Law FINAL Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Transfer of malice

A

When the guilty mind/ MENS RAE gets transferred from one person/ object to another
Only relates to same offence situations
(e.g. Assault and assault. Porperty damage and property damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Larceny ELEMENTS

A

Elements TTBFWWI
- The accused
- Took and carried away property
- Belonging to another
- Fraudulently
- Without lawful right
- Without consent
- Intent to permanently deprive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Doctrine of recent possession

A

Allows the court to make the inference that the possessor of the property had
- Knowledge that the property was stolen
- No reasonable explanation
- Near the location of the offence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Goods in custody (Crimes act 1900 s 527)

A

Goods in custody charges only require the prosecution to show that a reasonable person would suspect they were stolen. Example: buying a TV off someone on the street or buying something with tags still on them. Not necessary to prove goods are actually stolen or the accused knows they are stolen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Receiving (Crimes act 19009 s 188)

A

Must be proven that the accused knew the goods were stolen at the time they were received. Example: Friend steals a phone from the store and sells it to another friend.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Break and Enter and commit SIO (Crimes Act s112) ELEMENTS

A
  • The Accused TBEDC
  • Breaks (constructive or actual)
  • Enters (outside to inside)
  • Dwelling (house or other building intended for occupation)
  • Commits serious indictable offence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mental health when to section 22 someone?

A

Apprehend the person and take the person to a declared mental health facility if you believe on reasonable grounds that:
- Committing/ recently committed an offence
- Recently attempted to kill themselves
- Probable that the person will attempt to kill themselves or other persons
- Attempt to cause serious physical harm to themselves or another person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mental illness vs mental disorder

A

Mental illness: Diagnosed medical condition (seriously impairs the mental functioning) that requires care/ management to protect from harm
Mental disorder: Temporary irrational behaviour that requires care/ management. May be temporary from a recent traumatic event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Strict liability

A

Do not require to prove intent, knowledge or negligence (men’s are) . Need only to prove actus reus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Children in relation to crimes

A

Dolic Incapax: 10 -14 years old. The child is incapable of committing a crime due to a lack of understanding of the difference between right and wrong. Prefrontal cortex doesn’t stop developing until mid 20’s

Age of criminal responsibility: 10 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Indictable offences

A

Indictable offences (both minor and serious) that may be treated/ health with summarily
TABLE 1: Dealt with in local court unless prosecution or defence elect to have the matter heard in district/ supreme court
- GBH, Robbery, larceny/ damage to property >$5000
TABLE 2: Dealt with in local court unless Proesuction elects to have the matter heard in distrcit/ supreme court
- Unregistered firearm, ABH, larceny/ damage to property <$5000

STRICTLY INDICATBLE: Must be dealt with in District/ Supreme court. Such as murder, kidnapping, mansalughter, dangerous driving occasioning death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Statute of limitations

A

Maximum time after an event within which legal proceedings may be initiated.
Summary offences: 6 months
Indictable: No limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Use of force sections

A

Section 230: Use of force generally by police officers. Police of people helping to use reasonably necessary force
Section 231: Use of force in making arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Use of force must be:

A
  • Reasonable: Operating in lawful capacity
  • Necessary: To gain compliance or execution of lawful function
  • Proportionate: To the level of resistance of the POI
  • Appropriate: Approved tactical options model, use of force guidelines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Excessive force

A
  • Any force when non is needed
  • More force than is needed
  • Any level of force continuing after the threat has been removed
  • Knowingly wrongful use of force
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Duty of care

A

Taking all reasonable steps to avoid acts or omissions which could be reasonably foreseen to harm people or their property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Negligence

A

FAILURE TO EXERCISE REASONABLE CARE. Either not doing something that should have been done or doing something that should not have been done. The risk was FORESEEABLE.
Where a reasonable person would have taken precautions in the circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Civil liability

A

Police are not liable for any injury or damage caused by any act or omission while acting in good faith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Domestic violence: Personal violences

A
  • Intimate images
  • Breach of AVO
  • Assault (all manners of)
  • Damage to property
  • Guns
  • Attempt at any
  • Stalking/ intimidation
    Other offences (e.g break, enter commit SIO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Domestic violence: Domestic relationship

A
  • Married
  • Intimate (sexual)
  • Same household
  • Same residential facility
  • De facto
  • Ongoing dependence
  • Relative
  • ATSI
21
Q

ADVO and APVO

A

Apprehended Domestic Violence order (ADVO’s) are to protect people in domestic relationships
Apprehended Personal Violence order (APVO’s) are to protect people not in domestic relationships such as neighbours, work colleagues)

22
Q

Four types of AVO’s

A
  • Provisional
  • Interim
  • Non-urgent
  • Final
23
Q

Provisional AVO

A
  • Police applicant - there are immediate fears for the safety of the victim/ PINOP
  • May be granted by senior police (Sargeant or above)
  • Enforceable the minute it has been served (advise VKG)
  • Crimes Act s 27: Obligation to apply for a provisional order
  • Officer believes or suspects that a DVO, stalking/ intimidation, child abuse recently been or is being committed, imminent or is likely to be committed
  • Need to be made immediately to ensure the safety and protection of the person or to prevent damage to any property
  • Remains in force until revoke/ withdraw/ dismissed or interim or final order is served
24
Q

Interim AVO

A

(court order)
- An Interim AVO is an order made by the Court where the Court agrees that it is necessary or appropriate for someone to have temporary protection.
- Where a Provisional AVO has been made, it will automatically become an Interim AVO

25
Q

Non-urgent AVO

A
  • Is not an order, but a summons to appear before the court for an application to seek an order
  • Usually applied for in the event that a provisional order has been declined, or there are no immediate fears for a person’s safety
  • Can be applied for by PINOP (subject to age) at a Local Court
26
Q

Final AVO

A
  • A final apprehended violence order remains in force for such period as is specified in the order by the court
  • If the court fails to specify a period regarding a Personal violence order, the order remains in force for a period of 12 months after the date the order is made
  • If the court fails to specify a period regarding a Domestic Violence order, the order remains in force for a period of 2 years after the date the order is made
27
Q

Proper announcement (before entry)

A
  • Make presence known
  • Announce office
  • State purpose
  • Allow adequate time to comply/ reply
28
Q

Stalking/ intimidation

A

Stalking: following, watching or frequenting the vicinity of persons residence/ business/ work/ social activity, contact using the internet or technology
Intimidation: Conduct ammounting to harassment/ molestation, by any means that causes person to fear for their safety, or causes reasonable apprehension of injury, violence, property damage in domestic relationships

Apprehension: anxiety or fear that something bad or unpleasant will happen.

29
Q

Stalking/ intimidation ELEMENTS

A
  • The accused
  • Stalks or intimidates
  • Another person (victim)
  • Intending to cause fear
  • Physical or mental harm
  • To the victim, or a person with whom victim has domestic relationship
30
Q

The cycle of domestic relationship

A

BSE RPH
- BUILD UP (Increasing tension, harassment, arguments)
- STAND OVER (increased level of control and threats, increased fears)
- EXPLOSION (Extreme abuse, aggression and violence, damaging property)
- REMORSE (Attempt to justify, minimise actions, blame victims, threaten self harm)
- PURSUIT (Promise it wont happen again, blame other factors such as substance abuse)
- HONEYMOON ( Return to courting stage, increased caring, romance, attention

31
Q

First responder duties at a DVO

A

AIRPF
- Arrest (lawful)
- Investigate
- Render first aid
- Prevent further commission of offence
- Firearm enquiries

32
Q

DVSAT

A

Domestic violence safety assessment tool
Part A (if intimate)
- Violence towards victim
- Relationship with victim
- Background information of accused
- Sexual behaviours
- Presence of children

Part B For all DV incidents (non intimate) Allows officer to use professional judgement for threat level

33
Q

Men’s Telephone Counselling Referral Service (MTCRS)

A

All adult males who are the defendants named in a police ADVO application and/or DV criminal charges and where the victim of the incident is aged over 16 years old will be automatically referred to MTCRS.
Who will not be referred
- Female defendants
- Male defendants who have not been charged or had an ADVO applied for / issued against them
- Male defendants under the age of 18
- Male defendants where the only victim is under the age of 16 years.

34
Q

Traffic ELEMENTS

A
  • Driver
  • Motor vehicle
  • Road/road related area
  • Elements of the specific offence
35
Q

Crashes MAJOR

A

KILLED, LEFT, DRUGS N ALCOHOL

  • Was any person KILLED or INJURED
  • Did any of the drivers LEAVE THE SCENE without providing their details
  • was the driver involved UNDER THE INFLUENCE of alcohol or other drugs
36
Q

Crashes MINOR

A

(may require police attendance)
- Hazards on the road
- Traffic obstruction
- Heavy vehicle crash (requiring towing)
- Someone requesting police attendance, help

37
Q

Traffic accident first responder duties

A
  • Attend, asses and advise
  • Attend to the welfare of the injured
  • Identify drivers and witnesses
  • Breath test drivers where possible
  • Identify first point of impact
  • Ensure flow of traffic
  • Investigate and record details
  • Identify who is at fault and deal with relevant legislation
38
Q

Breath test PASSIVE

A

(No tube)
- Initial test at RBT for rapid processing
- Indication of PRESENCE of alcohol, not concentration
- If positive do standard test

39
Q

Breath test STANDARD

A

(Tube attached)
- Must be performed before sobriety assessment
- After positive passive
- Suspsect driver has consumed alcohol
- Windy conditions
- Collisions
If positive arrest for breath test analysis

40
Q

Breath test when….

A
  • RBT
  • Collisions
  • Manner of driving
  • Traffic offence
41
Q

When you cant breath test..

A
  • Driver is admitted to hospital where blood sample is taken and the doctor says no
  • Due to injury or illness and it would be dangerous to their condition
  • 2 HOURS expiration after collision
  • At place of abode
42
Q

PCA ranges (Road transport act s 108)

A

Novice - 0.001-0.019
Special - 0.020 - 0.049
Low - 0.050 - 0.079
Middle - 0.080 - 0.149
High - >0.150

43
Q

Sobriety Assessment

A

If negative standard and suspect intoxication/ use of drugs, conduct a sobriety assessment
- No physical challenges, observations only, ask about any meds/ diabetes
- Observations: Eyes, speech, sweating, balance, behaviour
If fail, arrest for purpose of obtaining blood/ urine sample at hospital (cl 14)

44
Q

Novice range applies to

A
  • Learner license holders
  • Provisional P1 and P2 licence holders
  • Unlicenced drivers who have NEVER held a licence of any kind in Australia
45
Q

Special range applies to

A
  • Driver whos licence has been refused, cancelled, disqualified, suspended, or expired (more than 6 months)
  • Driver of public passenger vehicle (bus, taxi, uber, coach 8+ people, driver of heavy motor vehicle)
46
Q

Blood/ urine sample

A

Blood samples taken in hospital (cl11)
- Medical practitioner to take blood (no time limit - advised within 12 hours)
- >15 years old
- MANDATORY after collisions
- NO BREATH testing after blood/uring sample taken

47
Q

Traffic Infringments: how many at a time?

A

How many PIN at a time? 1
How many TIN at a time? 4

Exceptions:
- Unregistered and uninsured = 1
- Not produce licence = 0

48
Q

Licence classes

A

R – motorcycle/ scooters
C – 4.5 tonne GVM, up to 12 adults, trailer up to 9 tonne GVM
LR – 4.5-8 tonne GVM, up to 12 adults, trailer up to 9 tonne GVM
MR – >8 tonne GVM, 2 or more axles, trailer up to 9 tonne GVM
HR – >8 tonne GVM, 3 or more axles, trailer up to 9 tonne GVM.
Includes buses
HC – Prime mover attached to semi-trailer, Trailer GVM > 9tonnes
MC – B-double or road train

49
Q
A