Last Week Topics Flashcards

1
Q

Thyroid nodule management algorithm

A

Note: If first FNA indeterminate, wait 6-12 weeks and repeat (to avoid false positives from reactive changes caused by first FNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thyroid nodules greater than ___ in size are clinically significant and require further evaluation

A

Thyroid nodules greater than 1 cm in size are clinically significant and require further evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a biopsy result for thyroid mass returns as medullary thyroid cancer, the next step is. . .

A

. . . MEN2 testing

If MEN2 testing is positive, urine metanephrines should be run to screen for pheochromocytoma. If present, this cancer takes precidence and should be dealt with prior to the medullary carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a patient’s FNAB results are nondiagnostic, the next step is to. . .

A

. . . try FNAB again!

Repeat biopsy will obtain an adequate specimen the second time in 50% of cases

If this second biopsy failed, the surgery is recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Routine tests performed in a patient with a thyroid nodule who is clinically euthyroid

A

TSH and FNA biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adrenocortical carcinoma

A
  • Poor prognosis
  • No biochemical markers to detect malignancy – criteria for cancer based on imaging findings
    • < 4 cm, can monitor, low risk malignancy
    • > 4 cm, higher risk malignancy, remove by open adrenalectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Any adrenal incidentaloma ____ needs an evaluation – unless it is ___.

A

Any adrenal incidentaloma > 1 cm needs an evaluation – unless it is an obvious myelolipoma (fatty on imaging).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

You should NEVER biopsy a patient with an adrenal mass without ruling out. . .

A

. . . pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When you have an adrenal mass and you are not sure whether or not it is a pheochromocytoma after CT and metanephrines, what can you do?

A

I-131 metaiodobenzylguanidine scan

Used for confirmation or evaluation of nonlocalized pheochromoctyomia. Has specificity of 90-100% for pheos, but is not entirely sensitive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Types of focal liver lesion

A
  • Hemangioma (benign)
  • Focal nodular hyperplasia (benign)
  • Hepatic adenoma (potentially malignant)
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma (malignant)
  • Cholangiocarcinoma (malignant)
  • Metastasis from distant site (malignant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Liver hemangioma

A
  • Most common benign liver tumor
  • Typically asymptomatic, may cause vague abdominal pain, nausea, loss of apetite
  • “Light bulb sign” is classical. Marked hyperintensity of the lesion relative to the surroundings with early filling of the rim and late filling of the central mass.
  • Biopsy is contraindicated – highly vascular
  • Surgical resection or embolization may be indicated for palliation of symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Focal nodular hyperplasia

A
  • Benign liver tumor common in women in their 40’s-50’s
  • Mostly asymptomatic
  • “Central scar” appearance on CT
  • May require biopsy to differentiate from hepatic adenoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nodular regenerative hyperplasia

A
  • Focal regeneration in the liver
  • Thought to be related to obstructed blood flow in liver regions resulting in injury and subsequent regeneration
  • Common in those over age 80
  • No treatment necessary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Triple phase CT scan

A

CT scan with IV contrast that acquires images at 30 seconds (arterial), 60 seconds (portal-venous), and 90 seconds (equilibrium)

Alows for better characterization of liver lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Subtypes of hepatic adenoma

A
  • Inflammatory:
    • High risk for bleeding, low risk for malignant transformation
  • HNF-1 mutated:
    • No risk for bleeding or malignant transformation – benign
  • Beta-catenin activated:
    • High risk for malignant transformation when > 5 cm in size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CT scan has a reduced detection rate of hepatocellular carcinomas in patients with . . .

A

. . . cirrhotic livers

Cirrhosis makes it difficult to visualize the interior of the liver as well as you would otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Management of a new diagnosis of hepatic adenoma

A
  • If on an OCP or taking anabolic steroids, STOP these medications
  • If < 5 cm in size, risk of rupture and malignant transformation is low. These can be safely observed and managed expectantly.
    • Pregnancy is not contraindicated for women with <5 cm adenomas
  • If > 5 cm in size, patient should be considered for tumor resection or ablation to reduce bleeding and malignant transformation risks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Major risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma

A
  • Untreated hepatitis B virus (most important of all)
  • Cirrhosis:
    • Fatty liver
    • Alcohol use disorder
    • Chronic untreated hepatitis C virus
    • Other etiologies of cirrhosis (less than the above three)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Differentiating FNH from hepatic adenomas

A

Best test for this is radiolabeled sulfur colloid scintigraphy

This isotope is taken up by Kupffer cells in FNH, but not by adenomas.

This can be super helpful as the demographics affected by FNH and hepatic adenomas (middle aged, pre-menopausal women) are the same.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hemochromatosis on MRI

A

Increased liver density on CT, decreased signal on MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Quick MRI trick to identify a hemangioma

A

They are one of the only lesions in the abdomen that exhibits the T2 shine phenomenon: Bright on DWI, bright on ADC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fat in an adrenal adenoma vs a myelolipoma

A

A myelolipoma is mostly fat, and so it will be fat attenuation on CT

Fat in a benign adrenal adenoma is mostly microscopic, so you cannot tell on CT. But, on MRI it will have reduced signal on in/out of phase imaging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Finding the parotid on CT

A

The parotid is quite fatty, and is slightly hypoattenuating on MRI. It is just medial to the pinna.

30
Q

How can you tell whether a renal cyst is simple or hemorrhagic?

A

Simple: T1 dark, T2 bright

Hemorrhagic (Extravasated blood): T1 bright, T2 gray

31
Q

Liver hemangiomas are highly __ on ultrasound

A

Liver hemangiomas are highlyhyperechoic on ultrasound

32
Q

What is going on in this image?

A

Cobblestoning

This is pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

May be acquired, secondary, or genetic. Acquired is most common and involves anti-GM-CSF antibodies. Biopsy is the gold standard for dx.

33
Q

If you see a simple cyst on breast ultrasound. . .

A

. . . it is benign and doesn’t need a biopsy

34
Q

Hill-Sachs deformity

A

Imprinting on the lateral aspect of the humeral head

Results from anterior shoulder dislocation and banging of the humeral head against other parts of the bony scapula

35
Q

Signs of elbow fracture

A

Posterior: See fat pad at all

Anterior: Sail sign

36
Q

Which types of femur fracture at higher risk for avacular necrosis?

A

Femoral neck fx, because the blood supply runs through here

37
Q

Scaphoid blood supply

A

Enters distally, flows proximally

So, in scaphoid fx the proximal scaphoid is at risk for avascular necrosis

38
Q

Talonavicular joint

A
39
Q

Benign bone features

A

Did it have time to grow?

Is the transition zone narrow?

40
Q

Typical metastatic disease staging scans

A

CT chest/abd/pelv + bone scan

OR

FDG PET CT

41
Q

If there is difference vs no difference between stress and rest nuclear heart scan

A

Difference: Cath lab! Save that myocardium

None: No cath lab. That heart is dead and not coming back.

42
Q

Fatigue, anemia, guiac positive stool, but no evidence of acute bleed

What test do you use to find it?

A

Tc99 blood cell/sulfur colloid scan

43
Q

When to f/u in 6 weeks for ovarian cyst

A

Abnormal features

> 5 cm

44
Q

Cogwheel sign

A

Nodular appearance of thickened

45
Q

Risk factors for ovarian torsion

A

Enlarged ovaries by any etiology (including ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome)

Pregnancy

Adhesions

46
Q

PCOS morphology on US

A

> 20 follicles

and/or

> 10 cc

47
Q

Ovarian torsion

A

Note: The presence of flow does NOT rule out torsion.

Venous flow is more important than arterial flow.

48
Q

Endometriosis on US

A
49
Q

Fibroids on US

A

Often hypoechoic, cystic

If there is anechoic material in the center, it is a degenerating fibroid

50
Q

Indications for OB ultrasound

A

During fetal survey, we are also assessing for previa. If previa is present, we will re-assess in the 3rd trimester to see if it is still there.

51
Q

Implantation bleed

A

Very common

Bleed when trophoblast is implanting

Not concerning. May consider serial bHCG until > 2000, then re-image.

52
Q

Signs of 1st trimester abortion on US

A
53
Q

Subchorionic hematoma

A

Very common. Accounts for 20% of intrapartum bleeding

Can tell its age based on US charactersitics.

54
Q

Placenta previa on US

A
55
Q

Air bronchograms are seen in. . .

A

. . . any condition where pathology localizes to the alveolar space and spares the bronchi

Pneumonia, ARDS, pulmonary edema, pulmonary hemorrhage, and sometimes cancer. But, NOT fibrosis or empyhsematous change.

56
Q

In left lateral decubitus, which side is down?

A

The left

The named side is the one that is down

57
Q

How can you tell if hydronephrosis is acute or chronic on ultrasound?

A

In chronic hydronephrosis, the renal cortex becomes thinner

A normal cortex should be 7-10 mm, and a normal parenchyma should be 15-20 mm.

Note the definition of cortical thickness here as C, while parenchymal thickness (P) includes the cortex and the calyces.

58
Q

Stopping metformin for CT contrast: 2 days before or 2 days after?

A

2 days after

AND only restart creatinine is at patient baseline

59
Q

Preferred study to diagnose osteoporosis in patients with degenerative disc disease

A

Quantitative CT (QTC) scan

60
Q

Features of Charcot joint

A
61
Q

When to order an MRI in addition to x-ray for a patient with diabetc foot disease and soft tissue swelling

A

Always

If there is soft tissue swelling, always

Ulcer or not. Neuropathic foot disease or not. Always. They are VERY high risk.

62
Q

What determines whether someone gets hip hemiarthroplasty vs total hip arthroplasty?

A

Basically whether or not the acetabulum was injured and if there is any significant osteoarthritis

If the acetabulum looks good enough, there is no need to replace it.

63
Q

Knee lipohemarthrosis indicates. . .

A

. . . some intraarticular fracture

Most of the time it will be tibial plateau fracture, but NOT ALWAYS.