules

179
Q
  1. What relationship do intestinal worms have with children
    A. Commensalism
    B. Amensalism
    C. Mutualism
    D. Parasitism
A

D. Parasitism

180
Q
  1. Which is an example of live viral vaccine?
    A, Rabies (human diploid cell)
    B. Influenza
    C. Poliomyelitis (Salk)
    D. Varicella Zoster
A

D. Varicella Zoster

181
Q
  1. The functions of plasmid are
    A. DNA replication
    B. None of the choices is correct
    C. Cell wall synthesis
    D. Protein synthesis
A

B. None of the choices is correct

182
Q
  1. What immunological test that gives rapid analysis of cell types present in a blood sample?
    a. Flow Cytometric Analysis
    b. Western Blot or Immunoblot
    c. Histocompatibility Testing
    d. Microcytotoxicity Assay
A

a. Flow Cytometric Analysis

183
Q
  1. By which mechanism does the bacterial capsule contribute to the invasiveness of the bacterium?
    A. the bacterium is protected from phagocytosis
    B. None of the choices is correct
    C. responsible for the formation of biofilm
    D. facilitates adhesion of the bacterium to environmental surfaces
A

A. the bacterium is protected from phagocytosis

184
Q
  1. UV lamps are used in controlling bacterial populations in a given area becase
    A. UV rays can burn through the cell membrane of most bacteria
    B. UV rays cause dehydration of bacterial membranes
    C. UV Rays can cause DNA mutations and kill microorgnisms
    D. None of the choices is correct
A

C. UV Rays can cause DNA mutations and kill microorgnisms

185
Q
  1. What cells are involved in humoral immunity?
    a NK cells
    b Cytotoxic t-cells
    c Plasma cells
    d Neutrophils
A

c Plasma cells

186
Q
  1. New cell material is being synthesized at a constant rate, but the new material is itself catalytic, and the mass increases in an exponential manner
    A. Lag Phase
    B. Logarithmic phase
    C. Exponential growth phase
    D. Stationary phase
A

C. Exponential growth phase

187
Q
  1. What vaccine should be given at birth?
    A. DPT
    B. HIB
    c Hep B
    d OPV
A

c Hep B

188
Q

9 A type of culture media which supports the growth of many different bacteria in a given sample
A culture
B differential media
C non selective media
D selective media

A

C non selective media

189
Q
  1. When prescribing antibiotics to patients, it is important to instruct them to take the full course of the drug. Failure of the patient to comply may result in which of the following?
    A. Remaining bacteria may develop resistance to the drug and pass it on to other bacteria during bacterial conjugation
    B. Remaining bacteria may develop resistance to the drug and pass it on to other bacteria during binary fission
    C. Allergic reaction
    D. Total elimination of the infecting microorganism
A

A. Remaining bacteria may develop resistance to the drug and pass it on to other bacteria during bacterial conjugation

190
Q
  1. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that
    A. All of the statements are correct
    B. Are resistant to penicillin due to absence of a cell wall
    C. Have a rigid cell wall
    D. Stain well with Gram’s stain
A

B. Are resistant to penicillin due to absence of a cell wall

191
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding innate immunity?
    A. Involves complement as blood proteins
    B. Skin, mucosa, temperature
    C. High diversity
    D. Phagocytic and NK cells
A

C. High diversity

192
Q
  1. What are the two arms of the immune system?
    A. Innate and Adaptive
    B. Anatomic and Physical
    C. Complement and Phagocytes
    D. Active and Passive
A

A. Innate and Adaptive

193
Q
  1. What product results from gene coding for Hep B be inserted to yeast cells which then will release the molecule to the culture medium?
    a. Conjugate vaccines
    b. Toxoid
    c. Adjuvants
    d. Protein-recombinant antigens
A

d. Protein-recombinant antigens

194
Q
  1. Which hypersensitivity involves autoimmune hemolytic anemia and rheumatic fever?
    a. Type IV
    b. Type III
    c. Type II
    d. Type I
A

c. Type II

195
Q
  1. The bacterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineering is?
    A Serrata
    B Proteus
    C Klebsiella
    D Escherichia
A

D Escherichia

196
Q
  1. Which kind of lymphocytes is involve in cell-mediated immune response?
    A CD6 and CD10
    B CD4 and CD8
    C CD5 and CD9
    D CD3 and CD7
A

B CD4 and CD8

197
Q

18 Growth of a bacterial culture may be maintained in a state of balanced growth over a range of growth rates by the continuous supply of nutrients provided by which of the following?
A distilled water
B chemostat
C incubation
D culture medium

A

D culture medium

198
Q

19 which if the following components is presnet in gram-negative but not in gram- positive bacteria?
a flagella
b peptidoglycan
c capsule
d lipid a

A

d lipid a

199
Q
  1. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are
    a. fungi
    b. bacteriophage
    c. commensals
    d. none of the choices are correct
A

b. bacteriophage

200
Q
  1. The cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by large number of individual particles
    A. Viable cell count
    B. Turbidity
    C. Cell concentration
    D. Biomass density
A

B. Turbidity

201
Q
  1. DNA replication steps in bacteria include the ff: (in order)
    A. initiation, priming, elongation, termination
    B. initiation,elongation, termination
    C. initiation, priming, termination
    D. replication, elongation, termination
A

B. initiation,elongation, termination

202
Q
  1. What immunological test identifies class I MHC molecules?
    A. Western blot or immunoblot
    B. Microcytotoxicity assay
    C. Flow cytometric analysis
    D. Histocompatibility
A

B. Microcytotoxicity assay

203
Q
  1. This interleukin is involved in hematopoiesis.
    A. Interleukin 3
    B. Interleukin 4
    C. Interleukin 2
    D. Interleukin 1
A

D. Interleukin 1

204
Q
  1. Which of the following a characteristic of killed vaccines?
    A. Microorganisms reproduce in the vaccinated person
    B. Not for use in immunocompromised persons
    C. Living pathogens with reduced virulence
    D. Vaccination has to be repeated several times to be effective
A

D. Vaccination has to be repeated several times to be effective

205
Q
  1. This separates the two parent strands of DNA forming the replication fork
    A. Topoisomerase
    B. Helicase
    C. Primase
    D. Histone
A

B. Helicase

206
Q
  1. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritits is a classic example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
    A. Type I
    B. Type IV
    C. Type II
    D. Type III
A

D. Type III

207
Q
  1. What is the most immunodeficiency disorder worldwide?
    A. AIDS
    B. Common Variable Immunodeficiency
    C. Hyper-IgE Immunodeficiency
    D. Selective IgA deficiency
A

A. AIDS

208
Q
  1. Several people were admitted to your unit of diarrhea and vomiting 2 hours after eating spaghetti at a party. None ogf the patients reported any history of fevr. Suprisingly, on lab exam, there were no bact. growth from their food samples. Which of the ff. may explain these findings?
    A. The illness is definitely not caused by bacterial contamination
    B. They could have ingested bacteria actively secreting endotoxins on food
    C. The patients could have ingested preformed exotoxins in her food released by the contaminating bacteria
    D. Food was disinfected before testing
A

C. The patients could have ingested preformed exotoxins in her food released by the contaminating bacteria

209
Q
  1. What immunological test screens HIV?
    A. Radioimmunosassay
    B. Fluorescent antibody tests
    C. Coomb’s test
    D. Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay
A

D. Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay

210
Q
  1. What is an examle of a Natural-Active Immunity?
    A. Pooled human Ig against Hepa A and B
    B. Placental IgG transport, colostrum
    C. Horse anti toxin against botulism
    D. Hepatitis B component vaccine
A

C. Horse anti toxin against botulism

211
Q
  1. What statements is TRUE regarding innate and adaptive immune systems?
    A. complement activates antibodies
    B. innate and adaptive arms interact and augment each other
    C. antibodies activates adaptive and innate responses
    D. antibodies and complement reduces phagocytosis
A

A. complement activates antibodies

212
Q
  1. A complex structure on gram-negative bacterial cell wall containing lipid A and phosphorylated glucosamine disaccharide units
    A. lipoteichoic acid
    B. Lipopolysaccharide
    C. Outer membrane
    D. Teichoic acid
A

B. Lipopolysaccharide

213
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about bacteria is/are true?
    A. Bacterial toxins may be extracellular, such as exotoxins, or are a componentof the bacterial cell membrane or referred to as endotoxins
    B. All of the choices are correct
    C. Invasion of host cells is a complex mechanism that involves elaboration of proteins that facilitate entry.
    D. Virulent bacteria causes disease through the elaboration of proteins that facilitate adherence, persistence, invasion, and toxigenity.
A

B. All of the choices are correct

214
Q
  1. True of bacterial flagella
    A. Used for transfer of bacterial genes
    B. Highly antigenic
    C. Movement is by a whip- like manner
    D. Made of polysaccharide called flagellin
A

B. Highly antigenic

215
Q
  1. True of sporulation
    A. involves enveloping the entire bacterium in a protective layer
    B. can occur in all types of bactteria
    c. Triggered when there is near depleteion of nitrogen and carbon nutrient sources
    D. also called vegetative state of bacteria
A

c. Triggered when there is near depleteion of nitrogen and carbon nutrient sources

216
Q
  1. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during
    a. stationary
    b log
    c. lag phase
    d. decline
A

b log

217
Q
  1. Prokaryotic cells have their main genetic material identified as which of the following
    A. Nucleus
    B. Ribosomes
    C. Nucleoid
    D. Plasmid
A

C. Nucleoid

218
Q

39.Which hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE and histamine, prostaglandin and thromboxane
A. Type II
B. Type I
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

B. Type I

219
Q
  1. Genes that encode virulence factors may be transferred by whuch following means?
    A.Plasmid
    B. None of the choice are correct
    C. Both bacteriophage and plasmid
    D. Bacteriophage
A

C. Both bacteriophage and plasmid

220
Q
  1. Which is an example of immune complex hypersensitivity reaction?
    A. Intestinal Allergy To Fish
    B. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
    C. Good Pasture Syndrome
    D. Nickel Contact Dermatitis
A

B. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

221
Q
  1. True of biofilms
    A. Facilitates transfer of genetic material between intimately attached bacteria
    B. Promotes metabolic diversity
    C. Bacteria within the biofilm are protected from immune cells and antibiotics
    D. AOTA
A

C. Bacteria within the biofilm are protected from immune cells and antibiotics

222
Q
  1. Which is an example of an artificial- active immunity?
    A. Horse anti-toxin against botulism
    B. Hepatitis B component vaccine
    C. Pooled human Ig against Hep A and B
    D. Colostrum
A

B. Hepatitis B component vaccine

223
Q

44.True of bacterial DNA replication
A. Replication proceeds in both directions
B. All of the choices are correct
C. The bacterial DNA completely separates into two strands prior to replication
D. Helicase relaxes the DNA coils during termination

A

C. The bacterial DNA completely separates into two strands prior to replication

224
Q
  1. Lipopolysaccharides and Muramyl dipeptide are examples of?
    A. conjugate vaccines
    B. Toxoids
    C. Adjuvants
A

C. Adjuvants

225
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true regarding live vaccines?
    A. Given as a single dose
    B. Induces antibody but poor T cell responses
    C. Tend to be less stable
    D. Possess risk of spread of infection to unvaccinated individuals
A

B. Induces antibody but poor T cell responses

226
Q

47 What hypersensitivity reaction presents as contact dermatitis due to antibacterial ointment that contains neomycin?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

A

D. Type 4

227
Q
  1. Measured directly by determining the dry weight of a microbial culture after it has been washed with distilled water.
    A. None of the choices is correct
    B. Turbidity
    C. Viable cell count
    D. Biomass density
A

D. Biomass density

228
Q
  1. During the process of oxidative phosphorylation, the energy of the proton motive force is used to generate the following
    A. ADP
    B. NADH
    C. ATP
    D. NADPH
A

C. ATP

229
Q

50.AIDS suppresses this immune resulting to overwhelming infections
A. Cytokines production
B. Immune tolerance
C. Humoral immune response
D. Cell-mediated immune response

A

D. Cell-mediated immune response

230
Q
  1. Extrachromosomal bacterial genetic elements which may be shared with other bacteria capable of imparting special properties such as antibiotic resistance.
    a. DNA
    b. Nucleolus
    c. Nucleoid
    d. Plasmid
A

d. Plasmid

231
Q
  1. Endotoxin produced by gram negative bacteria is present in
    A. Teichoic acid
    B. All of the choices are correct
    C. lipoteichoic acid
    D. Lipopolysaccharide
A

D. Lipopolysaccharide

232
Q
  1. What is TRUE of Live vaccines
    a. Can be prooduced from fully virulent microorganisms
    b. Induced antibody but poor T-cell responses
    c. Tend to be more stable
    d. Adjuvant not required
A

d. Adjuvant not required

233
Q
  1. While assisting in a delicate procedure, your consultant instructed you to ensure to keep yourself, the operating field and all instruments from microorganisms. This is also known as?
    a. antiseptic
    b. aseptic
    c. preservation
    d. septic
A

b. aseptic

234
Q
  1. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by
    A. conjugation
    B. Biofilm
    C. Quorum sensing
    D. Binary-fission
A

D. Binary-fission

235
Q
  1. What characteristics does the Purified capsular polysaccharide has?
    A. Bacterial toxins detoxified by formaldehyde treatment that still retain their immunogen function
    B. Increases the immunogenicity of an antigen when administered with it
    C. The molecule is purified and used as the immunogen of the vaccine
    D. T-cell independent that do not stimulate antibody production in children younger than two years of age
A

D. T-cell independent that do not stimulate antibody production in children younger than two years of age

236
Q

57 which of the following bacteria has the capacity to undergo sporulation
a. all of the choices are correct
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Clostridium perfringens

A

a. all of the choices are correct

237
Q
  1. What is the most common serious primary immune deficiency disorder in adults?
    A. Hyper-IgE Immunodeficiency
    B. Selective IgA Deficiency
    C. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
    D. Common Variable Immunodeficiency
A

D. Common Variable Immunodeficiency

238
Q
  1. Infant s born to hepatitis B positive mothers should receive
    A. Hepatitis B immune globulin within 12 hours
    B. Hepatitis B vaccine 5 ml
    C. Sylimarin solution for 2 months
    D. Hepatitis A vaccine 0.5ml
A

A. Hepatitis B immune globulin within 12 hours

239
Q
  1. True statement about exotoxins
    A. Integral part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
    B. Is found in tissue only in the presence of live bacteria
    C. Usually do not produce fever in the host
    D. Found only in gram- negative bacteria
A

B. Is found in tissue only in the presence of live bacteria

240
Q
  1. Which is an example of Natural Passive Immunity?
    A. Placental IgG transport
    B. Pooled human Ig against Hep A and B
    C. Hepatitis B component vaccine
    D. Horse anti-toxin against botulism
A

A. Placental IgG transport

241
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of Artificial Active Immunity?
    a. Hep B Immunoglobulin
    b. Mumps, Measles and Rubella vaccine
    c. Colostrum
    d. Diphtheria vaccine
A

d. Diphtheria vaccine

DPaT- Diphtheria, Pertusis, Tetanus

242
Q
  1. The ____ is the site of the carrier lipids on which the subunits of the cell wall are assembled
    a. nucleus
    b. peptidoglycan layer
    c. cell membrane
    d. cell wall
A

b. peptidoglycan layer

243
Q
  1. An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirements for sodium chloride resembles
    A. Psychrophils
    B. Halophiles
    C. Thermophiles
    D. Mesophiles
A

B. Halophiles

244
Q

65 A facultative anaerobic is
a. only grow anaerobically
b. none of the choices is correct
c. ordinarily an aerobe but can grow in absence of O2
d. only grow in the presence of O2

A

c. ordinarily an aerobe but can grow in the absence of O2.

Facultative anaerobes are microorganisms that can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. They preferentially use oxygen when it’s available, but can switch to anaerobic metabolism if oxygen is absent.

245
Q

66 the growth rate of bacteria is described as
a. geometric
b. linear
c. exponential
d. additive

A

c. exponential

246
Q

67 what are the immunological tests detect anti-RBC antibodies in hemolytic anemia and Rh incompatabilities?
A. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
b. radioimmunoassay
c. fluorescent antibody tests
d. coombs test

A

d. coombs test

247
Q
  1. the which of the following is an example of a killed vaccine?
    a. Polio (salk)
    b. Measles
    c. Rubella
    d. Mumps
A

a. Polio (salk)

248
Q
  1. True of endotoxins
    A. Found only in Gram- negative bacteria
    B. Excreted by living cells
    C. Produce by both Gram- positive and Gram- negative bacteria
    D. Are non-antigenic
A

A. Found only in Gram- negative bacteria

249
Q
  1. Which of the following are true
    A. Decline phase, Zero net growth
    B. all of the choices are correct
    C. lag phase, negative net growth
    D. exponentional phase, constant growth
A

B. all of the choices are correct

250
Q
  1. Which cytokine has anti-viral property?
    A. IFN a
    B. TNF B
    C. TNF a
    D. IFN y
A

A. IFN a

251
Q
  1. You have suffered a hypersensitivity reaction that needed the use of antihistamine and corticosteroids, what reaction could it be?
    A. Type III HPS
    B. Type IV HPS
    C. Type II HPS
    D. Type I HPS
A

D. Type I HPS

252
Q
  1. Rod-like structures called ____ or hair- like structures called ____ facilitate attachment of bacteria to host cells
    A. Flagella, Fimbriae
    B. Pili, Flagella
    C. Fimbriae, Pili
    D. Pili, Fimbriae
A

A. Flagella, Fimbriae

253
Q
  1. What immunological test that is used for confirmation of HIV infection?
    A. Flow cytometric analysis
    B. Histocompatibility testing
    C. Western blot or immunoblot
    D. Microcytotoxicity assay
A

C. Western blot or immunoblot

254
Q
  1. Recombination processes occuring through the mediation phages is:
    A. Conjunction
    B. transduction
    C. transformation
    D. Conjugation
A

B. transduction.

Transduction is the process by which bacterial DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus (specifically, a bacteriophage).

255
Q
  1. What is not a complication of vaccination?
    A. Teratogenic property of live vaccines
    B. allergic effects
    C. virulent infectious material in the vaccines
    D. Malnutrition
A

D. Malnutrition

256
Q
  1. Multiple polar flagella
    A. lophotrichous
    B. peritrichous
    C. amphitrichous
    D. monotrichous
A

A. lophotrichous.

Lophotrichous bacteria have a tuft of flagella at one end or pole of the cell.

257
Q
  1. Which of the following terms does not describe the bacterial chromosome?
    A. NOTA
    B. Haploid
    C. Circular
    D. Diploid
A

D. Diploid

258
Q
  1. True of pili
    A. May contain single or multiple types of pilin
    B. Movement is by rotary motion
    C. They are long flexible surface appendages on Gram-negative bacteria
    D. Composed of structural polysaccharides called pilin
A

C. They are long flexible surface appendages on Gram-negative bacteria

259
Q
  1. What is a complex and precisely regulated inducible defense mechanism that allows the specific discrimination between self and non self
    A. immune paralysis
    B. immune tolerance
    C. immune response
    D. hypersensitivity
A

C. immune response

260
Q
  1. Which of the ff involves the prevention of an immune response to a particular antigen?
    A. immune tolerance
    B. immune paralysis
    C. immune modulation
    D. immune prophylaxis
A

A. immune tolerance

261
Q

82.Which of the following allows the identificationof bacteria through gram staining?
A. Glycocalyx
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Peptidolycan layers
D. Cell membrane

A

C. Peptidolycan layers

262
Q
  1. Which cytokine is involved in cell activation, fever, and cachexia and has anti- tumor property?
    A. TNF-a
    B. IFN B
    C. IFN a
    D. TNF B
A

A. TNF-a

263
Q
  1. Which of the following is/ are used to determine the rate of growth of bacteria
    A. Biomass concentration
    B. time
    C. all of the choices are correct
    D. Growth rate constant
A

C. all of the choices are correct

264
Q
  1. On retrieving the reports from the laboratory, you noted that it mentioned anaerobic organisms. Which of the following would support the growth of the organism in your patient?
    A. All of the statements are correct
    B. suturing the contaminated wound
    C. Doing open dressing of the wound
    D. Giving appropriate antibiotics
A

B. suturing the contaminated wound

265
Q
  1. Which of the following structure is not part of the bacterial cell envelope?
    A. Peptidoglycan
    B. Capsule
    C. Gas Vacuole
    D. Lipopolysaccharide
A

C. Gas Vacuole

266
Q
  1. On the growth curve, this represents a period during which cells, depleted of metabolites and enzymes as the result of the unfavorable conditions that existed at the end of their new environment?
    A. Logarithmic Growth Phase
    B. Stationary phase
    C. Logarithmic decline phase
    D. Lag Phase
A

D. Lag Phase

267
Q
  1. which cell is involved in cell-mediated immunity
    a. neutrophil
    b. monoctye
    c. b cell
    d. t cell
A

d. t cell

268
Q
  1. Gram positive bacteria are seen as _____ on gram staining
    A. Purple
    B. Pink
    C. Red
    D. Any of the colors
A

A. Purple

269
Q
  1. Which is an example of an innate immune system?
    A. Fever
    B. Lymph nodes
    C. Spleen
    D. Antibodies
A

A. Fever

270
Q
  1. Which interleukin is involved in cell activation and fever?
    A. Interleukin 4
    B. Interleukin 2
    C. Interleukin 1
    D. Interleukin 3
A

C. Interleukin 1

271
Q

3.Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the immune system arm that involves T and B Lymphocytes and antigen presenting cells?
A. It is self-limiting
B. It has skin involvement
C. It has self vs. non-self distinction
D. It is specific

A

B. It has skin involvement

272
Q
  1. Which is true regarding active immunization?
    A. Uses homologous sera
    B. stimulated by administration of vaccines to develop a disease-specific immunity
    C. Immunity obtained by this method is limited to a few weeks
    D. Involves administration of antibodies produced in a different host
A

B. stimulated by administration of vaccines to develop a disease-specific immunity

273
Q
  1. The results when there is diminished host reactivity when induced with large doses of antigen?
    A. Immune tolerance
    B. Immune prophylaxis
    C. Immune modulation
    D. Immune paralysis
A

A. Immune tolerance

274
Q

6 What is an example of Artificial-Passive Immunity?
A. Pooled human Ig against Hepa A&B
B. Horse anti-toxin against botulism
C. Hepatitis B component vaccine
D. Placental IgG transport

A

A. Pooled human Ig against Hepa A&B

275
Q
  1. There is slow loss of cells though death, which is balanced with the formation of new cells through growth and division.
    A. Lag phase
    B. Stationary phase
    C. Exponential growth phase
    D. Logarithmic decline phase
A

B. Stationary phase

276
Q
  1. which of the following immunodeficiencies is the most common primary immunodeficiency in adults
    A. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
    B. Common Variable immunodeficiency
    C. Selective IgA deficiency
    D. Hyper- IgE immunodeficiency
A

C. Selective IgA deficiency

277
Q
  1. Which of the following hypersensitivity presents as Atropy?
    A. Type III
    B. Type I
    C. Type II
    D. Type IV
A

B. Type I

278
Q
  1. What is the most important response in toxin-induced disorders?
    a. cytokine production
    b. cell-mediated immune response
    c. immune tolerance
    d. humoral immune response
A

a. cytokine production

279
Q

Nucleoid
Cell wall
Plasmid
Ribosomes
Capsule

A
  1. Nucleoid - E
  2. Cell wall - B
  3. Plasmid - D
  4. Ribosomes - C
  5. Capsule - A
280
Q

Matching Type:
I. Gram stain
II. Acid fast stain
III. Negative stain
IV. Staining of nucleoids
V. Spore stain

A. Carbolfuchsin
B. Crystal violet
C. Nigrosin
D. Malachite green
E. Schiff’s reagent

A

I. Gram stain - B. Crystal violet

The Gram stain involves the use of crystal violet as the primary stain to differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on the composition of their cell walls.

II. Acid fast stain - A. Carbolfuchsin

Acid-fast stain, commonly known as the Ziehl-Neelsen stain, uses carbolfuchsin as the primary dye. It’s used to stain acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

III. Negative stain - C. Nigrosin

Negative staining is a method where the background, rather than the cell itself, is stained. Nigrosin is a commonly used negative stain, making the cells appear as clear objects against a dark background.

IV. Staining of nucleoids - E. Schiff’s reagent

Schiff’s reagent is used in the Feulgen stain method to stain DNA, making it a tool for highlighting nucleoids in cells.

V. Spore stain - D. Malachite green

The spore staining method uses malachite green to stain endospores of certain bacteria. These are highly resistant structures produced by some bacterial species.

281
Q

Purpose of this stain is to study the morphological structure and shape of the bacteria
a. Negative stain
b. Acid fast
c. Gram stain
d. NOTA

A

c. Gram stain

282
Q

28-year old suspected TB
a. Feulgen
b. Gram Staining
c. Acid fast
d. NOTA

A

c. Acid fast

283
Q

Part of the cell responsible for conjugation
a. Cell wall
b. Ribosome
c. Nucleoid
d. Pili

A

d. Pili

284
Q
  1. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a classic example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
    a. Type I
    b. Type II
    c. Type III
    d. Type IV
A

c. Type III

285
Q
  1. An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirements for sodium chloride resembles
    a. Acidophiles
    b. Mesophiles
    c. Halophiles
    d. Psychrophiles
A

c. Halophiles

286
Q
  1. These are organisms that can survive freezer temperature.
    a. Mesophiles
    b. Psychrophiles
    c. Thermophiles
    d. None of the above
A

b. Psychrophiles

○ Psychrophiles (cold loving): 15-20°C -These organisms can survive even a freezer temperature
○ Mesophiles: 25-40°C
○ Thermophiles (heat loving): 50-60°C

287
Q

Bacteria which thrive and proliferate in pH 5.4-8.5.
a. Acid Labile
b. Alkaliphile
c. Acid Stable
d. Neutrophile

A

d. Neutrophile

288
Q
  1. These organisms are killed by atmospheric concentration of O2 (21%)
    a. Strict/ Obligate Aerobes
    b. Strict/ Obligate Anaerobes
    c. Aerotolerant Aerobes
    d. Facultative Aerobes
A

b. Strict/ Obligate Anaerobes

289
Q

These organisms must ingest preformed carbon molecules, such as carbohydrates and lipids, synthesized by other organisms. They do, however, still obtain energy from the oxidation of inorganic molecules.
a. Chemoautotrophs
b. Photoheterotrophs
c. Chemoheterotrophs
d. Chemotrophs

A

a. Chemoautotrophs

Chemoautotrophs can synthesize their own organic molecules using CO2 as the carbon source (i.e., they are autotrophic in terms of carbon source). However, they obtain energy from the oxidation of inorganic molecules (chemotrophy) rather than from light.

290
Q
  1. Versatile organisms capable of growth under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
    a. Strict/ Obligate Aerobes
    b. Strict/ Obligate Anaerobes
    c. Aerotolerant Aerobes
    d. Facultative Aerobes
A

d. Facultative Aerobes

291
Q

Which of the ff is not true regarding live vaccines
a. Given as single dose
b. Induces antibody but poor T cell responses
c. Tend to be less stable
d. Possess risk of spread of infection to unvaxxed individuals

A

b. Induces antibody but poor T cell responses

Live vaccines tend to induce both strong antibody and T cell responses.

292
Q

Which of the ff bacteria has the capacity to undergo sporulation
a. AOTA
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Clostridium difficle
d. Clostridium perfringes

A

a. AOTA

The capacity to undergo sporulation is a characteristic of some bacteria, allowing them to survive in harsh conditions.

293
Q
  1. True about exotoxins
    a. Integral part of cell wall of gram negative bacteria
    b. Found in tissue only in the presence of live bacteria
    c. Usually not produce fever in host
    d. Found only in gram negative bacteria
A

c. Usually not produce fever in host

Exotoxins primarily target specific cells or functions in the host. It’s the endotoxins (from gram-negative bacteria) that are more commonly associated with inducing fever.

294
Q

What is not a complication of vaccination?
a. Teratogenic property of live vaccines
b. Allergic effects
c. Virulent infectious material in the vaccines
d. Malnutrition

A

d. Malnutrition

295
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction wherein ABO incompatibility or complement-mediated lysis belongs to?
a. Type III HPS
b. Type IV HPS
c. Type I HPS
d. Type II HPS

A

d. Type II HPS

295
Q
  1. What product results from gene coding for Hep B be inserted to yeast cells which then will release the molecule to the culture medium?
    a. Conjugate vaccines
    b. Toxoid
    c. Adjuvants
    d. Protein-recombinant antigens
A

d. Protein-recombinant antigens

When the gene coding for Hepatitis B is inserted into yeast cells, the yeast cells will produce the Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg). This produced antigen is then harvested from the culture medium and used as a vaccine. This is an example of a recombinant protein vaccine.

296
Q

RNA polymerase forms a single polyribonucleotide strand called mRNA using DNA as a template.
A. Replication
B. Translation
C. Splicing
D. Transcription

A

D. Transcription

296
Q

The process by which mRNA directs protein…
A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. Replication
D. Post-transcriptional modification

A

A. Translation

296
Q

Each time a cell divides, each of its double strands of DNA splits into 2 splits into 2 single strands. Each of these single strands acts as a template for a new strand of complementary DNA. As a result, each new cell has its own complete genome.
A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. Replication
D. Post-transcriptional modification

A

C. Replication

296
Q

This method of DNA sequencing interrupts elongation of DNA sequences by incorporating dideoxynucleotides into the sequences
a. Maxam-gilbert technique
b. Oxford nanopore sequencing
c. pacBio SMRT sequencing
d. Sanger (dideoxy termination) method

A

d. Sanger (dideoxy termination) method

Rationale:
The Sanger (dideoxy termination) method of DNA sequencing is based on the selective incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) by DNA polymerase during in vitro DNA replication. As replication proceeds, every time a ddNTP is incorporated, it causes termination of that particular growing DNA chain. By analyzing the lengths of the terminated DNA fragments, one can determine the sequence of the original DNA strand. The other methods listed do not utilize the incorporation of dideoxynucleotides in the same way.

297
Q

The following are true of horizontal gene transfer except
a. DNA can be transferred from one organism to another and that DNA can be stably incorporated in the recipient permanently changing its genetic composition
b. It is also called lateral gene transfer and is generally defined as exchange of genetic information between contemporary organisms
c. Transfer of genetic material from parental organism to property
d. There are 3 mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria: transformation, transduction and conjugation

A

c. Transfer of genetic material from parental organism to progeny

Rationale:
Horizontal gene transfer (HGT) involves the movement of genetic material between different species, rather than from parent to offspring, which is vertical gene transfer. Option c describes vertical gene transfer, not horizontal gene transfer.

297
Q

This mechanism mediating efficient movement of DNA between cells requires donor cell-to-recipient cell contact to transfer only 1 strand of DNA. The recipient completes the structure of dsDNA by synthesizing the strand that complements the strand acquired from the donor
a. conjugation
b. transduction
c. transformation
d. transcription

A

a. conjugation

Rationale:
Conjugation is a mechanism in bacteria where DNA is transferred directly from a donor cell to a recipient cell through a specialized structure called the pilus. Only one strand of the DNA is transferred to the recipient, and the recipient cell then synthesizes the complementary strand to form a double-stranded DNA molecule. The other options do not involve direct cell-to-cell contact or transfer of a single DNA strand in the manner described.

298
Q
A
298
Q
A
298
Q
A
299
Q
A
299
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A

MICRO / PARA (DUMP) (12 decks)

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