Latitude Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

The Latitude is Certified in Accordance with?

A

14 CFR Part 25

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2
Q
Weight Limits
Ramp Weight….
Takeoff Weight…
Landing Weight…
Zero Fuel Weight…
Max Tailcone Baggage...
A

Ramp Weight… 31,050 lbs
Takeoff Weight… 30,800 lbs
Landing Weight… 27,575 lbs
Zero Fuel Weight… 21,200 lbs

Max Tailcone Baggage… 1000 lbs

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3
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance for Normal Ops?

A

400 Pounds

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4
Q

Max Demonstrated fuel imbalance for Emergency Return?

A

800 Pounds

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5
Q

What must be turned on when FUEL LEVEL LOW L/R message is displayed or less than 600 pounds of fuel in either tank?

A

Corresponding electric fuel boost pump must be ON

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6
Q

Single Point Refueling Pressure

A

10 to 55 PSI

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7
Q

Defueling Pressure Range

A

0 to -10 PSI

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8
Q

Fuel Capacity
Single Point?
Overwing?

A

Single Point 800 gals per wing (1600 gal / 10,720 lbs)

Overwing 850 gals per wing (1,700 gal / 11,390 lbs)

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9
Q

Max Takeoff Altitude Limit

A

8000 ‘

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10
Q

Max Tailwind

A

10 Knots

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11
Q

Speedbrakes must be stowed prior to ? ft for landing

A

500 ft AGL for Landing

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12
Q

Takeoff is Limited to what Flaps When type II, III, or IV anti ice fluid has been applied

A

Flaps 1 Config

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13
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

FL450

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14
Q

What conditions must be met for Operations above FL410

A
  1. Both ENG BLD AIR selectors must be NORM or HP and both engine bleed air sources must be available
  2. The PRESS SOURCE selector must be selected to NORM
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15
Q

Max Flap Extended Altitude

A

FL180

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16
Q

When airplane exposed to ground temps below -30 C what is operating limitation?

A

Cabin must be warmed to at least -21 C as indicated on MFD GTC Temp page before flight above FL250 with any occupants in Cabin

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17
Q

Max oil Consumption?

A

1 quart per 8 flight hours

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18
Q

Can oil types / brands be mixed

A

No, unless specifically approved in PW306D1 Maintenance Manual

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19
Q

Ground static operation at TO Thrust is limited to?

A

Max of 2 Minutes

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20
Q

Max starting Tailwind

A

10 knots

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21
Q

Starting with quartering tailwind?

A

Downwind engine started first, then airplane turned into wind before starting second engine

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22
Q

Engine must be operated at Idle for how long prior to shutdown?

A

2 minutes (small thrust increases for taxi are acceptable)

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23
Q

Max time intentional uncoordinated flight greater than on slip/skid indicator?

A

20 seconds- to preclude low oil pressure

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24
Q

Max starting ITT?

A

950 C

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25
Q

Max time at Takeoff Thrust?

A

5 min both engine operating

10 min one engine operating

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26
Q

After start with cold conditions how high can engine N1 be run up to to decrease time required for oil to reach 16 C (minimum operating temp)

A

up to 82% N1

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27
Q

Oil pressure must indicate within how many seconds of engine light off?

A

Within 20 seconds

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28
Q

Starter cutout?

A

Approx 44% N2

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29
Q

Ignition Cutout?

A

40 % N2

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30
Q

Must have stabilized idle within how many seconds of light off?

A

90 seconds

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31
Q

When must you have N1 rotation by during start?

A

40% N2, if not you must abort start

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32
Q

Engine Starter Limits?

A

2 min after 1st start
5 min after 2nd start
30 min after 3rd start

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33
Q

Engine Starter Motoring Limits

A

Batt Only…20 seconds
Batt with Generator Assist…15 seconds
External Power (1000 amps)…15 seconds
External Power (1500 amps)…7 seconds

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34
Q

APU Starter Limits?

A

Three APU starts per 30 Min

Three starts with 90-second rest period between starts

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35
Q

Battery Start Limit

A

Three Engine starts per hour

Nine APU battery starts per hour

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36
Q

External Power Limits

A

Max Current… 1500 AMPs

Max Voltage… 30 VDC

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37
Q

Max Mach above 29,833’

A

Mach 0.80

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38
Q

Max Operating Speeds

A

8000’ and below… 270 KIAS

8000 ‘ to 29,833’… 305 KIAS

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39
Q

Flaps 1
Flaps 2
Flaps FULL

A

F1 - 250 KIAS
F2 - 200 KIAS
FF - 175 KIAS

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40
Q

Max Landing Gear Oper/Extended

A

210 KIAS

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41
Q

Max Turb Air Penetration Speed

A

225 KIAS / Mach 0.73

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42
Q

Max Speed Brake Extension Speed

A

No Limit

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43
Q

Minimum Speed Brake Extended Speed (10 Panels)

A

Vref +15 KIAS

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44
Q

Min Speed For Sustained Flight In Icing Cond

A

180 KIAS

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45
Q

Min Single Engine Enroute Climb Speed

A

180 KIAS

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46
Q

Maximum Landing Sink Rate

A

600 feet per min

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47
Q

Aerobatic man, including spins are?

A

Prohibited

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48
Q

Intentional Stalls are limited to below?

A

FL180

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49
Q

Intentional Full Stalls are limited to?

A

Idle Thrust Only

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50
Q

Flight must remain within how many min of suitable airport for landing?
Why?

A

180 min

  1. Standby flight instruments battery endurance
  2. Baggage/Cargo fire protection
51
Q

How many boundary layer energizers per wing?

How many stall strips?

A

7 energizers
2 stall strips
(All must be present for takeoff)

52
Q

Cabin Pressurization Limits

A

0.0 to 10.2 PSID

53
Q

Min battery temp for APU start?

Min battery temp engine start?

A
  • 20 deg C for APU

- 10 deg C for engine

54
Q

Max Alt for APU Start

A

FL200

55
Q

Max Airspeed for APU Start

A

305 KIAS

56
Q

Max Operating Alt for APU

A

FL300

57
Q

Wingspan

A

72’ 4” (73 ft)

58
Q

Height

A

20’ 10” (21 ft)

59
Q

Length

A

62’ 3” (63 ft)

60
Q

Gear Width

A

10’

61
Q

Engines

A

PW 306D1

5,907 pounds Thrust

62
Q

Turn Radius

A

37.53 ft (40 ft)

If nose clears, does not mean wing will clear

63
Q

Which access doors are unmonitored

A

Single Point refuel, LF and RT Battery doors, EPU door, Lav service door, hydraulic service door, and hydraulic accumulaor bleed access door

64
Q

How long will Battery alone provide power for

Emergency bus?

All systems?

A

Emergency bus - 60 Min

All systems - 20 Min

65
Q

Interior Button removes all power from the cabin with exception of?

A

EMER LTS, PAX SAFETY, and Cabin ENTRY Lights

66
Q

Servicing the LAV and bleeding the NWS require…

A

Battery Power (LF Bat NWS / RT Bat LAV)

67
Q

EMER LTS in ARM the cabin emergency lights will auto activate when

A

Loss of main DC power, 5-G Impact, or PAX SAFETY button selected ON

68
Q

Emergency lighting battery packs (4 battery packs) operate emergency lights a minimum of how long

A

10 Min

69
Q

Pylon work lights illuminate when?

A

Baggage compartment lights ON or cabin entry lights selected ON

70
Q

Takeoff may not be initiated with an amber CAS message without?

A

Approved MEL deferral

71
Q

When will BOOST PUMP activate when in NORM position?

A
  1. Engine start
  2. APU start
  3. Crossfeed
  4. Low fuel pressure detected
72
Q

What powers FADEC during normal operation

A

PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator)

73
Q

Engine Sync is Automatic with?

A

Landing Gear Retracted

74
Q

Green (IGN) display next to N2 gauges indicates?

A

Power is received at exciter box, but do not guarantee ignition is actually occurring

75
Q

EVENT MARKER records what?

A

5 min trace in the EDU (4 min prior to and 1 min after button push)

76
Q

FADEC will auto abort on ground if?

A
  1. No ITT rise within 15 seconds of selecting RUN

2. If ITT limit is exceeded

77
Q

Pilot will abort start if no oil pressure within?

A

20 seconds of initial ITT rise

78
Q

Pilot will abort start if N1 rotation is not seen by?

A

40% N2

79
Q

Pilot will abort start if stabilized Idle (57% min N2) is not achieved within?

A

90 seconds of initial ITT rise

80
Q

FADEC commands engines to ground idle when?

A

8 seconds after landing

81
Q

Flight Idle?

Ground Idle?

A

65 minimum N2– Flight

57 minimum N2– Ground

82
Q

FADEC will automatically shut down engines if N1 or N2 reaches?

A

110%

83
Q

When Halo around affected RUN/STOP button flash?

A

When in-flight engine failure occurs

84
Q

Takeoff thrust time limits?

A

5 Min Both Engine Operating

10 Min Single Engine Operating

85
Q

Are all 3 squat switches required for TR’s to operate?

A

Yes

86
Q

What happens if TR deploys inadvertently in Flight?

A
  1. FADEC will reduce affected engine to idle

2. T/R EMER STOW button will flash until pushed, then steady

87
Q

Thrust reverse deployment with APU operating is limited to?

A

30 seconds

88
Q

What does APU provide?

A

DC electrical power and bleed air (bleed air is NOT available for anti-ice purposes)

89
Q

APU may be operated how long after APU OIL LEVEL LOW CAS message appears?

A

20 hours

90
Q

Pressing an ENG FIRE button does what?

A
  1. Closes engine fuel FW valve
  2. Shuts off fuel in HMU
  3. Closes hydraulic FW valve
  4. Trips Generator field relay
  5. Disables the Thrust Reverser
  6. Arms both Fire Bottles
91
Q

What type of smoke detectors in baggage?

A

Optical

92
Q

During an APU FIRE, if button is not pushed within 8 seconds what occurs?

A

Shared baggage/APU bottle will discharge to APU automatically

93
Q

Service air is used for?

A
  1. Low Limit Valve on ACM

2. Cabin Recirculation valve operation

94
Q

All BLK LEAK CAS messages close their associated valves except?

A

TAIL BLD LEAK

95
Q

APU bleed air can replace engine bleed air for all systems except?

A

EMER Pressurization and Anti-Ice

96
Q

Emergency Pressurization activates automatically for?

A
  1. ACM overtemp
  2. Cabin exceeds 14,500 ‘
  3. ACM bleed leak
97
Q

Min speed sustained flight in icing conditions

A

180 KIAS

98
Q

How can ice be visually detected from cockpit at night?

A
  1. Red LED ice detection lights on glare shield

2. Two wing inspection lights

99
Q

What provides power for windshield heat?

A

Engine driven AC alternators

100
Q

ANTI-ICE ENGINE / STAB buttons must be on during flight and ground operations when?

A

+10 to -35 C (RAT in air / SAT on ground) in visible moisture
(Also at least ON one min prior to idle descent into icing conditions)

101
Q

ANTI-ICE ENGINE / STAB turns on what?

A
  1. Inlet bleed air heat
  2. Stator Vane bleed air heat
  3. Inboard wing bleed air heat
  4. Horizontal stab bleed air heat
  5. RAT probes electric heat
102
Q

ANTI-ICE WING must be on?

A

Ground/Flight operations +5 to -35 C RAT in visible moisture

103
Q

During main DC electrical failure all ANTI-ICE valves fail open except?

A

WING XFLOW

104
Q

Operation with ANTI-ICE WING on is prohibited above?

A

FL410

105
Q

When does CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message occur?

A

Amber - 8,500 ft

Red - 9,650 ft

106
Q

Hydraulic pressure is Approx?

A

3000 PSI

107
Q

One engine driven Hydraulic pump can supply all systems?

A

Yes normal operation

108
Q

What is hydraulic powered?

A
  1. Brakes
  2. Speed brakes
  3. Flight Spoilers
  4. NWS
  5. Thrust Reversers
  6. Landing Gear
109
Q

Use of Aux Hydraulic pump is?

A

Prohibited in Flight

110
Q

Amount of NWS?

A

81 deg through tiller
7 deg rudder pedals
(88 degrees total)

111
Q

When disconnected the left control column controls what?

A

Left elevator and ailerons

112
Q

When disconnected the right control column controls what?

A

Right elevator and roll spoiler system

113
Q

Primary pitch trim is accomplished with what?

A

Electrically controlled movable horizontal stab

114
Q

Flaps are operated?

A

Electrically

115
Q

EMD mode requires what to activate?

A
  1. Above FL300
  2. Autopilot ON
  3. Cabin Alt above 14,500 ft
116
Q

What occurs when EMD activates?

A
  1. EMER DESCENT CAS message
  2. Alt preselector set to 15,000 ft
  3. Heading bug slews 90 deg left
  4. Autothrottle reduces power to idle
  5. Autopilot turns left and pitches dow to descend at Vmo/Mmo -10
    #(Crew must deploy speed brakes)#
117
Q

Min autopilot altitudes

A
  1. Enroute and Descent – 1000 ‘ AGL
  2. Precision Approach – 160 ‘ AGL
  3. Non- Precision Approach – 200 ‘ AGL
  4. Takeoff, Climb, Go-Around – 400 ‘AGL
118
Q

LDA approaches with GS?

A

Autopilot or flight director couple is prohibited

119
Q

Aux hydraulic pump limitiations?

A
  1. Prohibited in flight

2. Prohibited on ground when below -40 deg C

120
Q

Electrical limits?

A
Engine  
1. 300 AMPS up to FL350
2. 275 AMPS above FL350
APU
1. 275 AMPS
121
Q

Generator at less than ____ AMPS for ____ min before engine shutdown, or ____ min cooling prior to restart

A

75 AMPS, 4 min, 35 min

122
Q

Load factors?

A
  1. Flaps Up
    -1.0 G to 2.75 G
  2. Flaps Down
    0.0 G to 2.0 G
  3. Max 0.0 G time
    20 seconds
123
Q

Max Turb penetration speed?

A

225 KIAS or MACH .73

124
Q

Fuel temp limits (Jet A)

A

-35 C to +61 C (Max starting/takeoff temp +57 C)