Large Animal Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Tolerance

A

legal amount at time of meat/milk going to market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Target Test Level

A

*MILK ONLY
-used for antibiotics that have been used in the past prior to these regulations being put into place
-acceptable by FDA-so a certain amount of residue within a range (ex. penicillin residue will not cause prosecution until 5 ppb)
doesn’t protect milk producers from court enforcement/right to do something at a later date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Withdrawal Time

A

amount of time for a drug to go below a target level in a target tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What factors affect withdrawal times? (4)

A
PK/PD (pharmacokinetics/dynamics)
route
frequency
dosage
**if you change any of these it can alter withdrawal time=extra label use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the critically important antimicrobial drugs? (4)

A

3rd generation cephalosporins (ceftiofur)
fluoroquinolones
macrolides
trimeth/sulfa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the highly important antimicrobial drugs?

A

penicillin’s
tetracycline’s
phenicols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the major food animal species? (4)

A

cattle
pig
chickens
turkey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the major non-food animal species? (3)

A

dogs
cats
horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the minor food animal species? (5)

A
goats
sheep
alpacas
catfish
honeybees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Residue

A

any substance that is foreign to the body

ex.) drug, pesticide ect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Violative Residue

A

drug residue found to be above the regulatory limit (tolerance or target level) in tissue, milk or eggs (FDA regulates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What ways can you give a drug according to AMDUCA?

A
  • parenterally (IV/IM-or anything outside the instestines)
  • topical
  • intramammary
  • in water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a VFD drug?

A

essentially a script to use “medically important” antimicrobials in animal feed
check with FARAD for approved drug combinations

  • vfd= vet feed directive aka antibiotics added to feed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is required for a VFD to be valid? (i.e what has to be on a VFD label) (6)

A
  • must be from a veterinarian who has a valid VCPR for the operation
  • one vet (not a clinic)
  • one client
  • one feed distributor
  • one or more animal production sites (can have more than one under same feed mill/managed the same)
  • one medication (+/- legal combos)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are water soluble medications affected by VFD requirements?

A

NO, water soluble are prescription only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When does AMDUCA allow veterinarians to prescribe drugs outside approved label directions? (ON TEST) (4)

A

when:

  • it is clinically effective
  • has the needed ingredient
  • is in the proper dosage form
  • is labeled for the indication/disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some label requirements for veterinarians writing ELDU to clients?

A
  • name and contact info of vet
  • established name of drug
  • any specific directions (species, id of flock/herd, dosage freq, route, duration)—–>don’t just say “use as directed”
  • cautionary statements
  • for food producing species: withdrawal times/withholding, discard times for meat milk eggs/other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some record requirements that the producer must have?

A

*shouldn’t be in something that can be altered (google spreadsheet/word doc)

  • ID the animals
  • species
  • # of animals treated
  • medical condition
  • established name of drug and active ingredient
  • dosage prescribed or used
  • route
  • duration of tx
  • withdrawal/witholding times
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long should records be kept after an animal has been treated?

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some reasons a drug may be prohibited?

A
  • cancer
  • toxicities in humans
  • bacterial resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the drugs that are prohibited for ANY use in food animals? (ON TEST) (6)

A
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
  • Clenbuterol
  • Nitroimidazole–> dimetridazole, ipronidazole, metronidazole
  • Nitrofurans–> furazolidine, nitrofurazone
  • Glycopeptides–> vancomyacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which fluoroquinolones are prohibited from ELDU?

A
  • Enrofloxacin-Baytril is for respiratory diseases ONLY (cattle), and respiratory and colibacilosisi in swine
  • Baytril CA-1- conditional approval for anaplasmosis
  • NOT for female dair cattle >20 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which drug is prohibited from ELDU in dairy cattle >20 months or older?

A

Phenylbutazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the exception to the ELDU of sulfonamides?

A

can use sulfadimethxine, sulfabromethazine and silfaethoxipyriazine
-approved for pneumonia and foot rot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three ways that ELDU can be used for?

A

prevention
Control
Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is prevention?

A

no animals currently showing signs but infection is likely based off of animals history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is treatment?

A

animals showing current clinical signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is control?

A

animals are sub-acute or animals showing signs in larger group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some ELDU restrictions for cephalosporins?

A
  • cant be used at unapproved doses, freq, durations, or routes
  • cant be used if not approved for that species (major classes only)
  • cannot be used for prevention!

can change the indication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When can cephalosporin’s be used? (aka when is ELDU ok?)

A
  • ELDU for cephapirin products in food-producing animals (IMM only in USA)
  • used to treat or control extra label disease indication
  • extra label in minor species (duck/rabbits)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the MUMS act of 2004?

A

minor use and minor species health act

  • can make more medications legally available to vets and owners for treating minor species and uncommon diseases
  • allows companies to bring new drugs to market under conditional approval
  • ELDU in feed lower priority–>does NOT allow drug residues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which drugs have special restrictions for Grade A dairy operations?

A
  • non-medical grade DMSO
  • Dipyrone
  • Colloidal silver
  • *monitored by PMO (Pasteurize Milk Ordinance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which antimicrobials are included under the Beta Lactams?

A

Penicillin’s
Cephalosporin’s
Monobactams
Carbapenems

**PCMC–>Penis’s Can Make you Cum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the benefit of adding an amino group to the penicillin G structure?

A

Aminopenicillins

increased spectrum of activity to include more gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the affect of adding a hydroxyl group to the amoxicillin structure?

A

increased acid stability (improved oral absoprtion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What can penicillin’s be used to treat in cattle?

A
  • BRD (bovine respiratory disease)
  • mastitis
  • metritis
  • foot rot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

____A____ and _____B____ are two naturally occurring antibiotics from fungi that primarily affect ___C__ __D____ organisms. (fill in the blank)

A

A. Penicillin G
B. Penicillin V
C. Gram
D. Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Penicillin G has a poor oral bioavailability. (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the routes of administration for Penicillin G?

A

IV, IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Penicillin G/V?

A

Gram + aerobes/anaerobes, Gram - anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Ampicillin?

A

Gram + aerobes, some gram - aerobes

G +and G- anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What drug class is Ampicillin?

A

B-lactam

Aminopenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ampicillin is NOT lactamase sensitive due to its amino group structure. (T/F)

A

F- is lactamase sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the routes of administration for Ampicillin?

A

IM, IV, SQ

poor oral bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of Amoxicillin?

A

G + aerobes some G - aerobes

G + and G - anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the routes of administration for amoxicillin?

A

PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Is Amoxicillin lactamase resistant?

A

NO it is lactamase sensitive (aminopenicillin)

48
Q

What is the drug class of Cloxacillin?

A

beta lactamase

lactamase resistant penicillin

49
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of Cloxacillin?

A
  • narrow

- primarily G + cocci (anti-staph penicillin)

50
Q

What are the route of administration on Cloxacillin?

A
  • Intramammary

- prolonged activity due to extended release in mammary gland

51
Q

What are the adverse effects of beta lactams (specifically penicillin’s)?

A

hypersensitivity reactions

52
Q

What is the drug class of Cephapirin?

A

beta lactam
Cephalosporin
1st generation

53
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of Cephaparin?

A

G+ aerobes (esp staph and strep)
some G- aerobes
unpredictable anaerobic activity

54
Q

What are the routes of administration of Cephapirin?

A

intramammary

55
Q

Is Cephapirin resistant to lactamase?

A

resistant to some, not active in MRS

56
Q

What is the drug class of Ceftiofur?

A

beta lactam
Cephalosporin
3rd generation

57
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Ceftriofur?

A

G- and G+ aerobes (more G- than 1st gen)

G+ and G- anaerobes

58
Q

What is the route of administration for Ceftiofur?

A

SC, IM, Intramammary

59
Q

Is Ceftiofur resistant to lactamase?

A

more resistant than 1st gen, not active in MRS

60
Q

How do tetracyclines work?

A

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30 S subunit of the ribosome

61
Q

Weird facts about tetracycline’s to remember: (3)

A
  • oral bioavailability is variable and influenced by food
  • can concentrate intracellularly
  • can concentrate in epithelial lining of the airways
62
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of Tetracycline?

A

G+ and G- aerobes, some anaerobes

63
Q

What is the route of administration of Tetracycline?

A

IM, IV, PO (in feed and water too)

64
Q

What are some unique feature of the drugs Tetracycline and Oxytetracyline?

A

activity against intracellular pathogens:

  • mycoplasm
  • leptospira
65
Q

What is the Spectrum of activity of Oxytetracycline?

A

G+ G- aerobes, some anaerobes

66
Q

What is the route of administration for Oxytetracycline?

A

IM, IV, PO (also in feed and water)

67
Q

What are some adverse affects of Ceftiofur?

A

V/D
hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis
cytopenias

68
Q

What are the Adverse effects of Tetracyclines?

A

tooth discoloration
rumen stasis (high PO doses)
hypersensitivity (swelling, dyspnea, collapse)
embryotoxic (early loss, later retarded bone growth )

69
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Chlortetracycline?

A

G- and G+, some anaerobes

70
Q

What is the route of administration for Chlortetracycline?

A

primarily in feed and water

71
Q

What is the MOA of Aminoglycosides?

A

bind to the 30 S subunit of bacterial ribosome impairing the proof reading ability of the ribosomal complex

72
Q

Weird facts about Aminoglycosides: (3)

A
  • not orally absorbed
  • can causes ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity and neuromuscular blockade
  • tissue residue for extended duration
73
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Dihydrostreptomycin?

A

G- aerobes only, Do not use for anaerobes

74
Q

What is the route of administration for Dihydrostreptomycin?

A

IM, SC, intramammary

75
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Gentamicin?

A

G- and MDR staph sp, don’t use for anaerobes

76
Q

Facts about Gentamicin: (3)

A
  • Mechanism of action requires aerobic environment –> poor choice for anaerobics
  • Highly water soluble, poorly lipid soluble –poor penetration of bile, prostate, brain, eye, CSF
  • Highly concentrated in urine–> useful in some drug-resistant UTI
77
Q

Route of admin for Gentamicin?

A

IV, IM, SC

78
Q

What are the adverse effects of Gentamicin? (also same for Dihydrostrptomycin)

A
  • Low therapeutic index, Monitoring plasma concentrations may be indicated
  • Neprotoxicity (esp. treatment > 3days, elderly, prior renal impairment, dehydration, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, concurrent NSAIDs, liver impairment)
  • Ototoxicity, vestibular toxicity
  • Neuromuscular blockade w some anesthetics
79
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Neomycin?

A

G- aerobes, no anaerobes

80
Q

What is the route of administration for Neomycin?

A

PO low oral bioavailability but used in cattle feed bolus for enteric infections with susceptible bacteria

81
Q

What are the adverse effects of Neomycin?

A

Diarrhea

Rarely ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

82
Q

What is the MOA for the fluoroquinolones?

A

inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase

83
Q

What is the primary use for Fluoroquinolones?

A

treatment of BRD, specifically Pasturella multocida, Manheimia haemolytica, Hostophilus somni and Mycoplasma bovis

84
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Enrofloxacin? (Danofloxacin exact same)

A

G- and G+ aerobes, ineffective against anaerobes

85
Q

What is the route of administration for Enrofloxacin?

A

SQ

86
Q

Adverse Effects of Enrofloxacin/Danofloxacin?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • lameness (calves)
  • SQ injection site reaction, arthropathy in rapidly growing animals.
87
Q

What is the MOA of Sulfa drugs?

A

inhibit the enzyme involved in production of dihydrofolic acid which block bacterial biosynthesis of folic acid and the purines/pyrimidine’s needed for nucleic acid synthesis

88
Q

Sulfa drugs are bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

Bacteriostatic

89
Q

Spectrum of activity for Sulfadimethoxime? (same for Sulfamethazine, Sulfaquinoxaline)

A

G+, G- Aerobes, Poor anaerobe coverage

90
Q

What are the routes of administration for Sulfadimethoxime? (same for Sulfamethazine, Sulfaquinoxaline)

A

PO IV (all trimethoprim are ELDU)

91
Q

What are the adverse effects of Sulfadimethoxime? (same for Sulfamethazine, Sulfaquinoxaline)

A
  • hypersensitivity
  • depress rumen function (usually temporary)
  • possibly teratogenic (disrupts development of fetuses)
92
Q

What is the MOA of Macrolide?

A

binding 50 S subunit of bacterial ribosome and inhibiting peptide bond formation between specific combinations of amino acids

93
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Gamithromycin? (same for Tildipirosin, Tilmicosin, Tulathromycin)

A

Primarily G+, some G- bovine respiratory pathogens

94
Q

What is the route of administration for Gamithromyacin? (same for Tildipirosin, Tilmicosin, Tulathromycin)

A

SQ

**main use for BRD (M. haemolytica, P. Multicida and H. Somni)

95
Q

What are the advers affects of Gamithromycin? (same for Tildipirosin)

A

pain/swelling at injection site

96
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Tylosin/Tylvalosin?

A

Primarily G +

97
Q

What is the route of administration for Tylosin? Uses?

A

IM

**used for BRD, foot rot, calf diptheria, metritis

98
Q

Adverse effects of Tylosin?

A

Injection site reaction, anorexia. SEVERE DIARRHEA if used PO

99
Q

What are the adverse affects for Tilmicosin?

A
  • Injection in horses, goats, swine can be fatal (cardiotoxicity)
  • IV injection in cattle, sheep can be fatal.
100
Q

What are the adverse effects of Tulathromycin?

A
  • Injection site reaction
  • anorexia
  • hypersalivation
  • head-shaking
101
Q

MOA of Lincosamindes?

A

bind to 50 S ribosomal subunit to prevent peptide bond formation

102
Q

What are Lincosamides primarily used for?

A

-treatment of staphylococcal mastitis (eg staph aureus)

103
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Lincomyacin? (same for Pirilmycin)

A

G+ aerobes, good anaerobic coverage

104
Q

What is the route of administration for Lincomyacin?

A

IM

Use in cattle in ELDU

105
Q

Adverse Effects of Lincomyacin? (previous test question)

A

Do not give orally to fermenters and pigs
-Superinfection/death
Injection site reaction

106
Q

What is the route of administration of Pirilmyacin?

A

(Lincosamide)

Intramammary

107
Q

What are the adverse effects of Pirlilmyacin?

A

Extended therapy can increase risk of coliform mastitits

108
Q

What is the drug class of Florfenicol?

A

Thiampheacol
**related to chloramphenicol and shares its MOA, spectrum and AE
used to treat BRD

109
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Florfenicol?

A

G+ and G-, aerobes and anaerobes, some rickettsia

110
Q

Noteworthy affects of Florfenicol

A

Outstanding tissue penetration across tissues.

Combined preparation available with NSAID (flunixin)

111
Q

Route of administration for Florfenicol?

A

SQ IM

112
Q

Adverse affects of Florfenicol?

A

anorexia
dec. water consumption
diarrhea
injection site rxns

113
Q

What drug class is Spectinomycin in?

A

Aminocyclitol (shares features with aminoglycosides)

114
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for Spectinomycin?

A

G+, G- aerobes, mycoplasma. Poor anaerobic coverage

115
Q

What is the route of administration for Spectinomycin?

A

SQ

116
Q

What are some adverse affects of Spectinomycin?

A

well tolerated, can cause neuromuscular blockade

117
Q

What do fluroquinolones treat in cattle?

A

Treats BRD:

  • Pasturella multocida
  • Manhemia hemolytica
  • Histophilus somni
  • Mycoplasma bovis