Law

Question 1

What are Class Of Dangerous Goods?

Answer 1

1. Class 1: Explosives
2. Class 2: Gases
3. Class 3: Flammable liquid
4. Class 4: Flammable solid
5. Class 5: Oxidising substances
6. Class 6: Poisonous substances/ infectious substances.
7. Class 7: Radio active Material
8. Class 8: Corrosive
9. Class 9: miscellaneous substances and articles.

Question 2

Cat C speeds?

Answer 2

Initial app: 240-160
Final app: 160-115
Circling: 180
Missed app: 240
Category 121-140

Question 3

Maximum SID speed and A of B?

Answer 3

265kts and 15’ a of b.

Question 4

Cat C circling area and data?

Answer 4

4.20nm.
Obstacle clearance 394ft.
Speed 180kts.

Question 5

What is the terrain clearance and climb gradient on a Missed Approach?

Answer 5

Normal procedures are based on the nominal missed approach climb gradient of 2.5%. Terrain clearance is 98ft.

Question 6

Wake turbulence separation? With lead A/C A380.

Answer 6

A380: 4nm
Heavy: 6nm
Medium: 7nm
Light: 8nm

Question 7

Wake turbulence separation? Lead A/C Heavy.

Answer 7

Heavy: 4nm
Medium: 5nm
Light: 6nm

Question 8

4.12.1 Except where wake turbulence is a factor, when radar separation is being applied between controlled flights the minimum horizontal separation is 5NM. This may be reduced in the following circumstances:

Answer 8

a) When aircraft are operating within controlled airspace within 60NM, of either Auckland, Ohakea, Wellington, or Christchurch aerodromes, the standard may be reduced to MNM 3NM; or
b) When aircraft are operating within controlled airspace within 60NM of Te Weraiti SSR site, the standard may be reduced to MNM 3NM
c) When aircraft on reciprocal tracks have passed and their radar position symbols have separated, radar separation exists.

Question 9

In class C airspace is IFR separated from VFR?

Answer 9

Yes VFR is separated by day and night. VFR is not separated from IFR aircraft in class D day or night but are separated during SVFR operations when visibility is less than 5NM

Question 10

Can you maintain your own visual separation in Class C airspace?

Answer 10

Yes

Question 11

Max holding speed for Cat C aircraft?
14,000ft and below, 
Above 14,000ft up to 20,000ft,
Above 20,000ft up to 34,000ft,
Above 34,000ft.

Answer 11

14,000ft and below
230kt* 280

Above, 14,000ft up to 20,000ft
240kt Lesser of 280kt or M 0.8

Above 20,000ft up to 34,000ft
265k Lesser of 280kt or M 0.8

Above 34,000ft
M 0.83 M 0.83

• When the holding pattern is followed by the initial segment of an instrument approach that has been designed at a higher speed than 230kts, the higher speed applies

Question 12

Outbound timing for holds above and below 14000ft?

Answer 12

3.3.4 Outbound timing begins at the end of the turn onto the outbound leg or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later. The outbound track must then be flown:

a) For one minute if at 14,000ft or below, or for one and a half minutes if above 14,000ft; or
b) Until the appropriate limiting distance is attained, where distance is specified.

3.3..5 When clearance is received specifying the time of departure from the holding point, the pilot should adjust his pattern within the limits of the established holding procedure in order to leave the holding point at the time specified.

Turns o o 3.3.6 All turns are to be made at a 25 , or at a rate of 3 per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.

Wind Allowance 3.3.7 All procedures depict tracks and pilots should attempt to maintain track by making allowance for known wind by applying corrections both to heading and timing during entry and while flying in the holding pattern.

Question 13

Min climb gradient on a SID if not published?

Answer 13

3.3% or 200ft/Nm

Question 14

What timing would you use for a 45 procedure turn?

Answer 14

1min 15secs for cat C and D.

Question 15

Is it possible to cruise in the transition layer?

Answer 15

The levels between 13,000ft and FL150 are not available for level flight, unless authorized by ATC for flights within controlled airspace. Flights operating outside controlled airspace and under IFR may use any level between 13,000ft and FL150 provided they are unable to operate outside that range, have established that there is no conflict with other aircraft, and have given prior notification of the altitude to be flown to an ATS unit.

Question 16

Is separation provided between IFR and VFR in class D airspace?

Answer 16

No, only wake turbulence separation is provided. IFR and SVFR flights are separated when flight visibility is 5km or less.

Question 17

What separation is provided between IFR and VFR in class D airspace?

Answer 17

All flights are provided with air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. Separation is provided between SVFR flights when the flight visibility is reported to be less than 5km. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.

Question 18

If you are under ATC speed control, how close to the assigned airspeed must you fly?

Answer 18

10kts

Question 19

Who provides wake separation on visual approach?

Answer 19

AD 1.6 1.1.3 Wake turbulence separation is provided by ATC to pilots whose aircraft may be affected by the phenomenon, except in the case of IFR aircraft making a visual approach or a VFR arrival behind a medium or heavy or A380. In these cases it is the pilot’s responsibility to provide adequate spacing from preceding arriving or departing aircraft. In these circumstances ATC will make allowance for such pilot initiated manoeuvres when sequencing additional following aircraft.

Question 20

Unattended airfield separation?

Answer 20

Pilot in command is responsible for separation of other aircraft.

Question 21

To what distance from touchdown does ATC apply speed control and what are the tolerances?

Answer 21

5NM on an instrument approach

4NM on a visual approach

Question 22

What are the requirements for a visual approach?

Answer 22

a) Specifically states “REQUEST VISUAL APPRAOCH”; and
b) Can maintain visual reference to the terrain; and
c) The reported ceiling is not below the approved initial approach level for the aircraft so cleared; or
d) The pilot reports, at the initial approach level or at any time during the instrument approach procedure, that the meteorological conditions will permit a visual approach and that there is a reasonable assurance that the landing can be accomplished.

An aircraft operating under IFR and making either a visual approach or a visual arrival procedure remains an IFR flight and is subject to ATC clearances for the purpose of providing separation.

When cleared by ATC for a visual approach, further descent is unrestricted except when a specific restriction or requirement is included in a subsequent clearance. Any altitude restriction remains in force until specifically cancelled. Unless otherwise instructed or approved, aircraft are to join final by the shortest practical means. Extension through the final approach requires ATC approval.

Question 23

What do you do to MDA if there is no local QNH at an unattended airfield?

Answer 23

If an accurate QNH is not available from an unattended aerodrome, the QNH from another aerodrome may be used, but a correction must be made to the promulgated MDA as follows:

a) Add 5ft to the MDA for every 1NM in excess of 5NM from the source of the QNH.

Question 24

What are the requirements for reduced takeoff minima?

Answer 24

CAR Part 91, in conjunction with CAR Part 19, prohibits the pilot of an aircraft from taking-off from an aerodrome under IFR unless weather conditions are:

a) At or above the weather minima for IFR take-off detailed in the Operational Data chart for that aerodrome in AD 2; or (this minima is depicted on the airfield data below the runway dimensions)
b) If the weather minima for IFT take-off are not detailed in AD2 for a particular aerodrome, a ceiling of at least 300ft and above 1500m visibility.

Notwithstanding the previous paragraph, CAR 91.413 (g) provides that the pilot of a aircraft may take-off under IFR at an aerodrome at a take-off minima of zero cloud ceiling and visibility at or above 800m provided that:

a) The runway to be used has centerline marking or centerline lighting; and
b) The take-off weather visibility is confirmed by the pilot by observation of the runway centerline marking or centerline lighting; and
c) AD2 allows for reduced take-off minima on the runway to be used; and
d) Any obstacles in the take-off flight path are taken into account;
and
e) If the aircraft is a two-engine propeller-driven aeroplane, it is equipped with an operative auto- feather or auto-coarse system.

Question 25

State the meteorological minima at the destination which would require an alternate to be nominated

Answer 25

A pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating under IFR must list at least one alternate aerodrome in the flight plan unless-

1) The aerodrome of intended landing has a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed under Part 19 and 2) At the time of submitting the flight plan, the meteorological forecasts indicate, for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome of intended landing, that-
i. The ceiling at the aerodrome will be at least 1000ft above the minima prescribed under Part19 for the instrument procedure likely to be used; and ii. Visibility will be at least 5km, or 2km more than the prescribed minima, whichever is the greater.

Question 26

What is alternate minima?

Answer 26

If an instrument approach procedure without alternate minima has been prescribed, the following minima:

a) For a precision approach procedure, ceiling of 600ft, or 200ft above DA/DH, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 3000m, or 1000m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the greater; and
b) For a non-precision approach procedure, ceiling of 800ft or 200ft above MDA, whichever is the higher, and visibility of 4000m or 1500m more than the prescribed minimum, whichever is the great

Question 27

When do you need to hold a departure Alternate?

Answer 27

121.161 IFR departure limitations Each person performing an air operation shall ensure an IFR flight from an aerodrome is not commenced when weather conditions are at or above takeoff minima prescribed under 91.413 and are below authorised IFR landing minima prescribed under 91.413, unless there is an appropriate aerodrome—

(1) for a two engined aeroplane, within a maximum of one hour flying time, in still air at one engine inoperative cruising speed, of the aerodrome of departure; or
2) for an aeroplane having three or more engines, within a maximum of two hours flying time, in still air at one engine inoperative cruising speed, of the aerodrome of departure.

Question 28

What is the definition of Part 121?

Answer 28

An air operation means an air transport operation or a commercial transport operation using an aeroplane having a seating configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding any required crew member seat, or payload capacity of more than 3410kg.