Labour & Postpartum Flashcards

1
Q

Which is FALSE regarding oxytocin in pregnancy and labour?

a. Oxytocin is a nonapeptide
b. Oxytocin receptor concentrations markedly increase with advancing gestation under the influence of rising progesterone
c. Oxytocin receptors in the decidua lead to PGF2-alpha production
d. Oxytocin works largely via an oxytocin receptor initiating a G-protein dependent activation of phospholipase C, inositol triphosphate, and sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium release

A

b. Oxytocin receptor concentrations markedly increase with advancing gestation under the influence of rising progesterone

O

Progesterone is responsible for uterine quiescence. High levels of progesterone does not mediate rising oxytocin receptor concentration.
FALLING progesterone mediates this

https://journals.physiology.org/doi/full/10.1152/physrev.2001.81.2.629

**Careful as there has been a previous question stating “nanopeptide” which is incorrect

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2
Q

Which of the following statements about the composition of breast milk is FALSE?

A. Human Breast Milk has approximately one-quarter the amount of protein in comparison with Cow’s Milk
B. Human Breast Milk has approximately one-third the amount of NaCl in comparison with Cow’s Milk
C. Human Breast Milk has approximately one-third the amount of calcium in comparison with Cow’s Milk
D. Human Breast Milk has approximately double the Vitamin D content in comparison with Cow’s Milk

A

D. Human Breast Milk has approximately double the Vitamin D content in comparison with Cow’s Milk

O

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3
Q

The infant feeding method MOST LIKELY to result in MTCT of HIV is

a. Exclusive breastfeeding
b. Exclusive formula feeding
c. Combination breast and formula feeding
d. Initial colostrum then formula feeding

A

c. Combination breast and formula feeding

O

> 50% transmission if prevention measures not adhered to AND mixed fed

Lancet trial found combination feeding highest risk
- contaminant foods and fluids in mixed feeding damage bowel –> increased risk of transmission

Women who live in Africa should exclusively breastfeed

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4
Q

Transient post partum blues with depressive symptoms that resolve spontaneously affect what percentage of women?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 40%
e. >50%

A

e. >50%

O

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5
Q

A 34yo G1P0 has an unsuccessful ECV at 36 weeks for breech. You plan a Caesarean. She requests this to be done at 37 weeks because her husband is in the armed forces and is being posted overseas. You tell her the risk of neonatal admission to a special care baby unit following elective Caesarean at this gestation is

a. 3%
b. 6%
c. 9%
d. 12%

A

c. 9%

According to RANZCOG May 2011 MCQs.

?Refer to AZTECS trial

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6
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding mode of delivery breech presentation at term?

a. Elective Caesarean at 39 weeks will prevent fetal death from a cord prolapse in spontaneous labour at 40 weeks
b. Morbidity and mortality from head entrapment is reduced by Elective Caesarean compared with vaginal breech delivery
c. All women with breech presentation at term should be advised to have an Elective Caesarean
d. RCT’s indicate lower mortality with Elective Caesarean than attempted vaginal breech delivery
e. Caesarean section is best performed after 39 weeks gestation and prior to the onset of spontaneous labour
f. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is indicated in labour

A

c. All women with breech presentation at term should be advised to have an Elective Caesarean

O

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7
Q

Which of the following would NOT enhance the contraction of a myometrial cell?

a. Binding of intracellular calcium to calmodulin to activate calcium dependent myosin light chain kinase
b. Voltage operated calcium channel activation
c. Receptor operated calcium channel activation
d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium uptake

A

d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium uptake

The main function of the SR is to store calcium ions
Therefore reduces intracellular calcium

O

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8
Q

Which is LEAST CORRECT regarding meconium in the amniotic fluid at term

a. Meconium is found in around 5% of women in labour at 38 or more weeks gestation
b. The finding of meconium in the amniotic fluid at term increases the perinatal mortality from 0.3/1000 to around 1.5/1000
c. The incidence of meconium aspiration syndrome in the presence of meconium stained liquor is around 1%
d. Meconium stained liquor is an indication for continuous electronic fetal monitoring in labour

A

a. Meconium is found in around 5% of women in labour at 38 or more weeks gestation

O

Overall 12-22%, unsure how stratifies by gestation.

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9
Q

A 37yo G4P3 presents with SROM at term. Her current and prior pregnancies were uncomplicated. FBC is normal, except for a platelet count of 85x10^9 at admission. She is asymptomatic. Management of her labour should include:

a. Fetal platelet count via scalp sample
b. Notification of blood bank to have platelet packs available for maternal transfusion
c. Normal labour management and neonatal platelet count
d. Caesarean section rather than mid cavity forceps to minimise fetal trauma

A

c. Normal labour management and neonatal platelet count

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10
Q

Which is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in treating a woman with severe idiopathic cardiomyopathy who is having a 1500mL PPH with ongoing blood loss. She has already had 5iu oxytocin IV.

a. Ergometrine 0.25mg IV
b. Further 10IU oxytocin IV
c. Carboprost 1.5mg IV
d. Oxytocin 40 units in 1 litre Hartmann’s over 4 hours
e. Misoprostol 200-400mcg orally

A

A - correct answer according to official Feb 2010 MCQ

Don’t understand how this is correct as thought ergometrine contraindicated??
Slow oxytocin infusion is best but in a smaller bag of fluids over a lower rate.

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11
Q

A 26yo multiparous woman with T2DM had a spontaneous vaginal birth 72 hours ago with pudendal block, midline episiotomy, and 3rd degree tear. She now has a temperature of 39.2. Her pulse is 120/min, respiration is 32/min and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. The uterus is 2cm below the umbilicus and minimally tender to manipulation. Lochia is equivalent to a normal period, and is malodorous. The perineum and lower vulva and vagina are oedematous but not tender to touch. The perineal skin and vaginal mucosa are pale grey. Sensation to pinprick is markedly diminished in this area. Of the following, the MOST LIKELY diagnosis is

a. Peri-rectal abscess
b. Endometritis
c. Rectovaginal fistula
d. Necrotising fasciitis

A

d. Necrotising fasciitis

O

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12
Q

A 26 year old multigravid woman at 30 weeks gestation comes to the labour suite at a Level II hospital with a frank breech presentation at +3 station. Delivery begins to occur spontaneously until expulsion of the fetal thorax, when the cervix is noted to be incompletely dilated and the fetal head entrapped. Which of the following would be of MOST VALUE in this clinical situation?

a. Thiopentone
b. Fentanyl
c. Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)
d. Salbutamol
e. Nitrous oxide and oxygen

A

c. Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)

O

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13
Q

The best routine method of managing the delivery of the placenta at Caesarean Section is:

a) CCT after intravenous Syntocinon
b) Immediate MROP
c) Secure the incisional angles whilst awaiting spontaneous separation
d) Crede’s technique of uterine fundal expression

A

a) CCT after intravenous Syntocinon

O

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14
Q

Increases in either the number or sensitivity of receptors occurs in the uterus in the late gestation for each of the following EXCEPT:

a) Oxytocin
b) Corticotropin Releasing Hormone
c) Endothelins
d) Beta-adrenergic agents

A

d) Beta-adrenergic agents

These induce uterine relaxation

O

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15
Q

Which fetal diameter presents in an occipito-posterior presentation?

a. Vertigo-mental
b. Suboccipito-bregmatic
c. Occipito-frontal
d. Submento-bregmatic

A

c. Occipito-frontal

Vertex - flexion of the fetal head

  • Suboccipitobregmatic = Below the occiput to the centre of the anterior fontanelle
  • 9.5cm

Deflexed OP

  • Occipitofrontal =Occiput to the root of the nose
  • 11.5cm

Brow

  • Mentovertical = Chin to the centre of the sagittal suture
  • 13-14cm

Face

  • Submentobregmatic angle = Angle between the neck and chin and the centre of the anterior fontanelle
  • 9.5cm
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16
Q

Principles of management of a recto-vaginal fistula complicated by fever following obstetric trauma include:

a. repair after subsiding inflammation with single layer closure without tension.
b. immediate repair with minimal mobilisation of adjacent tissue planes.
c. immediate repair with partial excision of fistula tract.
d. repair after subsiding inflammation with multilayered closure without tension.

A

d. repair after subsiding inflammation with multilayered closure without tension.

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17
Q

You are the on-call registrar for Obstetrics. A patient has delivered her 5th baby but has not delivered the placenta yet. You receive an urgent call to the delivery suite and on arrival you diagnose acute inversion of the uterus. The patient is in shock.
What is the most appropriate first management step?

a. Attempt to remove the placenta
b. Attempt to reposition the uterus
c. Take the patient immediately to theatre
d. Give Terbutaline 0.25mg subcutaneous/intravenous

A

b. Attempt to reposition the uterus

Replace 1st THEN deliver placenta after via MROP

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18
Q

Following the conclusion of the ORACLE trials, which of the following antibiotics, or combinations of antibiotics, would be indicated in women with threatened preterm labour (without premature rupture of the membranes) and no other clinical signs of infection?

a. Erythromycin
b. None of these options are indicated
c. Amoxycillin and Metronidazole
d. Amoxycillin-clavulinic acid

A

b. None of these options are indicated

O

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19
Q

What component for managing the delivery of the placenta at caesarean section has been shown to reduce the amount of blood loss?

a. Controlled cord traction
b. Immediate manual removal of the placenta
c. Secure the incisional angles whilst awaiting spontaneous separation
d. Intravenous oxytocin

A

d. Intravenous oxytocin

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20
Q

In advising a woman on whether she should continue her pregnancy to 42 weeks or be induced at 41 weeks, which of the following is FALSE?

a. An ultrasound will be indicated if she elects to wait.
b. The Canadian randomised trial (Hannah et al) showed that induction of labour increases the likelihood of caesarean section.
c. If the Bishop’s cervical score is <5, intravaginal prostaglandins will be recommended.
d. Waiting is likely to be associated with a higher perinatal mortality

A

b. The Canadian randomised trial (Hannah et al) showed that induction of labour increases the likelihood of caesarean section.

1992
Induction of labour as compared with serial antenatal monitoring in post-term pregnancy. A randomised controlled trial. The Canadian Multicenter Post-term Pregnancy Trial Group.
- In post-term pregnancy, IOL results in a lower rate of C/S than serial antenatal monitoring
- Rates of perinatal mortality and neonatal morbidity are similar with the two approaches to management

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21
Q

A woman G3P2 at 35 weeks gestation, has confirmed preterm pre-labour rupture of membranes. In the context of the PPROMT trial which of the following outcomes would be most likely if she was managed expectantly?

a. Higher risk of Caesarean section
b. Shorter hospital stay
c. Higher risk of antepartum haemorrhage
d. Lower risk of intrapartum fever

A

c. Higher risk of antepartum haemorrhage

The women assigned to expectant management group had higher risks of APH and use of postpartum antibiotics and a longer hospital stay
- Lower risk of CS

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22
Q

Most common cause of post partum endometritis at 6/52 is

a) Streptococcus
b) Peptostreptococcus
c) Chlamydia
d) Klebsiella
e) Proteus

A

J says b

Difficult to find answer online but chlamydia commonly associated with late onset endometritis so ?c

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23
Q

Patient has epidural topup with marcaine for operative delivery. Immediate tonic clonic seizure then cardiac arrest. Least helpful thing to do

a) Intubate
b) Ventilate with mask / 100%O2
c) Deliver baby urgently
d) Ephedrine IV
e) CPR with patient in left lateral tilt

A

d) Ephedrine IV

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24
Q

Following the conclusion of the ORACLE trial, which of the following would be the PREFERRED antibiotic therapy in women with preterm premature rupture of the membranes?

a. Amoxicillin
b. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
c. Erythromycin
d. Erythromycin and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid

A

c. Erythromycin

O

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25
Q

Beta sympaticomimetics in randomised, placebo controlled trials, have been demonstrated most convincingly to

a. lower risk of preterm delivery
b. lower risk of delivery within 48 hours
c. cause higher birthweight
d. lower perinatal mortality

A

b. lower risk of delivery within 48 hours

O

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26
Q

Which of the following statements about endocrinology of lactation is TRUE?

a. In the third trimester pituitary lactotrophs are increased in size but not in number
b. Continued lactation post partum depends upon persistently high basal prolactin levels
c. The progestogen only pill has minimal effect on lactation, but depo medroxyprogesterone acetate is contraindicated in the lactating woman
d. Initiation of lactation is a result of decreased oestrogen and progesterone concentration after delivery

A

d. Initiation of lactation is a result of decreased oestrogen and progesterone concentration after delivery

O

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27
Q

A CTG is performed on a 24yo woman at 41weeks who has stable mild chronic HTN. The CTG pictured shows
(?baseline, absent variability)
The LEAST appropriate management is:

a. repeat CTG in 12-24hours
b. IOL
c. doppler USS of umbilical artery
d. to continue CTG for a further 60minutes
e. a vibro-acoustic stimulation test

A

a. repeat CTG in 12-24hours

O

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28
Q

Human labour

a. can be delayed treating women with high dose progesterone
b. is induced by oxytocin administration at any stage of pregnancy
c. is associated with a decline in maternal circulating concentration of CRH (Corticotrophin releasing hormone)
d. is preceded by an increase in expression of connexin 43 in the myometrium
e. is associated with an increase in dermaton and chondroilin-sulphate and decreased hyaluronic acid content in the cervix

A

d. is preceded by an increase in expression of connexin 43 in the myometrium

As per RANZCOG MCQs August 2009

29
Q

During an assisted breech delivery of an infant at 32 weeks gestation, injury to the infant liver is avoided by?

a. Pinard’s manoeuvre
b. Keeping the back uppermost until the shoulders are delivered
c. Lovsett’s manoeuvre
d. Allowing the shoulders to deliver by maternal effort alone
e. Handling the infant only by the thighs until the shoulders are delivered

A

e. Handling the infant only by the thighs until the shoulders are delivered

O

30
Q

A 36yo woman is undergoing her 3rd LSCS and sustains a bladder injury after the bladder which is adherent to the lower uterine segment has been dissected. The bladder is repaired in layers after the ureters are identified as being free of injury. Antibiotics are commenced and an IDUC is placed. When should the cystogram be performed and the IDUC removed?

a. When urine is clear of blood
b. Routine removal day after surgery
c. Once course of antibiotics is complete
d. On the 10th day postoperatively

A

d. On the 10th day postoperatively

O

31
Q

A multip with twins has been labouring with epidural analgesia and has just had a low forceps for the first twin for delay in second stage. The second twin is oblique with head in the RLQ. There is considerable bleeding from the uterine cavity and the FHR is 80bpm. The appropriate action is:

a. lower uterine segment caesarean section
b. ECV, amniotomy and get mother to push
c. ECV, amniotomy and extraction with ventouse
d. Internal cephalic version, amniotomy and breech extraction
e. Internal podalic version, amniotomy and breech extraction

A

e. Internal podalic version, amniotomy and breech extraction

O

32
Q

Do CS and find an unanticipated abdominal pregnancy with placenta involving left broad ligament and sigmoid. Management:

a. Attempt to remove all placenta doing colostomy
b. Remove as much of the placenta as you can
c. Leave placenta behind

A

c. Leave placenta behind

M

Often best to deliver fetus and leave placenta behind to regress naturally. Very vascular and tissue it is removed from cannot contract so significant bleeding risk.

33
Q

Which structures do you incise during a episiotomy?

a. Ischiocavernosus and bulbocavernosus
b. Bulbocavernosus and superficial transversus perineii
c. Ischiocavernosus and superficial transversus perineii
d. Iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus
e. Iliococcygeus and ischiococcygeus

A

b. Bulbocavernosus and superficial transversus perineii

M

34
Q

A multiparous woman presents 8 weeks post partum complaining of tiredness, palpitations and tremor. She has been losing weight and is unable to sleep. Pulse is 100 bpm, BP 160/90. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. HIV
b. Anxiety
c. Drug abuse
d. Thyrotoxicosis

A

d. Thyrotoxicosis

M

35
Q

The lowest morbidity from PPROM at 32 weeks occurs with the following management?

a. HVS and await labour
b. Steroids and CS in 24-36 hrs
c. Steroids and induce in 24-36 hrs
d. Delivery immediately

A

a. HVS and await labour

M

36
Q

All are risk factors for preterm delivery except:

a. Smoking
b. Low socio-economic group
c. Previous pre-term delivery
d. Previous 2nd trimester spontaneous miscarriage
e. Previous unexplained stillbirth

A

e. Previous unexplained stillbirth

M

37
Q

In locking of twins the most likely presentation is:

a. cephalic-cephalic
b. cephalic-breech
c. cephalic-transverse
d. breech-cephalic
e. breech-breech

A

d. breech-cephalic

M

38
Q

Natural twins. Monoamniotic in a multip. Normal growth. Premature labour at 35 weeks, twin 1 frank breech, twin 2 cephalic

a. LUSCS
b. Classical CS
c. Do nothing active
d. IV Ventolin
e. Cervical suture
f. Vaginal delivery
g. Internal version and breech extraction

A

a. LUSCS

M

As risk of locking

NB RANZCOG recommends offering delivery 32-33+6 for MCMA as higher risk stillbirth past 34weeks

39
Q

Placenta praevia accreta diagnosed on CS associated with massive haemorrhage. Management:

a. Oversewing blood vessels
b. Ligate internal iliac artery
c. Total abdominal hysterectomy
d. Subtotal hysterectomy
e. Uterine packing

A

c. Total abdominal hysterectomy

M

40
Q

Most common complication of CS / hysterectomy:

a. Haemorrhage
b. Ureteric damage
c. Infection
d. Bladder damage
e. Pelvic thrombosis

A

a. Haemorrhage

M

41
Q

Which is not characteristic of a variable deceleration?

a. Response to hypoxia
b. Activation of baroreceptors
c. Result of head compression
d. Stimulation of the carotid sinus

A

c. Result of head compression

M

42
Q

35/40 gestation, complaining of several days of reduced fetal movements. CTG show flat trace, persistent shallow decelerations. The least helpful thing you could do is:

a. Immediate LUSCS
b. IOL
c. Repeat CTG in 12/24
d. Fetal blood sampling

A

c. Repeat CTG in 12/24

M

43
Q

A patient presented with contractions at 34 weeks gestation. A 20-minute CTG was performed on admission. This showed a baseline of 140 bpm, with reduced beat to beat variability and there was no evidence of acceleration or decelerations. What is the next appropriate management?

a. Amniocentesis
b. US for biophysical profile
c. CS delivery
d. Induction if cervix is favourable
e. Continue the CTG for further 20 mins

A

e. Continue the CTG for further 20 mins

M

44
Q

Which element of Bishop score most relates to decreased length of labour?

a. Dilation
b. Effacement
c. Station
d. Consistency

A

a. Dilation

M
B agrees

45
Q

Dublin trial, incorrect option:

a. One to one care, FH every 15 mins then after every contraction
b. Low risk patients were predefined and there was no statistically significant difference in outcomes
c. ARM and clear liquor were part of inclusion criteria
d. More seizures in IA versus EFM group
e. Results can’t be extrapolated if colour of liquor unknown
f. Don’t use EFM for low risk pregnancy

A

f. Don’t use EFM for low risk pregnancy

M

46
Q

Primip in labour at 5cm. CTG variable deceleration to 80 bpm and lasting 20 seconds. Management?

a. Scalp pH
b. LUSCS
c. Augment labour
d. Reposition mother and observe closely
e. Arrange for epidural block

A

d. Reposition mother and observe closely

M

47
Q

Primigravida at 5cm dilation. Vulva oedema is most commonly associated with:

a. Obstructed labour
b. Pre-eclampsia
c. Allergy to hibitane obstetric cream
d. Renal insufficiency

A

a. Obstructed labour

M

48
Q

Primigravida in labour ward with 5 minutely contractions at term. The cervix was 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced and –2 station. 4 hours later, CTG was reactive, cervix became 4 cm dilated 75% effaced. 3 hrs later cervix still 4 cm dilated and CTG was normal. What is your management?

a. Amniotomy and syntocinon
b. R/V in 4 hrs
c. Emerg CS
d. Epidural block
e. Buscopan and Phenergan

A

a. Amniotomy and syntocinon

M

49
Q

What is the earliest sign of uterine rupture?

a. Abnormal fetal heart rate pattern
b. Pain
c. Bleeding
d. Loss of station
d. Cessation of contractions

A

a. Abnormal fetal heart rate pattern

M

50
Q

A 20yo primigravida presented in established labour, cervical dilation 7.5cm, ROM 10h, FH 144, contracting 2-3minutely lasting 45sec. The cervix was fully dilated after one hour and pushing actively the vertex descended from at spines to +2. Most likely diagnosis?

a. arrested labour
b. pelvic dystocia
c. normal labour
d. requires augmentation
e. anticipate shoulder dystocia

A

c. normal labour

M

51
Q

Term primigravida, second stage of 90 minutes. VE: anterior fontanelle felt below pubic arch and orbital ridges posterior to it with station at spines. Which of the following is correct?

a. Await NVD
b. Mid-cavity forceps delivery
c. Manual rotation followed by forceps delivery
d. Vacuum extraction
e. Caesarean section

A

e. Caesarean section

M

This is a brow presentation

52
Q

A MG at term with face presentation, S2 45 minutes. O/E face, mentoanterior +1 cm, Normal CTG. Most appropriate management?

a. Encourage to push
b. Keillands rotation forceps
c. CS
d. NBF delivery
e. Syntocinon infusion

A

a. Encourage to push

M

53
Q

A primip, short 1st stage, slow but steady 2nd stage. After delivery of the head, shoulders do not follow with strong downward traction or movement into the oblique (Wood screw manoevre). What should you do next?

a. Fundal pressure and increased maternal effort
b. Push head back in and do LUSCS
c. Fracture the clavicle
d. Deliver the posterior arm

A

d. Deliver the posterior arm

M

54
Q

You are performing a vaginal breech delivery, the breech and scapula were delivered. The left was delivered spontaneously and (illustration provided showing right arm behind head with flexion at elbow, shoulder extended). What is the next appropriate step?

a. Insertion of your fingers and perform a manual extraction of the arm
b. Clockwise rotation of the fetal body
c. Anticlockwise rotation of the fetal body
d. Insertion of a hook to extract the arm
e. Allow the breech to hang and wait for spontaneous delivery

A

c. Anticlockwise rotation of the fetal body

M

55
Q

Which of the following manoeuvres will avoid injury to the liver?

a. Perform Prague manoeuvre
b. Apply both hands across the fetal trunk to splint the abdomen
c. Employ Pinards manoeuvre
d. Apply the thumbs overlying the lumbosacral spine and the index fingers on the iliac crests
e. Apply gentle traction on the legs

A

d. Apply the thumbs overlying the lumbosacral spine and the index fingers on the iliac crests

M

See similar question also

56
Q

A grand multi had a rapid labour and delivered 20 minutes ago. She developed sudden onset of dyspnoea and collapsed on the floor. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. AMI
b. Amniotic fluid embolism
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Splenic rupture
e. Cerebral haemorrhage

A

b. Amniotic fluid embolism

Grand multiparity and rapid delivery are risk factors

M

57
Q

Fulminating PET, minimal coagulation dysfunction. Delivered by LUSCS under GA. Placenta removed and now bleeding very heavily despite bimanual compression.

a. Insert catheter
b. FFP
c. Tie off internal iliacs
d. Protamine sulphate
e. IM ergometrine
f. Hysterectomy
g. Bimanual compression
h. PGF 2 alpha
i. EUA and D&C
j. Antibiotics

A

h. PGF 2 alpha

M

58
Q

23 yo primip, previous DVT and fully heparinized. Bleeding ++ despite syntometrine and IV syntocinon

a. Insert catheter
b. FFP
c. Tie off internal iliacs
d. Protamine sulphate
e. IM ergometrine
f. Hysterectomy
g. Bimanual compression
h. PGF 2 alpha
i. EUA and D&C
j. Antibiotic

A

d. Protamine sulphate

M

59
Q

Woman presents 1 week after uncomplicated NVD. Normal BP, temp etc but heavy bleeding. US -> echoes in uterine cavity.

a. Insert catheter
b. FFP
c. Tie off internal iliacs
d. Protamine sulphate
e. IM ergometrine
f. Hysterectomy
g. Bimanual compression
h. PGF 2 alpha
i. EUA and D&C
j. Antibiotic

A

i. EUA and D&C

M

60
Q

Which of the following is the most effective way to avoid aspiration in a GA CS?

a. Fasting during labour
b. Use of antacids
c. Rapid-sequence induction techniques with cricoid pressure
d. Premedication with sedatives and antiemetics
e. Premedication with atropine

A

c. Rapid-sequence induction techniques with cricoid pressure

The use of rapid sequence induction and cricoid pressure reduces the risk of aspiration whilst the use of antacids reduces the acidity of the stomach contents and the subsequent damage done by aspiration

M

60
Q

Which of the following is the most effective way to avoid aspiration in a GA CS?

a. Fasting during labour
b. Use of antacids
c. Rapid-sequence induction techniques with cricoid pressure
d. Premedication with sedatives and antiemetics
e. Premedication with atropine

A

c. Rapid-sequence induction techniques with cricoid pressure

The use of rapid sequence induction and cricoid pressure reduces the risk of aspiration whilst the use of antacids reduces the acidity of the stomach contents and the subsequent damage done by aspiration

M

61
Q

MG is labour, top up of 15ml rupivicaine 0.5% for instrumental delivery. Suddenly, seizure and cardiac arrest. Likely cause:

a. Local anaesthetic toxicity
b. Spinal block
c. Eclampsia
d. Idiopathic epilepsy

A

a. Local anaesthetic toxicity

M

62
Q

A primiparous patient has a normal vaginal delivery including 4h of continuous lumbar epidural anaesthesia. She was catheterised twice in labour with in-out catheter. 6 hrs after delivery she was unable to void. An indwelling catheter was inserted and drained 1500mls. The IDC was left in overnight and removed the next day. She voided small amounts during the day 50-100mls at a time. A second IDC was inserted and drained 700 ml. The cause of the urinary retention was:

a. Urethral spasm
b. Urethral trauma
c. Detrusor failure
d. Parasympathetic blockade caused by the epidural anaesthesia

A

c. Detrusor failure

M

63
Q

You are asked to see patient with NVD, midline episiotomy. Examination: BP 110/60, left lateral vaginal wall mass, enlarging, now 6cm.

a. Pack vagina
b. Undo episiotomy
c. Drain mass
d. Blood transfusion
e. Commence iv Abs

A

c. Drain mass

M

64
Q

Lactating mother develops mastitis. Least correct option?

a. Most likely to occur 3-4 weeks post partum
b. Caused by Staph aureus
c. Treatment with flucloxacillin
d. Should not feed for 7-10 days
e. Tends to recur

A

d. Should not feed for 7-10 days

M

65
Q

A low risk primip presents in spontaneous labour and she is 3 x 1. She is reassessed in 4 hours and she is 5 cm x FE in 4 hours.
What is your next step?

A. Repeat VE 4 hours
B. ARM and review 2 hours
C. ARM and synto
D. Arrange LSCS

A

A. Repeat VE 4 hours

E agrees

66
Q

A G2P1 is 20 weeks pregnant and you see her in ANC. She had a 3C tear during her last delivery. She had faecal incontinence for 3 months and flatulance for 6 months. Now asymptomatic.
What do you tell her?

a. An elective LSCS is inappropriate in these circumstances
b. An episiotomy will significantly lessen the chance of recurrence
c. Vaginal delivery has a 15 percent risk of worsening her symptoms

A

c. Vaginal delivery has a 15 percent risk of worsening her symptoms

E agrees

67
Q

Interpret a CTG. 2nd stage, fully @ +1, OA. Rising baseline, reduced variability, complicated decels

A. Cat 1 LSCS
B. Scalp lactate
C. Expedite vaginal delivery
D. Continue pushing

A

C. Expedite vaginal delivery

E agrees