Landing Gear/Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

How does the gear extend/retract?

A

The hydraulic selector valve actuated by the cockpit lever releases the locks, directing pressure to unlock the main gear and inboard doors. The gear extends and the last movement of the actuators locks the main gear stay and nose gear drag brace. The main gear inboard doors close, the nose gear doors close, and the aft door remains open.

To retract, the gear selector valve directs opening the main gear inboard doors and disengages the downlocks. The main gear inboard doors hydraulically close and lock; the nose gear doors are mechanically closed.

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2
Q

How is the nosewheel steering controlled? How much does it deflect?

A

Manually controlled, hydraulically actuated by the tiller, provides 45° deflection left and right of center

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3
Q

When is nosewheel steering available?

A

When main hydraulic pressure is 2,300 psi or greater - the aux hydraulic system cannot drive the nosewheel steering

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4
Q

How are the brakes operated in normal and emergency condition?

A

Controlled by master cylinder on each rudder pedal

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5
Q

What does each wheel include to relieve pressure?

A

Fusible plugs

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6
Q

What must be installed on the nose gear prior to taxi?

A

Steering disconnect pin

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7
Q

What prevents retraction of all three landing gear on the ground?

A

Gear pins inserted into the landing gear

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8
Q

How is retraction and extension of the landing gear controlled in the cockpit?

A

Mechanical lever that actuates a hydraulic selector valve

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9
Q

What do 3 green lights indicate for the landing gear?

A

Gear down and locked

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10
Q

What do 3 red lights indicate for the landing gear?

A

Gear in transit, gear unlocked

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11
Q

What do 3 green and 3 red lights indicate for the landing gear?

A

Gear down and locked with the landing gear lever out of down position

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12
Q

What do no lights indicate for the landing gear?

A

All gear up and locked

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13
Q

How is landing gear position monitored in case of indicator lights failure?

A

Green annunciators under a hinged door on the FO’s side panel for the mains, and a mechanical indicator pin on center pedestal for the nosewheel

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14
Q

What are 3 situations that cause the gear horn to sound? Can they be overridden?

A
  • Gear not down and flaps 25°, 45°: cannot be overridden
  • Gear handle not down when the aircraft is on the ground and starter bus powered: cannot be overridden
  • Gear not down and thrust lever angle below 60-70% N1 and airspeed below 150 KIAS: can override
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15
Q

What controls emergency extension of the landing gear? How is it activated?

A

The auxiliary hydraulic system closes the hydraulic on-off valves, opens a dump valve, and allows hand pump operation

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16
Q

How are braking operations controlled? (Not actual braking with the pedals)

A

Through the WHEEL BRAKE lever on the center pedestal

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17
Q

How do the brakes respond with the WHEEL BRAKE lever set to NORMAL?

A

Normal braking action - pressure on master cylinders through the rudder brakes control valve for braking, anti-skid available

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18
Q

How do the brakes respond with the WHEEL BRAKE lever set to EMERG?

A

Emergency accumulator activates to provide braking pressure (~ 18 applications of braking power), no anti-skid available, normal actuation of brakes through rudder braking

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19
Q

How do the brakes respond with the WHEEL BRAKE lever set to PARK BRAKE?

A

Uses pressure from main and emergency accumulators to hold the brakes stationary

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20
Q

What provides anti-skid? What type of anti-skid system is it?

A

The Maxaret system provides mechanical anti-skid

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21
Q

How does the Maxaret system provide anti-skid?

A

Entirely mechanical, no electrical input - reduces/releases brake pressure in the event of a skid, not functional until wheels begin to spin

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22
Q

What does a white L/R EMERG WHEEL BRAKE annunciator indicate?

A

Indicates 1,000 psi of pressure of greater applied to brakes with WHEEL BRAKE lever in EMERG or PARK BRAKE position

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23
Q

What is V LO of the landing gear?

A

220 KIAS

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24
Q

What is V LE of the landing gear?

A

220 KIAS

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25
Q

What are the rejected takeoff limitations regard brakes?

A
  • 1st RTO (below 90 KIAS): 25 minute cooling period
  • 2nd RTO (below 90 KIAS): 45 minutes cooling period
  • Any subsequent RTO (below 90 KIAS): 45 minutes cooling period
  • Any RTO 90 KIAS or greater: brake inspection required
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26
Q

Inadvertent landing gear retraction on the ground is prevented by:

A

A solenoid-operated device engaging the selector lever

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27
Q

When all landing gear are up and locked, position indications are:

A

No green or red annunciators illuminated

28
Q

The main landing gear inboard doors are closed:

A

When the gear is in either the extended or the retracted position

29
Q

The landing gear warning horn will sound when:

A. The gear is not locked down with flaps selected to 25°

B. The gear is not locked down with either power lever between 60-70% N1, and airspeed is below 150 KIAS

C. The gear is down and locked, the LANDING GEAR lever is not selected down, and start power is selected

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

30
Q

An indication of landing gear down and locked (3 green annunciators) accompanied by 3 red annunciators indicate:

A

The LANDING GEAR lever is not in the down position and the landing gear is down and locked

31
Q

If the nose gear does not lock down during extension, the indication is that:

A

The red N GEAR annunciator on the panel is illuminated, and the mechanical indicator on the pedestal is not extended

32
Q

Nosewheel steering with the gear retracted is prevented by:

A

A mechanically actuated hydraulic shut-off valve

33
Q

The EMRG (or EMERG) BRK LO PRESS annunciator illuminates:

A

When emergency brake accumulator pressure drops to 2,250 psi and below

34
Q

Antiskid protection is available:

A

When braking is from the normal system

35
Q

In order to select emergency brakes, the WHEEL BRAKE lever must be positioned:

A

To first aft notch marked in red

36
Q

What are the primary flight controls on the Hawker? What actuates them?

A

Ailerons, elevator, and rudder - all controlled via cables and pulleys, mass and aerodynamically balanced

37
Q

Where are the trim tabs located on the Hawker? What actuates them?

A

Located on rudder, elevator, and left ailerons - operated manually by handwheel on center pedestal

38
Q

What are the ways the elevator trim is actuated?

A

Manually via the handwheel, autopilot, electric trim switch on the yoke, and Mach Trim system

39
Q

What prevents aileron and elevator movement on the ground?

A

Integrated gust lock inside the cockpit

40
Q

What does the yellow ELEV/AIL TRIM annunciator indicate?

A

The elevator or aileron is mistrimmed prior to takeoff

41
Q

What causes an aileron out of trim warning?

A

Weight on wheels, both thrust levers more than 40-60% N1, aileron trim more than 1 unit left or right of center

42
Q

What causes an elevator out of trim warning?

A

Weight on wheels, both thrust levers more than 40-60% N1, elevator trim out of green range

43
Q

What actions must be taken if the yellow MACH TRIM FAIL annunciator is illuminated?

A

Reduce speed below 0.73 Mach

44
Q

What powers the airbrakes? What positions are there? What’s the only limitation

A

The hydraulic system - can be positioned anywhere from SHUT to full OPEN position. Limited to NO FLAPS when using

45
Q

What are the flaps settings? What powers flaps?

A

0°, 15°, 25°, 45°, 75° (Lift Dump) - powered by the hydraulic system

46
Q

How can we configure the airplane in order to use lift dump?

A

Must be on the ground, and flaps selected 45°

47
Q

In the Hawker POM, how is runway landing distance calculated?

A

Thrust reversers not included, lift dump included

Lift dump first, then thrust reversers second

48
Q

What are takeoff flaps? What are landing flaps?

A

0° and 15° for takeoff, 25° and 45° for landing

49
Q

What is the difference in selected and indicated regarding flaps?

A

Selected is what the flap handle is set to on the center pedestal, indicated is what the MFD displays

50
Q

What are the flap speeds?

A

15°: 220 KIAS

25°: 175 KIAS

45°: 165 KIAS

51
Q

What does the rudder bias system do? What powers it?

A

Provide automatic application of rudder in the event of asymmetric thrust powered by two bleed air operated struts

52
Q

What is the stall warning and identification system?

A

Stall warning - stick shaker

Stall identification - stick pusher

53
Q

What is the logic of the stall warning/identification system?

A

Two channels receive AoA input via a signal summing unit. One channel can trigger a stick shaker, but both must agree for the stick pusher to activate. Can never get a stick pusher before a stick shaker. No single SSU fault can cause a stick pusher. Autopilot disengages at stall warning

54
Q

The elevator trim tabs can be actuated:

A

Mechanically and electrically

55
Q

The purpose of the rudder bias system is:

A

To automatically counteract asymmetrical thrust due to engine failure

56
Q

If takeoff is attempted with the aileron/elevator gust lock engaged:

A

Only one throttle can be advanced to full power

57
Q

The guard is removed from a pitch trim switch:

A

During testing, to ascertain that trimming cannot be accomplished with one element of the switch

58
Q

The flight control surfaces that are hydraulically actuated are:

A

Flaps and airbrakes

59
Q

Asymmetrical flap operation is prevented by:

A

A synchronizing cable arrangement that isolates the hydraulic supply to the flap motor, stopping the flaps

60
Q

The purpose of lift dump is:

A

To increase drag and decrease lift on the ground

61
Q

Stall warning is provided by:

A

The stick shaker

62
Q

Stall identification is provided by:

A

The stick pusher

63
Q

In the stall warning and identification system:

A

Flap position is integrated with angle-of-attack signals to determine critical angle of attack of the wing

64
Q

Inadvertent stick pusher operation can be prevented by inhibiting:

A

Both channel 1 and channel 2 at the same time

65
Q

The RUDDER BIAS annunciator extinguishes when:

A

Both RUDDER BIAS switches are on