Labour and delivery/premature labour Flashcards

1
Q

When do labour and delivery normally occur?

A

-between 37 and 42 weeks gestation

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2
Q

What are the three stages of labour?

A
  • first stage
  • second stage
  • third stage
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3
Q

When does the first stage begin and end?

A

-form onset of labour(true contractions) until 10 cm cervical dilatation

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4
Q

When does the second stage begin and end?

A

-from 10cm cervical dilatation until delivery of the baby

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5
Q

When does the third stage begin?

A

-from delivery of the baby until delivery of the placenta

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6
Q

What are the three phases of the first stage?

A
  • latent phase
  • active phase
  • transition phase
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7
Q

What is the latent phase of the first stage of labour?

A
  • from 0 to 3cm dilation of the cervix
  • this progresses around 0.5cm per hour (>1cm every 2 hours)
  • there are irregular contractions
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8
Q

What are some causes of prolonged 1st stage of labour?

A
  1. dysfunctional uterine activity
  2. cephalopelvic disproportion
  3. malpresentation
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9
Q

What is the active phase of the first stage of labour?

A
  • from 3cm to 7cm dilation of the cervix
  • progresses around 1cm per hour
  • regular contractions
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10
Q

What is the transition phase of the first stage of labour?

A
  • from 7cm to 10cm dilation of the cervix
  • progresses at around 1cm per hour
  • strong and regular contractions
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11
Q

What is prolonged 2nd stage of labour for nulliparous and multiparous women

A

-nulliparous women >3 hours with epidural or >2 hours without
- multiparous women >2 hours with epidural or >1 hour without.

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12
Q

what are some causes of prolonged 2nd stage of labour?

A

-dysfunctional uterine contractions
-android pelvis
-resistant perineum

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13
Q

when is 3rd stage of labour considered prolonged?

A

> 30mins active management
60 mins passive management

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14
Q

what are some causes of prolonged 3rd stage labour

A
  1. uterine atony
  2. placental problems eg placenta accreta
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15
Q

What are braxton-hicks contractions?

A
  • braxton-hicks contractions are occasional irregular contractions of the uterus
  • usually felt during the second or third trimester
  • these are not true indications and do not indicate the onset of labour
  • staying hydrated and relaxed can reduced these
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16
Q

What are the signs to look for when diagnosing the onset of labour?

A
  • Show (mucus plug from cervix)
  • rupture of membranes
  • regular, painful contractions
  • dilating cervix on examination
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17
Q

What does rupture of membranes (ROM) refer to?

A

-amniotic sac has ruptured

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18
Q

What does rupture of prelabour membranes (PROM) refer to?

A

-amniotic sac has ruptured before the onset of labour

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19
Q

What does preterm prelabour rupture of membranes refer to (P-PROM)?

A

amniotic sac has ruptured before the onset of labour and before 37 weeks gestation

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20
Q

Management of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (P-PROM):

A
  1. Prophylactic antibiotics should be given to prevent the development of chorioamnionitis. The NICE guidelines (2019) recommend erythromycin 250mg four times daily for ten days, or until labour is established if within ten days.
  2. Induction of labour may be offered from 34 weeks to initiate the onset of labour.
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21
Q

What does preterm Prolonged rupture of membranes (also PROM)refer to?

A

amniotic sac ruptured more than 18 hours before delivery

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22
Q

What is classed as a premature birth?

A

-birth before 37 weeks gestation

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23
Q

What babies are considered non-viable?

A
  • those below 23 weeks gestation
  • resuscitation is not considered in these babies that do not show signs of life
  • they have a 10% chance of survival
  • from 24 weeks onwards there is increased chance of survival and resusciation is offered
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24
Q

What gestation is classified as extreme preterm?

A

-under 28 weeks

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25
Q

What gestation is classified as very preterm?

A

28-32 weeks

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26
Q

What gestation is classified as moderate to late preterm?

A

32-37 weeks

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27
Q

What options are there for prophylaxis of preterm labour?

A
  • vaginal progesterone
    -Cervical Cerclage (including “rescue” cerclage)

- cervical cerclage

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28
Q

when is “rescue” cerclage carried out?

A

between 16 -27 + 6 weeks gestation when there is cervical dilatation without rupture of membranes, to prevent progression and premature delivery.

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29
Q

How does vaginal progesterone work as prophylaxis for preterm labour?

A
  • maintains pregnancy and prevents labour by decreasing myometrium activity and preventing cervix remodelling
  • offered to women with cervical length <25mm on US between 16 and 24 weeks gestation
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30
Q

How does cervical cerclage work as prophylaxis for preterm labour?

A
  • involves putting stitch in cervix to add support and keep it closed
  • stitch is removed when women goes into labour or reaches term
  • offered to women with cervical length <25mm on US between 16 and 24 weeks gestation, who have had previous preterm birth or cervical trauma (eg colposcopy or cone biopsy)
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31
Q

How can rupture of membranes be diagnosed?

A
  • by speculum exam which reveals pooling of amniotic fluid in the vagina
  • if doubt about diagnosis, can test for IGFBP-1(Insulin-like growth factor-binding protein-1) and PAMG-1 (Placental alpha-microglobin-1)
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32
Q

A 37-year-old woman is 38 weeks pregnant. She underwent in vitro fertilisation (IVF) treatment to become pregnant, and so far, her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. At her 36-week appointment with her midwife, her baby was palpated to be a breech presentation which was subsequently confirmed on an ultrasound scan. She is considering external cephalic version (ECV).

Which of the following is a risk factor for breech presentation?

A. Polyhydramnios
B. Maternal age >35 years
C. Nulliparity
D. Assisted conception treatment
E. Singleton pregnancy

A

A. Polyhydramnios (excess fluid provides more room for the foetus to move around

-multiparity and multiple pregnancy are risk factors for breech presentation

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33
Q

How is preterm labour with intact membranes diagnosed?

A

<30 weeks gestation, clinical assessment alone is enough to offer management of preterm labour.

> 30 weeks gestation, a transvaginal ultrasound can be used to assess the cervical length. When the cervical length on ultrasound is<15mm, management of preterm labour can be offered. A cervical length of more >15mm indicates preterm labour is unlikely.

-Fetal fibronectin is an alternative test to vaginal ultrasound. Fetal fibronectin is the “glue” between the chorion and the uterus, and is found in the vagina during labour. A result of <50 ng/ml is considered negative, and indicates that preterm labour is unlikely.

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34
Q

What are management options for improving outcomes with preterm labour?

A
  1. Tocolytics (1st line nifedipine:CCB, 2nd line atosiban: oxytocin receptor antagonist)
  2. Corticosteroids <35 weeks (eg.2 doses of IM betamethasone 2 days apart, reduce respiratory distress syndrome)
  3. MgSO4 <34 weeks (neuroprotective: it reduces the risk and severity of cerebral palsy: given within 24 hours of delivery of preterm babies of less than 34 weeks gestation. It is given as a bolus, followed by an infusion for up to 24 hours or until birth)
  4. Continuous foetal (CTG or intermittent auscultation) and maternal monitoring
  5. delayed cord clamping/cord milking
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35
Q

Monitoring for magnesium toxicity & treatment:

A

Mothers need close monitoring for magnesium toxicity at least four hourly. This involves close monitoring of observations, as well as tendon reflexes (usually patella reflex). Key signs of toxicity are:

  1. Reduced respiratory rate
  2. Reduced blood pressure
  3. Absent reflexes

Antidote: calcium gluconate treatment ( 1 g IV over 3 minutes.)

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36
Q

A 40-year-old pregnant woman is seen for her 41 week check. Her blood pressure has consistently been 140/90 mmHg for the last 2 weeks. Her booking blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg. You administer labetalol to treat the high blood pressure. What should be the next step in the management?

A. Give magnesium sulphate

B. Give nifedipine

C. Emergency caesarian section

D. Watchful waiting

E. Offer induction of labour

A

E. Offer induction of labour

The pregnancy is now post term. A woman who has reached 41 weeks gestation can be offered induction of labour, or alternatively she can choose expectant management. At this gestation the risks to the foetus are increased, and women with either pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia are usually delivered. Medical induction of labour would be the preferred choice. Caesarean section would usually only be indicated if there was foetal compromise. This level of blood pressure does not require treatment.

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37
Q

when is foetal blood sampling usually done?

A

assessing for foetal hypoxia in the presence of an abnormal CTG.

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38
Q

what are late decelerations a sign of?

A

foetal hypoxia

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39
Q

what are variable decelerations a sign of?

A

cord compression

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40
Q

what are early decelerations a sign of?

A

foetal head being compressed.

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41
Q

What is CTG used to measure?

A
  • fetal heart rate
  • contractions of uterus
  • useful way of monitoring the condition of fetus and activity of labour
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42
Q

What does a CTG involve?

A

2 transducers are placed on the abdomen to get the CTG readout:

  • one above the fetal heart to monitor the fetal heartbeat
  • one near the fundus of the uterus to monitor the uterine contractions

Transducer above fetal heart monitors heartbeat using doppler US
Transducer near fundus uses US to assess tension in uterine wall, indicating uterine contraction

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43
Q

What are the indications for continuous CTG monitoring in labour?

A
  • sepsis
  • maternal tachycardia (>120)
  • significant meconium
  • pre-eclampsia (esp BP > 160/110)
  • fresh antepartum hemorrhage
  • delay in labour
  • use of oxytocin
  • disproportionate maternal pain
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44
Q

What are the key features to look for on a CTG?

A
  • contractions - number of uterine contractions per 10 mins
  • baseline rate - the baseline fetal heart rate
  • variability - how fetal HR varies from baseline
  • accelerations - periods where fetal HR spikes
  • decelerations - periods where fetal HR drops
45
Q

What do too many or too few contractions indicate on a CTG?

A
  • too few indicate labour is not progressing
  • too many can mean uterine hyperstimulation which can lead to fetal compromise
  • also important to interpret fetal HR in context of the uterine contractions
46
Q

What do accelerations indicate on a CTG?

A

-accelerations are generally a good sign that the fetus is healthy, esp when occuring alongside contractions of the uterus

47
Q

What is a reassuring baseline rate and variability?

A

baseline rate - 110-160
-Normal variability is between 5-25 bpm

variability - 5-25

48
Q

What is a non-reassuring baseline rate and variability?

A

baseline rate of 100-109 or 161-180

varriabillity of <5 for 30-50 mins or >25 for 15 to 25 mins

49
Q

What is an abnormal baseline rate and variability?

A

baseline rate of <100 or >180

varriabillity of <5 for over 50mins or >25 for over 25 mins

50
Q

What do decelerations indicate on a CTG?

A
  • more concerning finding where the fetal HR drops in response to hypoxia
  • FH is slowing to conserve oxygen for vital organs
51
Q

What are the 4 types of decelerations?

A
  • early
  • late
  • variable
  • prolonged
52
Q

What are early decelerations and what are they caused by?

A
  • are gradual dips and recoveries in HR that correspond with uterine contractions
  • considered to be normal
  • caused by the uterus compressing the head the fetus, stimulating the vagus nerve of the fetus, slowing the heart rate.
53
Q

What are late decelerations and what are they caused by?

A
  • gradual falls in HR that starts after the uterine contraction has already begun (delay between uterine contraction and deceleration)
  • caused by hypoxia in the fetus and are a more concerning finding
  • may be caused by excessive uterine contractions, maternal hypotension or maternal hypoxia
54
Q

What are variable decelerations and what are they caused by?

A
  • abrupt decelerations that may be unrelated to uterine contractions
  • fall of >15 from baseline
  • lowest point of deceleration occurs within 30 seconds and overall lasts <2 mins
  • often indicate intermittent compression of the umbilical cord, causing fetal hypoxia
  • Brief accelerations before and after the deceleration are known as shoulders, and are a reassuring sign that the fetus is coping
55
Q

What are prolonged decelerations and what are they caused by?

A
  • decelerations that last between 2-10 minutes with a drop of >15 from baseline
  • often indicates compression of umbilical cord, causing fetal hypoxia
  • are abnormal and concerning
56
Q

Which decelerations are classified as reassuring, non-reassuring or abnormal?

A
  • early decelrations-> reasurring
  • late and variable decelerations -> non-reasurring or abnormal depending on features
  • prolonged decelerations - always abnormal
57
Q

What are the four catogeries for outcome of CTG?

A
  • Normal
  • Suspicious: single non-reassuring feature
  • Pathological: 2 non-reassuring features or a single abnormal feature
  • need for urgent intervention: acute bradycardia or prolonged deceleration of more than 3 minutes
58
Q

What is the rule of 3s for fetal bradycardia?

A

guide on what to do in fetal bradycardia every 3 mins:

  • 3 mins - call for help
  • 6mins - move to theatre
  • 9 mins - prepare for delivery
  • 12mins -deliver the baby by 15 mins
59
Q

What is a sinusoidal CTG?

A
  • rare pattern similar to a sine wave with smooth regular waves up and down that have an amplitude of 5-15 bpm
  • usually indicates severe fetal compromise associated with sever fetal anaemia, e.g caused by vasa praevia with fetal haemorrhage
60
Q

What mnemonic can be used to assess features of CTG?

A

DR C BRaVADO

  • DR- define risk (risk based on individual woman and pregnancy before assessing CTG)
  • C- contractions
  • BRa- baseline rate
  • V- variability
  • A- accelerations
  • D- decelerations
  • O- overall impression
61
Q

Despite conservative measures, the CTG abnormalities persist. A foetal blood sample is performed and the result is PH 7.33. What would be appropriate management?
A) immediate delivery

B)Restart syntocinon and continue with the labour

A

B) Restart syntocinon and continue with the labour

This PH is normal. In the foetus a normal PH is >7.25. A borderline result would be 7.2-7.25. Immediate delivery would be indicated if the result was <7.2.

62
Q

The patient agreed to starting an oxytocin infusion, and epidural analgesia was established. She was reviewed 4 hours later when a normal cardiotocography was noted with uterine contractions occurring at a rate of 4 in 10 minutes. On vaginal examination, the cervix was 7 cm dilated with no meconium and the presenting part was still at the level of the ischial spines (0 station). What is the appropriate next step?
A. review in 2 hours
B. Offer ventouse/forceps delivery
C. Stop oxytocin infusion for 2 hours
D. Caesarian section

A

D. Caesarian section

63
Q

what is sonicaid?

A

high sensitivity handheld Digital Dopplers are intended for general purpose screening of the fetal heart at all stages of pregnancy from as early as 8-10 weeks, right through to labour.

The attached probes are waterproof (IPX7) for high sensitivity FHR detection in both normal use and in waterbirth monitoring.

64
Q

The patient agreed to having a caesarean section. What type of failure to progress is this known as?
A. prolonged latent phase
B. primary dysfunctional labour
C.secondary arrest of labour
D. Cervical dystocia

A

B. primary dysfunctional labour

Progress in labour was slow from the start, as evidenced by < 2 cm increase in cervical dilatation in 4 hours (<0.5cm in 1 hour), therefore this is primary dysfunctional labour.

Secondary arrest is the term given to failure to progress when there was adequate or expected progress to begin with.

She was in the active phase (greater than 4cm dilation) of labour not the latent phase.

65
Q

The patient agreed to starting an oxytocin infusion, and epidural analgesia was established. She was reviewed 4 hours later when a normal cardiotocography was noted with uterine contractions occurring at a rate of 4 in 10 minutes. On vaginal examination, the cervix was 7 cm dilated with no meconium and the presenting part was still at the level of the ischial spines (0 station). What is the appropriate next step?
A. review in 2 hours
B. Offer ventouse/forceps delivery
C. Stop oxytocin infusion for 2 hours
D. Caesarian section

A

D. Caesarian section

66
Q

Which one of the following is a side effect of oxytocin?
A. uterine relaxation
B. water intoxication
C. hypernatraemia
D. hypoglycaemia
E. closure of ductus arteriosus

A

B. water intoxication

Oxytocin has a similar structure to Vasopressin (both are nonapeptides produced by the posterior pituritary). Excessive quantities or prolonged use of oxytocin can therefore result in anti-diuretic effects with resulting water intoxication and hyponatraemia. This is due to water being absorbed in greater quantities from the kidneys. Oxytocin can also lead to uterine hyperstimulation.

Oxytocin has no effect on blood sugar levels or the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin is used to close the ductus arteriosus in premature babies.

67
Q

what routes can oxytocin be administered?

A

Oxytocin is usually administered by slow intra-venous infusion using an infusion pump (started at a low rate and titrated up at intervals of at least 30 minutes as required)

-Oxytocin can also be given intramuscularly.

  • Uterine activity must be monitored carefully and hyperstimulation avoided.
68
Q

what is done during active management?

A
  1. intramuscular oxytocin
  2. controlled cord traction (This must be gentle, or else there is increased risk of causing complications such as uterine inversion and postpartum haemorrhage.)
69
Q

You are bleeped to a patient on labour ward who has just delivered a healthy baby. The midwife reports that while he was performing controlled cord traction, the patient began to bleed and the uterine fundus is no longer palpable in the abdomen.

Given the most likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Remove the placenta

B. Give terbutaline

C. Give oxytocin

D. Immediately replace the fundus through the cervix with the palm of the hand

E. Insert two cannulae and take blood for crossmatch

A

E. Immediately replace the fundus through the cervix with the palm of the hand

This answer is correct because the likelihood of successfully replacing the uterus is dependent on how quickly replacement is attempted

70
Q

what is uterine inversion?

A

The fundus of the uterus drops down through the uterine cavity and cervix, turning inside out.

It is an obstetric emergency!!!

71
Q

how does uterine inversion typical presentation:

A

Uterine inversion typically presents with a large postpartum haemorrhage. There may be maternal shock or collapse.

An incomplete uterine inversion may be felt with manual vaginal examination. With a complete uterine inversion, the uterus may be seen at the introitus of the vagina

72
Q

management of uterine inversion:

A
  1. Johnson manoeuvre:
    which involves using a hand to push the fundus back up into the abdomen and the correct position. The whole hand and most of the forearm will be inserted into the vagina to return the fundus to the correct position. It is held in place for several minutes, and medications are used to create a uterine contraction (i.e. oxytocin). The ligaments and uterus need to generate enough tension to remain in place.

2.Hydrostatic methods:
This involves filling the vagina with fluid to “inflate” the uterus back to the normal position. It requires a tight seal at the entrance of the vagina, which can be challenging to achieve.

  1. Surgery: A laparotomy is performed (opening the abdomen) and the uterus is returned to the normal position.

Other measures to stabilise the mother and treat the consequences may be required. Conservative : eg, they may require resuscitation, treatment of postpartum haemorrhage and blood transfusion.

73
Q

different types of uterine inversion:

A

Incomplete uterine inversion (partial inversion) is where the fundus descends inside the uterus or vagina, but not as far as the introitus (opening of the vagina).

Complete uterine inversion involves the uterus descending through the vagina to the introitus.

74
Q

what may cause uterine inversion?

A

may be the result of pulling too hard on the umbilical cord during active management of the third stage of labour.

75
Q

Risks of VBAC:

A
  1. Increased risk of uterine rupture (scar rupture)
  2. Increased risk of requiring caesarean section (failed VBAC)
76
Q

stats of success of VBAC after C-section:

A

Around 75% of women who attempt a vaginal birth after a caesarean section (known as a VBAC) will be able to have one

77
Q

Contraindications to VBAC:

A
  1. Classical (vertical) caesarean scar
    2, Previous history of uterine rupture
  2. the usual contraindications to a vaginal delivery (such as major placenta praevia)
78
Q

RFs for shoulder dystocia:

A

-Maternal gestational diabetes
-Macrosomia
-Birthweight >4kg
-Advanced maternal age
-Maternal short stature or small pelvis
-Maternal obesity
-Post-dates pregnancy

79
Q

clinical features of shoulder dystocia:

A

Prompt recognition of shoulder dystocia is important for timely management and thus routine observation should be made for:

  1. Difficult delivery of the foetal face or chin
  2. Retraction of the foetal head (turtle-neck sign)
  3. Failure of restitution
  4. Failure of descent of the foetal shoulders following delivery of the head
80
Q

Management of shoulder dystocia (mnemonic) :

A

Immediately call for help - further midwifery assistance, senior obstetrician, paediatrician and anaesthetist may be required
Do not apply fundal pressure as this may lead to uterine rupture and discourage maternal pushing as this may exacerbate shoulder impaction

  1. McRoberts manoeuvre (if performed correctly, 90% success rate in delivering baby vaginally)
    Hyperflexion and abduction of the mother’s legs tightly to the abdomen
    This may be accompanied with applied suprapubic pressure
    Routine traction (as applied during normal delivery) in an axial direction should be applied to assess whether the shoulders have been released.
  2. All fours position
  3. Internal rotational manoeuvres:

Woods’ screw manoeuvre: anterior shoulder is pushed towards the foetal chest and the posterior shoulder is pushed towards the foetal back.
Rubin manoeuvre II: rotation of the anterior shoulder towards the foetal chest
Note that episiotomy will not relieve shoulder dystocia as it is a bony obstruction, but may be indicated to allow space for internal rotational manoeuvres.

  1. Cleidotomy or symphysiotomy (division of the foetal clavicle or maternal symphysial ligament)
  2. Zavanelli manoeuvre: replacement of the head into the canal (pushing baby back into uterus) and then subsequent delivery by caesarean section

Following the delivery of a baby after shoulder dystocia:

  1. The mother should be examined and monitored for postpartum haemorrhage, severe perineal tears and other genital tract trauma.
    2.The baby should be examined by a neonatologist for injury including brachial plexus injury, hypoxic brain damage, humeral or clavicular fractures

HELPER
o call for Help
o Episiotomy
o Legs up (McRoberts maneuver)
o Pressure suprapubically
o Enter vagina for shoulder rotation
o Reach for posterior shoulder/ Return head into vagina (Zavanelli maneuver)/ Rupture clavicle or pubic symphysis

81
Q

contraindications of FBS (foetal blood sampling):

A
  1. Prolonged decelerations on cardiotocography
  2. Maternal infection e.g. HIV, herpes simplex
  3. Prematurity (<34 weeks)
82
Q

why/when is FBS (foetal blood sampling) done?

A

Foetal blood sampling (FBS) is indicated when there is a suspicious cardiotocograph. It is used during labour to confirm whether there is foetal hypoxia.

83
Q

what are clinical features of third stage of labour:

A
  1. Gush of blood
  2. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
  3. Ascension of the uterus in the abdomen
84
Q

how long does third stage of labour usually last?

A

Generally, it lasts 30 minutes to an hour when allowed to occur naturally or 5-10 minutes with administration of oxytocin.

85
Q

when would elective C-section or intrapartum acyclovir be given?

A

if active primary herpes lesions are present on the mother at term or there has been a primary outbreak within 6 weeks of labour (otherwise oral acyclovir & C-section to prevent vertical transmission at delivery)

86
Q

RFs for umbilical cord prolapse:

A

-prematurity
-multiparity
-polyhydramnios
-twin pregnancy
-cephalopelvic disproportion
abnormal presentations e.g. Breech, transverse lie

87
Q

what causes 50% of cord prolapse/diagnosis?

A

Around 50% of cord prolapses occur at artificial rupture of the membranes. The diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally, or if the cord is visible beyond the level of the introitus.

88
Q

management of cord prolapse:

A

cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency!–> get Senior input

  1. Digital examination; the presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back (elevated) into the uterus to avoid compression
  2. if the cord is past the level of the introitus, there should be minimal handling and it should be kept warm and moist to avoid vasospasm
  3. the patient is asked to go on ‘all fours’ until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out
    the left lateral position is an alternative
  4. tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions
  5. retrofilling the bladder with 500-700ml of saline may be helpful as it gently elevates the presenting part
  6. although emergency caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery is possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
  7. CTG: continuous monitoring
89
Q

What class of antibodies cause haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

IgG

90
Q

complications of caesarian:

A

General complications associated with surgery:
1. Bleeding
2. Infection
3. Pain
4. Damage to local structures (Ureter, bladder, bowels)

-Aspiration pneumonia
-Postpartum haemorrhage
-Venous thromboembolism
-Risk of lacerations (2%)
-Increased incidence of transient tachypnoea of the newborn

Effects of future pregnancies
1. Increased risk of repeat caesarean
2. Increased risk of uterine rupture
3. Increased risk of placenta praevia/placenta accreta: Placenta accreta is the abnormal implantation of the placenta into the uterine wall, a common site being the old Caesarean scar

91
Q

different categories of c-section

A

Category 1: There is an immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby. Decision to delivery time is 30 minutes.
Category 2: There is not an imminent threat to life, but caesarean is required urgently due to compromise of the mother or baby. Decision to delivery time is 75 minutes.
Category 3: Delivery is required, but mother and baby are stable.
Category 4: This is an elective caesarean, as described above.

92
Q

Indications for elective C-section (mnemonic) and analgesia:

A
  1. Previous caesarean
  2. Symptomatic after previous perineal tear
  3. Placenta praevia/placenta accreta
  4. Vasa praevia
  5. Multiple pregnancy
    Uncontrolled HIV
  6. Cervical Cancer

Elective caesarean section involves a planned date on which a woman will come in for delivery.

It is usually performed under a spinal anaesthetic, and is considered generally a very safe and routine procedure. Usually these are performed after 39 weeks gestation.

93
Q

Caesarian section procedure (ie during surgery: mnemonic)

A

The most commonly used skin incision is a transverse lower uterine segment incision. There are two possible incisions:

Pfannenstiel incision is a curved incision two fingers width above the pubic symphysis
Joel-cohen incision is a straight incision that is slightly higher (this is the recommended incision)

A vertical incision down the middle of the abdomen is also possible, but this is rarely used. It may be used in certain circumstances, such as very premature deliveries and anterior placenta praevia.

Blunt dissection is used, after the initial incision with a scalpel, to separate the remaining layers of the abdominal wall and uterus. Blunt dissection involves using fingers, blunt instruments and traction to tear the tissues apart, rather than to cut them with sharp tools such as a scalpel. This results in less bleeding, shorter operating times and less risk of injury to the baby.

The layers of the abdomen that need to be dissected during a caesarean are:

SSS EXIT

Skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Fascia / rectus sheath (the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis and external and internal oblique muscles)
-Rectus abdominis muscles (separated vertically)
-Peritoneum
-Vesicouterine peritoneum (and bladder) – the bladder is separated from the uterus with a bladder flap
-Uterus (perimetrium, myometrium and endometrium)
-Amniotic sac

The baby is delivered by hand with the assistance of pressure on the fundus. Forceps may be used if necessary.

The uterus is closed inside the abdomen using two layers of sutures. Exteriorisation (taking the uterus out of the abdomen) is avoided if possible. The abdomen and skin are then closed.

94
Q

Caesarian section procedure (ie during surgery)

A

The most commonly used skin incision is a transverse lower uterine segment incision. There are two possible incisions:

Pfannenstiel incision is a curved incision two fingers width above the pubic symphysis
Joel-cohen incision is a straight incision that is slightly higher (this is the recommended incision)

A vertical incision down the middle of the abdomen is also possible, but this is rarely used. It may be used in certain circumstances, such as very premature deliveries and anterior placenta praevia.

Blunt dissection is used, after the initial incision with a scalpel, to separate the remaining layers of the abdominal wall and uterus. Blunt dissection involves using fingers, blunt instruments and traction to tear the tissues apart, rather than to cut them with sharp tools such as a scalpel. This results in less bleeding, shorter operating times and less risk of injury to the baby.

The layers of the abdomen that need to be dissected during a caesarean are:

Skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Fascia / rectus sheath (the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis and external and internal oblique muscles)
Rectus abdominis muscles (separated vertically)
Peritoneum
Vesicouterine peritoneum (and bladder) – the bladder is separated from the uterus with a bladder flap
Uterus (perimetrium, myometrium and endometrium)
Amniotic sac

The baby is delivered by hand with the assistance of pressure on the fundus. Forceps may be used if necessary.

The uterus is closed inside the abdomen using two layers of sutures. Exteriorisation (taking the uterus out of the abdomen) is avoided if possible. The abdomen and skin are then closed.

95
Q

During the 2nd stage of labour, when should foetal heart rate monitoring happen?

A

(continuous or intermittent).
If intermittent, should happen every 5 minutes after every contraction

96
Q

what’s the definition of cervical incompetence?

A

Cervical shortening, effacement and dilatation in the absence of uterine contractions

97
Q

what are risks associated with Syntocinon (oxytocin) infusion:

A
  1. uterine hyperstimulation syndrome
  2. uterine rupture
    (should be avoided in women with previous Caesarian section; as these women are at higher risk of uterine rupture!)
98
Q

3 Ps of labour:

A
  1. Power (strength of uterine contractions eg dysfunctional uterine activity)
  2. Passages (size of pelvic inlet and outlet eg android pelvis less favourable)
  3. Passenger: foetus; is it big or small, does it have anomalies, is it alive or dead? (eg cephalopelvic disproportion)
99
Q

A 33 year old primigravida woman is in labour. It is a vaginal cephalic delivery and the head has been delivered. The midwife is unable to deliver the body of the fetus with gentle traction and the head of the fetus begins retracting and extending again when the mother pushes.

The midwife calls for help and stops the mother pushing. What is the next appropriate step in management?

A. Ask the patient to hyperflex and abduct her hips so they are against her abdomen.

B. Turn the anterior shoulder to the posterior position

C. Episiotomy

D. Press on the posterior fetal shoulder to create more space to allow the anterior shoulder to be delivered

E. Ask the patient to extend and abduct her hips then apply suprapubic presusre.

A

A. Ask the patient to hyperflex and abduct her hips so they are against her abdomen.

This is the description of the McRobert’s manoeuvre - by flattening the lumbosacral angle, the anterior posterior diameter of the pelvis is increased. Patients may need help to move into this position. Posterolateral pressure can then be applied suprapubically with axial traction on the fetal head. This is the first-line management for shoulder dystocia as it is the least invasive.

Not B:Turn the anterior shoulder to the posterior position. This is Woods’ screw manoeuvre, an internal manoeuvre that should be considered only if McRobert’s manoeuvre has failed.

Not C: Episiotomy : Episiotomy should be considered if the McRobert’s manoeuvre fails, in order to reduce the risk of maternal tears and facilitate the obstetrician doing internal manoeuvres.

Not D: Press on the posterior fetal shoulder to create more space to allow the anterior shoulder to be delivered. This is Rubin’s manoeuvre, an internal manoeuvre that should be considered only if the McRobert’s manoeuvre has failed.

100
Q

A 35 year old woman is in labour. It is a cephalic vaginal delivery. After successful delivery of the head, the head of the fetus begins retracting and extending again when the mother pushes.

Which of the following are risk factors for this condition which can be identified during booking?

A. A small pelvis with an oval brim

B. Maternal diabetes mellitus

C. Transverse lie

D. Maternal BMI <25

E. Macrosomia

A

B. Maternal diabetes mellitus

This is the correct answer. Mothers with diabetes are at a 2-4x increased risk of shoulder dystocia during birth compared to mothers that do not have diabetes. Past medical history is covered during the booking appointment, and those at risk of gestational diabetes (BMI>30, previous macrosomic infants, previous gestational diabetes, first degree relatives with diabetes, people of South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern descent) are screened at booking with an oral glucose tolerance test.

Not A: A small pelvis with oval brim

Pelvic passage factors contribute to shoulder dystocia. A pelvis with a round brim is favourable in labour. However, a small pelvic brim would not be identified at booking. It should be suspected if the fetal head has not engaged by 37 weeks.

Not B: Transverse lie

Shoulder dystocia is a complication of vaginal cephalic delivery. Transverse lie can lead to different complications including shoulder presentation, where the shoulder is the presenting part.

Not D: Maternal BMI <25

This is incorrect, as maternal obesity (BMI >30) is a risk factor for shoulder dystocia.

E. Macrosomia

Fetal macrosomia is a risk factor for shoulder dystocia, although 48% of cases of shoulder dystocia occur in infants that weigh <4kg. However, macrosomia cannot be identified at booking.

101
Q

A 28-year-old woman with prolonged labour has 700ml blood loss following a vaginal cephalic delivery. She has no past medical history. The obstetric team have put her on high flow oxygen and commenced transfusion. Her observations show a maternity early warning score of 1- scoring for saturations of 98% on oxygen. She has a urinary catheter and is passing 40ml urine/hour.

Examination shows no major tears or trauma. The placenta has been delivered intact. Blood tests, including a coagulation screen show no abnormalities other than an acute haemoglobin drop.

Given the likely cause of this blood loss, what should be the next step in management?

A. Uterine massage

B. Compression with a fist inside the uterus and pressure outside the uterus

C. Oxytocin 5 units by slow IV infusion

D. Ergometrine 0.5mg slow IV/IM

E. Take to theatre for examination under anaesthesia (EUA)

A

A. Uterine massage

The patient is currently in minor PPH (<1000ml), has been resuscitated and is stable currently. Examination has revealed that trauma and retained tissue are unlikely causes. Coagulopathy is unlikely given that the coagulation screen is normal. In order to stop bleeding, management for uterine atony should be initiated and uterine massage is the first step for this.

Not C: Oxytocin 5 units by slow IV infusion

This is appropriate in the management of uterine atony but uterine massage comes first.

Not D: Ergometrine 0.5mg slow IV/IM

This is given after oxytocin in the management of uterine atony. It comes further down the protocol, after uterine massage, bimanual compression and oxytocin administration. A contraindication to ergometrine administration is a history of hypertension.

Not B: Compression with a fist inside the uterus and pressure outside uterus

The patient is currently in minor PPH, has been resuscitated and is stable currently. Examination has revealed that trauma and retained tissue are unlikely causes. Coagulopathy is unlikely given that the coagulation screen is normal. In order to stop bleeding, management for uterine atony should be initiated and uterine massage is the first step for this.

Not E: EUA may be necessary to fully exclude trauma as a cause of haemorrhage, but in this situation a management trial for uterine atony is appropriate as the patient is stable and does not need to be taken to theatre.

102
Q

risks of spinal anaesthetic during c-section:

A

A spinal anaesthetic involves giving an injection of a local anaesthetic (such as lidocaine) into the cerebrospinal fluid at the lower back. This blocks the nerves from the abdomen downwards.

A spinal anaesthetic is safer, and leads to fewer complications and a faster recovery than a general anaesthetic. The potential problems are that the patient remains awake (most patients tolerate this well, but some prefer to be asleep), and it takes longer to initiate than a general anaesthetic.

Risks associated with having an anaesthetic:

  1. Allergic reactions or anaphylaxis
  2. Hypotension
  3. Headache
    4.Urinary retention
    5.Nerve damage (spinal anaesthetic)
  4. Haematoma (spinal anaesthetic)
    7.Sore throat (general anaesthetic)
  5. Damage to the teeth or mouth (general anaesthetic)
103
Q

measures to limit C-section complications:

A

Elective caesarean sections are generally considered a very safe and routine procedure. Emergency caesarean sections have a higher risk of complications, as they are usually performed in less controlled settings and for more acute indications (e.g. fetal distress). There are a long list of potential complications, as with any surgery.

Measures to reduce the risks during caesarean section are:

  1. H2 receptor antagonists (e.g. ranitidine) or proton pump inhibitors (e.g. omeprazole) before the procedure (There is a risk of aspiration pneumonitis during caesarean section, caused by acid reflux and aspiration during the prolonged period lying flat)
  2. Prophylactic antibiotics during the procedure to reduce the risk of infection
  3. Oxytocin during the procedure to reduce the risk of postpartum haemorrhage
  4. Venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin
104
Q

risks of C-section:

A

Generic surgical risks:

  1. Bleeding
  2. Infection
  3. Pain
  4. Venous thromboembolism

Damage to local structures:

  1. Ureter
  2. Bladder
  3. Bowel
  4. Blood vessels

Effects on the abdominal organs:

  1. Ileus
  2. Adhesions
  3. Hernias
  4. Postoperative complications can occur in up to one-third of women. These include:

a) Pain: opioid analgesia is used first-line +/- laxatives. This is stepped down to paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) use once pain is adequately controlled.
b) Infection: endometritis, wound infection and urinary tract infections. Occurs in approximately 8% of women undergoing caesarean section. Where the woman’s body mass index is greater than 35, negative pressure dressings may be considered to decrease the risk of wound infection.
c) Venous thromboembolism
d)Pulmonary atelectasis
e) Return to theatre for another procedure
f) Longer hospital stay compared to vaginal delivery

  1. Complications affecting future pregnancies may include:

a) Abnormal placentation (e.g. accreta spectrum/praevia)
b) Uterine rupture
c) Repeat caesarean section
d) For women who have had a previous caesarean section, the risk of placenta praevia and placenta accreta increases in subsequent pregnancies. There is also a higher risk of antepartum stillbirth in subsequent pregnancies and this risk increases with each successive caesarean section performed.
e) Increased risk of unexplained stillbirth

  1. Fetal/neonatal complications may include:

a) Fetal laceration risk of 2%
b) Transient tachypnoea of the newborn
c) Admission to a neonatal unit

105
Q

key counselling points (PACES) C-section:

A
  1. A caesarean section is the delivery of a baby through a surgical incision in the abdominal wall and the uterine wall and accounts for 25-30% of births in the United Kingdom.
  2. The main indications are a previous C-section, fetal compromise, failure to progress in labour and breech presentation.
  3. Caesarean sections are commonly performed through a Pfannenstiel incision with access to the uterine cavity through a transverse lower uterine incision.
  4. Caesarean sections are associated with a reduced risk of perineal pain and trauma.
  5. Caesarean sections are associated with an increased risk of abdominal pain, venous thromboembolism, and bladder or ureteric injury. There is an increased risk associated with stillbirth and placental insertion disorders in subsequent pregnancies.
  6. VBAC is an option for women in future pregnancies but should be performed after careful consideration due to the risk associated with uterine rupture.
106
Q
A

flatten the bed (vs episiotomy)

107
Q

what are examples of PGE1 analogues and main uses:

A

Alprostadil–> maintain patent ductus arteriosus open
Misorostol (vaginal tablets: medical abortion/TOP: Prostaglandins soften the cervix and stimulate uterine contractions)

108
Q

Caesarian (C-section) summary:

A
109
Q

what can smoking decrease the risk of?

A

-pre-eclampsia
-hyperemesis gravidarum

  • Even though smoking can decrease the risk of pre-eclampsia, it can worsen the pregnancy outcome as a whole, such as cleft lip or cleft palate, miscarriage and stillbirth.