Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmocology > Antifungals And Antimicrobials > Flashcards

Antifungals And Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main gram positive aerobic cocci?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the main gram positive aerobic rods?

A

Bacillus, listeria, Norcardia, corynebacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What’s are the clinically relevant gram pos anaerobic cocci?

A

Peptostreoptococcus (oral bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What’s the clinically relevant gram positive anaerobic rod bacteria?

A

Clostridium, actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the clinically relevant aerobic gram negative cocci?

A

None in companion animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What’s are the clinically relevant gram neg aerobic rod bacteria?

A

Enterobacteriaceace ( E. coli, salmonella, proteus, klebsiella) psuedomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the clinically relevant gram negative anaerobic coccci?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the clinically relevant gram neg anaerobic rods?

A

Bactericides, fusibacterium, (periodontal bacteria) pasturella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drug classes are in the beta lactams?

A

Carbopanems,monobactams, penicillins, cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How to beta lactams work?

A

Block cross linking of peptide chains in bacterial cell was causing cell lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gram-negative aerobe, most common cause of canine UTI

A

E.Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gram-positive aerobe, most common cause of canine pyoderma

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gram-positive anaerobe, one species of this genus can cause tetanus

A

Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gram-negative aerobe, can be zoonotic

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gram-negative aerobe that causes disease in compromised animals

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Periodontal bacteria

A

Gram-positive (Peptostreptococcus) and Gram-negative anaerobes (Bacteroides, Fusobacterium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gram-positive anaerobe that can be isolated from abdominal fluid samples in cases of peritonitis

A

Actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Infections that are commonly caused by aerobes

A

Infections of the skin, urinary tract, cornea, external ear and blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Infections that can be caused from pathogens in any of the 4 quadrants

A

Peritonitis, pyothorax, aspiration pneumonia, and infections of the middle ear and CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gentamicin

A

-Aminoglycoside
-Primarily G- and MDR Staph. sp. Do not use for anaerobes
-Unlike other drug families, resistance to one family member does not imply resistance to another.
-Mechanism of action requires aerobic environment –> poor choice for anaerobics
-Highly water soluble, poorly lipid soluble –poor penetration of bile, prostate, brain, eye, CSF
-Highly concentrated in urine–> useful in some drug-resistant UTI
-IV, IM, SC
Dose interval= 24 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the adverse effects of Gentamicin?

A

Low therapeutic index, Monitoring plasma concentrations may be indicated
Neprotoxicity (esp. treatment > 3days, elderly, prior renal impairment, dehydration, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, concurrent NSAIDs, liver impairment)
Ototoxicity, vestibular toxicity
Neuromuscular blockade w some anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Amoxicillin

A

-b-lactam/Aminopenicilllin
-G+ aerobes/Some G- aerobes/ G+G-anaerobes
-Orally bioavailable
Lactamase sensitive
-PO 8-12 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adverse effects of Amoxicillin?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, inappetance

Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, cytopenias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ampicillin

A

-b-lactam/Aminopenicilllin
-G+ aerobes/Some G- aerobes/ G+G-anaerobes
-Poor oral bioavailability
Lactamase sensitive
-IV,IM,SC 6-8 hrs
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Adverse effects of Ampicillin?

A

-Vomiting, diarrhea, inappetance

Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, cytopenias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Amoxicilin-Clavulanate

A
  • b-lactam/Aminopenicilllin + Lactamase inhibitor
  • G+ aerobes/Some G- aerobes/ G+G-anaerobes
  • Resistant to some lactamases
  • PO q 12 hr
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Adverse effects of Clavamox?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, inappetance

Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, cytopenias

28
Q

Cephalexin

A

-b-lactam/Cephalosporin 1st Gen
-G+ aerobes (esp Staph, Strep), Some G- aerobes, Anaerobic activity unpredictable
-Resistant to some lactamases
Not active in MRS
-PO q 12 hr

29
Q

Adverse reactions to Cephalexin?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, inappetance

Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, cytopenias

30
Q

Cefovicin

A

-b-lactam/Cephalosporin 3rd Gen
-G- and G+ aerobes (more G- than 1st gen) G+G- anaerobes
-More lactamase resistant than 1st gen.
Not active in MRS
-SC q 14 days

31
Q

Adverse effects of Cefovecin?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, inappetance

Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, cytopenias

32
Q

Cefpodoxime

A

-b-lactam/Cephalosporin 3rd Gen
-G- and G+ aerobes (more G- than 1st gen)
-More lactamase resistant than 1st gen.
Not active in anaerobes
Not active in MRS
-PO q 24 hrs

33
Q

Adverse effects of cefpodoxime?

A

-Vomiting, diarrhea, inappetance

Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, cytopenias

34
Q

Ceftiofur

A

-b-lactam/Cephalosporin 3rd Gen
-G- and G+ aerobes (more G- than 1st gen) G+G- anaerobes
-More lactamase resistant than 1st gen.
Not active in MRS
-SC q 24 hrs

35
Q

AR to Ceftiofur?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, inappetance

Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, cytopenias

36
Q

Penicillin G

A
  • b-lactam/Natural Penicilllin
  • G+ aerobes/ G+G-anaerobes
  • IV,IM q 6-8 hr
37
Q

AR to penicillin g?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, inappetance

Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis, cytopenias

38
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A
  • Fluoroquinolone
  • G- and G+ aerobes, ineffective against anaerobes
  • Highly variable oral bioavailability in dog, low in cats (~25%).
  • IV, PO q 24 hr
39
Q

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin?

A

Inappetence, vomiting
Rapid IV-> hypotension, tachycardia, erythema
CNS signs (ataxia, tremor, siezure) esp at high doses
Cartilage damage in young animals (esp > 7 days, 4-28 weeks of age)

40
Q

Enrofloxacin

A
  • Fluoroquinolone
  • G- and G+ aerobes, ineffective against anaerobes
  • Reduce dose/Increase interval w renal failure. Infuse diluted, and slowly for IV. Concentrated in urine.
  • IV, IM, PO q 24 hr
41
Q

AE of Enrofloxacin?

A

Inappetence, vomiting
Rapid IV-> hypotension, tachycardia, erythema
CNS signs (ataxia, tremor, siezure) esp at high doses
Blindness in cats (esp parenteral, high doses)
Cartilage damage in young animals (esp > 7 days, 4-28 weeks of age)

42
Q

Marbofloxacin

A
  • Fluoroquinolone
  • G- and G+ aerobes, ineffective against anaerobes
  • Reduce dose/Increase interval w renal failure. Infuse diluted, and slowly for IV. Concentrated in urine.
  • PO q 24 hr
43
Q

AE of Marbofloxacin?

A

Inappetence, vomiting
Rapid IV-> hypotension, tachycardia, erythema
CNS signs (ataxia, tremor, siezure) esp at high doses
Manufacturer research: no feline blindness adverse effect
Cartilage damage in young animals (esp > 7 days, 4-28 weeks of age)

44
Q

Clindamycin

A
  • Lincosamide
  • Primarily G+ aerobes, good anaerobic coverage
  • Similar coverage as erythromycin, also greater anaerobic coverage, and toxoplasmosis, neosporosis
  • PO, IV, IM q 12-24 hr
45
Q

AE of clindamycin?

A 
GI effects (inappetence, nausea, vomiting)
Esophageal damage with oral dosing, recommend efforts to "chase" dose with water.
46
Q

Erythromycin

A

-Macrolide
-Primarily G+ aerobes, some anaerobes, intracellular bacteria
-Effective against many intracellular bacteria
Penetration good across tissues, except CNS and urine.
Stimulates motilin receptors –> GI prokinetic effect
-PO q 8 hrs

47
Q

AE of Erythromycin?

A 
GI effects (inappetence, nausea, vomiting)
Inhibitor of P450 enzymes, risk of modifying clearance of other drugs' clearance
48
Q

Tylosin

A
  • Macrolide
  • Primarily G+ aerobes, some anaerobes
  • Used in antibiotic-responsive diarrhea
  • PO IM q 12-24 hrs
49
Q

AE of Tylosin?

A

Do not administer orally to rodents, rabbits, horses

50
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

-G+ and G-, aerobes and anaerobes, some rickettsia
-Outstanding tissue penetration across tissues.
Primarily metabolized in liver –> avoid in hepatic impairment
Clients must be counseled/cautioned regarding PPE to avoid accidental exposure
-IV, IM, PO q 6-12 hrs

51
Q

AE of Chloramphenicol?

A

GI effects common (inappetence, hypersalivation, vomiting)
Reversible bone marrow suppression (esp. high doses, prolonged treatment. Cats more susceptible vs dogs).
Potent inhibitor of P450 enzymes, risk of modifying clearance of other drugs’ clearance

52
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A
  • Nitrofuran
  • G+. G- aerobes
  • Primary use in UTI, where it concentrates
  • PO q 8 hrs
53
Q

AE of Nitrofurantoin?

A

GI: vomiting
Peripheral neuropathy (reversible)
Pulmonary hypersensitivity
Hepatotoxicity

54
Q

Metronidazole

A

-Nitroimidazole
-G+ and G- anaerobes, Giardia
-Anaerobic activation of prodrug limits spectrum to anaerobes
Resistance is rare. Unpalatable for cats, but more palatable benzoate preparation available via compounding.
-PO q 12-24 hrs

55
Q

AE of Metronidizole?

A

Neurotoxicity (lethargy, ataxia, tremors, head tilt, nystagmus, seizures), especially with high doses and/or hepatic impairment.
Inappetence, vomiting, diarrhea

56
Q

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

A

-Potentiated sulfonamides
-G+, G-, aerobes, some protozoa. Poor anaerobic activity
-Good prostate penetration (ion-trapped by low pH)
Highly concentrated in urine
Dogs (esp Doberman, Samoyed, Min. Schnauzer) more prone to adverse effects due to lower metabolic clearance
Poor anaerobic activity
-PO, IV q 12 hrs

57
Q

AE of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole?

A

vomiting, inappetence
Hypersensitivity: KCS, pyrexia, polyarthritis, cutaneous lesions, ITP, IMHA, hepatitis, pancreatitis, nephritis, bone marrow suppression.
Hypothyroidism

58
Q

Rifampin

A
  • Rifamycin
  • Staph, Strep,
  • High intracellular penetration
  • PO q 12 hrs
59
Q

AE of Rifampin?

A

Vomiting, inappetence are common
Imparts a (sometimes frightening) red-range color to urine, to a lesser degree sclera, saliva
Increased liver enzymes, hepatopathy (esp high doses)
Strong inducer of hepatic enzymes, potential for substantial modification of other drugs’ clearance

60
Q

Doxycycline

A

-Tetracycline
-G+, G-, some anaerobes, protozoa, atypical and intracellular pathogens (spirochetes, Mycoplasma spp., rickettsiae)
-Penetration good across tissues.
Concentrated in bile, urinary concentrations sufficient to treat UTI
Doxycycline can be administered with food (unlike other tetracyclines)
Unlike other tetracyclines doxycycline has less binding to Ca++, thus lower risk of bone growth impairment and tooth discoloration
PO, IV q 12-24 hrs

61
Q

AE of Doxycycline?

A 
GI effects (inappetence, nausea, vomiting)
Esophageal damage with oral dosing, recommend efforts to "chase" dose with water.
Potential to cause hepatic impairment and renal tubular necrosis
62
Q

Itraconozole

A

-Azole
-Used to treat several systemic mycoses, and Malassezia.
-Resistance to one azole does not imply resistance to other azoles
Bioavailability increased with food, but poor with concurrent gastric acid suppressant drugs
Variable bioavailability –> therapeutic monitoring may be valuable
Poor CNS, urine, eye penetration
Accumulates in skin and claws –> drug of choice for dermatophytosis
Good choice for fungal osteomyelitis
PO q 12-24 hrs

63
Q

AE to Itrakonozole?

A

GI: Inappetence, vomiting
Lethargy
Mild transaminase elevation, less commonly hepatitis
Potent inhibitor of P450 enzymes, risk of modifying clearance of other drugs’ clearance. This enzyme inhibition results in decreased testosterone and cortisol synthesis. Males may experience transient infertility.

64
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Azole
-Used to treat several systemic mycoses, and Malassezia.
-Use has been largely replaced by itraconozole
Resistance to one azole does not imply resistance to other azoles
Bioavailability increased with food, but poor with concurrent gastric acid suppressant drugs
Poor CNS penetration
Ketoconazole P450 inhibition resulting in reduced metabolic clearance (see adverse effects) is sometimes used intentionally to reduce the required dose of more expensive drugs, ketaconazole + cyclosporine. The appropriateness of this practice is not universally considered appropriate use of an antimicrobial
PO q 12 hrs

65
Q

AE of Ketokonozole?

A

GI: Inappetence, vomiting, diarrhea
Lethargy
Mild transaminase elevation, less commonly hepatitis
Potent inhibitor of P450 enzymes, risk of modifying clearance of other drugs’ clearance

66
Q

Terbinafine

A

-Allylamine
-Primary activity in dermatophytes, some activity in Malassezia
-Efficacy for invasive fungal infections is unclear.
PO q 24 hrs

67
Q

AE of Terbinafine?

A

GI: Vomiting
Increased liver enzymes
Facial pruritus (cats)

Pharmocology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions