Labratort Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperglycemia. At what concentration of
glucose can we talk about hyperglycemia?

A

≥ 6.1mmol/L

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2
Q

Urea is a waste product formed in

A

Liver

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3
Q

Which test is the new gold standard for
diagnosis of viral infections?

A

Nucleic acid testing (PCR)

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4
Q

Reticulocytes are

A

immature red cell that contain RNA

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5
Q

a few hours of damage and remains elevated for
up to two weeks is

A

Cardiac troponin

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6
Q

What is pancytopenia?

A

Decreased WBCs, RBCs and PLTS

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7
Q

The preferred initial test for thyroid disorders
is :

A

TSH test

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8
Q

Erythropoietin stimulates production of
Select one:

A

Red Blood cell

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9
Q

Which dietary component(s) is/are needed for
DNA synthesis, and thus greatly influence the
production of red blood cells

A

Vitamin B12 and folic acid;

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10
Q

Which test is considered to be the most
specific test for identifying iron deficiency
anemia, unless infection or inflammation are
present?
Select one:

A

Ferritin

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11
Q

Anemia arises due to deficiency of

A

A. Iron;
B. Folic acid;
C. All of the above **
D. Vitamin B12;

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12
Q

Full Blood Count (FBC) - test evaluates:

A

The general condition of the body, with
pathological changes in the blood, requires
additional studies

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13
Q

What parameters indicate anemia?

A

RBC, Hb, Hct

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14
Q

T cells develop into several distinct type in

A

Thymus

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15
Q

Which additional parameters will help us
make a more accurate diagnosis?

A

Iron, serum

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16
Q

How to calculate INR?

A

(PT patient/PT control plasma) ISI.

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17
Q

what is the INR?

A

International normalized ratio.

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18
Q

which of the following signifies anemia

A

A low hemoglobin level.

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19
Q

what parameters indicate anisocytosis:

A

RDW

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20
Q

what is oligouria

A

Less than 500 ml/day.

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21
Q

MCV and RDW are indicating on pathology
of:

A

RBC

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22
Q

a chosen concentration (mg/L) of an
antibiotic which defines whether a species of
bacteria is susceptible or resistant to the
antibiotic:

A

A breakpoint

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23
Q

Variation in erythrocyte shape is called ?

A

poikolocytosis.

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24
Q

In which phase of laboratory testing do the
most errors occur ?

A

preanalysis.

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25
Q

The yellow color of urine is due to:

A

urobilin.

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26
Q

Normal pH range for urine is

A

4.6 - 8

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27
Q

Which is the example of organism in BSL3?

A

TB

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28
Q

The mean and normal range of Hemoglobin
for an adult male ?

A

15.7 ( 14.0-17.5 ) g / dL.

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29
Q

Plasma is about 45 % of the total blood
volume?

A

False

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30
Q

Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine
with?

A

Increased volume and increased specific
gravity.

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31
Q

Select the statement about red blood cells
that is incorrect:

A

Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen.

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32
Q

The type of white blood cell that often
arrives at the site of infection first , is a
granulocyte , and contains granules that stain
light purple is a

A

Neutrophils

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33
Q

Which is the example of organism in BSL 4

A

EBOLA

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34
Q

Normal value for INR in healthy people is

A

1.1 or below

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35
Q

which test is used to screen for neural
defects such as spina bifida ?

A

AFP

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36
Q

Which pattern is characteristic for
hyperthyroidism

A

T3-high or normal, T4-high or normal,
TSH-low

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37
Q

Positive results for both CCP antibody and RF,
means ?

A

it is very likely that a patient has RA.

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38
Q

In MTB testing culture Negative is reported
after ?

A

6 weeks

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39
Q

Normal range of hematocrit (Hct) for an adult
male is ?

A

41 - 51 %

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40
Q

Hematocrit (Hct) is ?

A

the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to
the whole blood.

41
Q

Polyuria is

A

production of more than 2000 ml of urine
in 24 hrs.

42
Q

Shortened aPTT tests may be due to

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

43
Q

The term primary hemostasis refers to ?

A

platelet reactivity at the site of injury

44
Q

Lymphopenia can be caused by ?

45
Q

the blood urea nitrogen or BUN test is
primarily used

A

To evaluate kidney function

46
Q

Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) test evaluates ?
select one

A

the average amount of glucose in the
blood over the past 2 to 4 months.

47
Q

Concentration of antibiotic that inhibits the
visible growth of an organisim in an in vitro
system is

A

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).

48
Q

Mean cell haemoglobin concentration
(MCHC) is

A

the average concentration of Hb in a given
volume of packed red cells.

49
Q

Mean cell volume (MCV) is

A

The average volume of a single red cell.

50
Q

The mean normal range for platelet count is

A

250 (150-350) × 109 /L

51
Q

The term secondary hemostasis refers to ?

A

the cascade of enzymatic reactions that
results in the conversion of fibrinogen to
fibrin monomers.

52
Q

Initial screening for coronary risk panel may
involve ?

A

full lipid panel should be used

53
Q

Reference intervals or “normal range” are
defined as the range of values into which

A

95% of nondiseased (“normal”) individuals
will fall

54
Q

Refractory periodontitis

A

develops due to a complete remission
after therapy, followed by recurrence of the
disease as a result of reformation of plague,
and calculus.

55
Q

Which is the lipid profile test ?

A

cholesterol total, HDL-cholesterol, LDL-
cholesterol, VLDL-cholesterol, triglycerides.

56
Q

fasting plasma glucose level more than 126
mg/dL (more than 7mmol/L) indicates

A

indicates diabetes mellitus.

57
Q

the ability of a test to discriminate disease
from no disease is described by

A

specificity of the test.

58
Q

Negative results for both CCP antibody and
RF, means

A

it is less likely that the person has RA.

59
Q

Prolonged aPTT tests may be due to

A

Von Wilebrand disease.

60
Q

excretion of more than 4 g/day protein in
urine is ?

A

heavy proteinuria

61
Q

Schuffner’s granules” are characteristics of

62
Q

a normal eGFR for adults is

A

greater than 90 mL/min/1.73m2

63
Q

creatinine is a waste product produced by ?

64
Q

Fasting plasma glucose level < 100 mg/dl (<
5.6 mmol/L) ?

A

Is a normal value

65
Q

healthy adults with no other risk factors for
heart disease should be tested with a fasting
lipid panel

A

once every four to six years.

66
Q

In hypochromia

A

MCH and MCHC are usually decreased.

67
Q

the mean and normal range for white blood
cell count is

A

7.8 (4.4-11.3) x 109/L

68
Q

circle the correct answer

A

precipitation immunoassays use
radioisotopes as labels.

69
Q

In congenital viral infection :

A

maternal IgG antibodies passively
transfer across the placenta into the fetal
circulation.

70
Q

A very high level of ALT is frequently seen
with :

A

acute hepatitis.

71
Q

Gross hematuria is

A

presence of an increased number of
red blood cells in urine visible to the
naked eye.

72
Q

The presence of hypochromic and
normochromic cells in the same film is called

A

anisochromia or dimorphic anemia.

73
Q

Based on cytochemistry myeloblasts are
positive for

74
Q

coagulation basic tests. which parameters
indicate intrinsic pathways

75
Q

What the WBC (leukocytes) indicate

A

they release chemicals from their
granules that destroy pathogens; they
are also capable of phagocytosis. The
monocyte an agranular leukocyte,
differentiates into a macrophage that
then phagocytizes the pathogens.

76
Q

Nocturnia is ?

A

excretion of more than 400 mL of
urine at night with specific gravity <1.010

77
Q

The specific gravity of a specimen indicates

A

the relative proportions of dissolved
solid components to total volume of the
specimen.

78
Q

Osmolality of a specimen indicates:

A

the number of particles of solute per
unit of solution.

79
Q

Which is the most accurate “gold standard”
test in diagnosing MTB

80
Q

Circle the correct statement:

A

up to 2 mg/dL acetoacetic acid in
urine is normal.

81
Q

Measuring potassium is especially important:

A

in diabetec patients.

82
Q

in FBC got leukocytosis with neutrophilia, left
shift. what process is indicated

A

acute bacterial infection

83
Q

What is polyuria

A

&gt: 2500 mL/day.

84
Q

A relative increase of leukocytes is

A

an increase in percentage only

85
Q

If the platelet count is normal :

A

no single platelets is found per 10-30
red cell.

86
Q

Microbes in BSL 3

A

can cause serious or potentially fatal
disease through inhalation.

87
Q

Microbes in BSL 1

A

are not known to consistently cause
disease in healthy adults and present
minimal potential hazard to personnel
and the environment

88
Q

Differential leukocyte count is :

A

percentage distribution of the
different types of leukocytes.

89
Q

eGFR should be calculated :

A

every time a creatinine blood test is
done

90
Q

red blood cells survive around ______days

91
Q

Patient has HBsAg (-), anti-HBc (-), anti-HBs
(+). Patient is:

A

immune due to hepatitis B
vaccination.

92
Q

Specific IgM is usually found in blood within
the :

A

first week of primary infection and
typically becomes undetectable within 1
to 3 monthes.

93
Q

Microbes in BSL 2 :

A

pose a moderate hazard to personnel
and the environment.

94
Q

Microbes in BSL 4 :

A

are very easily transmitted and cause
serious or fatal disease for which there
are no vaccines or treatments.

95
Q

How do transferrin level and total iron-
binding capacity (TIBC) change in iron deficiency
anemia?

A

transferrin level and TIBC are high.

96
Q

Which parameter in urine test indicates
infection:

A

Leukocytes, nitrite.

97
Q

Progenitor cell for platelets is:

A

Megakaryocyte.

98
Q

How to use glycohemoglobin parameters:

A

The amount of glycosylation is determined
byglucose concentration present over the two
or three months before obtaining the plasma
sample.