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COMPREHENSIVE EXAM PASSED ON MAY 2024 !!! > LABORATORY SAFETY AND WASTE MANAGEMENT, QUALITY ASSURANCE AND SPECIMEN COLLECTION > Flashcards

LABORATORY SAFETY AND WASTE MANAGEMENT, QUALITY ASSURANCE AND SPECIMEN COLLECTION Flashcards

1
Q

A program that is important in order to protect the lives of students and teachers, to protect the laboratory equipment and facilities, and to protect the environment.

A

Laboratory safety

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2
Q

A method of infection control in which all human blood and other body fluids containing visible blood are treated as if infectious.

A

Universal Precautions

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3
Q

A set of comprehensive safety guidelines designed to protect patients and healthcare workers by requiring that all patients and all body fluids, body substances, organs, and unfixed tissues be regarded as potentially infectious.

A

Standard Precautions

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4
Q

Established procedure to be followed for a given operation or in a given situation with the purpose of ensuring that a procedure is always carried out correctly and in the same manner.

A

Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)

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5
Q

Is the removal of microorganisms to a certain level as not to be able to infect humans and cause disease.
10% of sodium hypochlorite solution (dilute household bleach by mixing 1-part bleach to 9 parts of distilled water) it must be prepared daily and labeled with agent name, concentration, and date of preparation.

A

Decontamination

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6
Q

Is the absolute removal of all microorganisms.

A

Sterilization

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7
Q

Is a technical bulletin providing detailed hazard and precautionary information.

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

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8
Q

Businesses are required to provide to their costumers the MSDS for all chemicals they manufacture or distribute.

A

TRUE

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9
Q

The MSDS provides:

A

a. products information
b. fire and explosion precautions
c. toxicology
d. health effects
e. recommended PPE
f. storage recommendations
g. leaks and spills
h. waste disposal recommendations; EQUIPMENT
i. first aid

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10
Q

The most effective at reducing hazards yet often the most difficult to implement.

A

Elimination

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11
Q

Used as control organism with less pathogenic.

A

Substitution

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12
Q

Favored over administrative and personal protective equipment (PPE) for controlling existing worker exposures in the workplace because they are designed to remove the hazard at the source, before it comes contact with the worker.

A

Engineering controls

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13
Q

Bench top acrylic splash shield to protect the worker from aerosols, fine mist of liquid, biohazard containers, disinfectants, hand antiseptics, puncture-resistant sharps containers, safety needles, biosafety cabinet, fume hood, laminar flow.

A

Engineering controls

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14
Q

Include the protocols or changes to work practices, policies, or procedures. They can be relatively inexpensive to establish but, over the long term, can be very costly to sustain.

A

Administrative controls

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15
Q

Authorization/approval written biosafety procedures required for the experimental procedures and equipment including inventory of biological agents or materials, laboratory personnel biosafety training, medical surveillance (BSL 2 and above), health history, medical screening, immunization, serum storage, post-exposure, prophylaxis.

A

Administrative control

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16
Q

The use of special clothing and equipment to protect staff and patients who maybe exposed to known or suspected pathogens.

A

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

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17
Q

These are compulsory in all instances in the physical containment level 2 laboratory.
Be aware of the composition of fabrics, as some might be highly flammable.
A disposable laboratory coat is compulsory in physical containment level 3 laboratories or in specific instances such as collection when highly dangerous pathogens can be involved, such as suspected cases of H5N1 avian influenza or SARS.

A

Laboratory coats

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18
Q

Serve as a barrier when splashes or sprays occur during specimen collection or handling.

A

Masks

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19
Q

Protection of eyes is strongly recommended as a routine procedure to prevent contact with these droplets.

A

Goggles

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20
Q

Should be worn in all instances, and should be available to laboratory staff on a routine basis.

A

Gloves

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21
Q

Hazards occur by physical agents like fire, electrical, noise, radiation, high voltage, machinery with moving parts, sharp material.

A

Physical Hazards

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22
Q

R.A.C.E?

A

Rescue or remove: rescue or remove any persons from the immediate scene
Alert or activate: pull the nearest alarm
Confine: close all doors to the hazard or fire area
Extinguish/evacuate: extinguishing using the closest fire extinguisher if the fire impedes your evacuation. Evacuate to your designated meeting location.

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23
Q

Ordinary combustibles such as woods, papers, and plastics.

Pressurized water-based extinguishers

A

Class A

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24
Q

Flammable liquids (i.e., ethanol, xylene) and electrical fires.

Carbon dioxide extinguisher

A

Class B/C

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25
Q

Ordinary combustibles, flammable liquids, and electrical fires.

Multipurpose dry chemical agent extinguisher

A

Class ABC

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26
Q

Combustible metals (i.e., magnesium, powdered aluminum).

Sodium chloride or copper based dry powder

A

Class D

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27
Q

Kitchen fires, cooking oils, and fats.

Potassium bicarbonate or wet chemical fine mist

A

Class K

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28
Q

P.A.S.S.

A

Pull the pin
Aim the base of the fire.
Squeeze the handle.
Sweep from side to side.

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29
Q

Hazards occurred by biological agents like blood, body fluids, and experimental animals, allergens, infectious agents, experimental agents, microbes, viral vectors

A

Biological hazards

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30
Q

Hazards occurred by chemicals cleaning agents, disinfectants, solvents, and compressed gases.

A

Chemical hazards

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31
Q

This is the major route.

A

Inhalation

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32
Q

May produce systemic poisoning.

A

Absorption through skin

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33
Q

Generally due to poor hygiene practices, such as eating or smoking in the laboratory.

A

Ingestion

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34
Q

Health hazard?

A

Blue quadrant

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35
Q

Flammable Hazard

A

Red quadrant

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36
Q

Reactivity/Stability Hazard

A

Yellow quadrant

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37
Q

Other special information

A

White quadrant

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38
Q

100% non filtered air
Non volatile - yes
Volatile - yes

A

Chemical fume good

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39
Q

100% HEPA filtered supply air
Non-volatile - no
Volatile - no

A

Clean bench

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40
Q

Type of BSC that 100% of HEPA filtered exhaust air
Non-volatile - yes
Volatile - Yes, in minute quantities while canopy connected

A

Class I

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41
Q

60% HEPA filtered exhaust air, 40% recirculated HEPA filtered air
Non-volatile - yes
Volatile - yes, but in small amounts towards rear of cabinet

A

Class II Type B1

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42
Q

100% HEPA filtered exhaust air
Non-volatile - Yes
Volatile - Yes

A

Class II Type B2

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43
Q

HEPA filtered supply and exhaust air ( varies depending on configuration)
Non-volatile - yes
Volatile - yes, if connected to building exhaust. Concentrations vary.

A

Class II Type C1

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44
Q

100% HEPA filtered supply and exhaust air
Non-volatile - yes
Volatile - yes

A

Class III

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45
Q

Velocity at the face of the wood (with sash on normal operating position) should be

A

100 to 120 ft per minute and fairly uniform across the opening

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46
Q

It removes the particles that may be harmful to the employee who is working with potentially infectious biologic specimens.

A

Biosafety Cabinets (BSCs)

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47
Q

Is a type of mechanical air filter that works by forcing the air through a fine mesh that traps a harmful particles at 99.99%

A

High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA)

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48
Q

Modern American Convention HEPA:

A

99.99% at 0.3 microns

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49
Q

Modern American Convention ULPA:

A

99.99% at 0.12 microns

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50
Q

Major sources of health care wastes

A

Hospitals and other health facilities
Laboratories and research center
Mortuary and autopsy centers
Animal research and testing laboratories
Blood banks and collection services
Nursing homes for the elderly

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51
Q

Is a solid, liquid, or gaseous material that displays either a “hazardous characteristic” or specifically listed by name as hazardous waste.

A

Hazardous waste

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52
Q

True or False

Hazardous chemicals must never poured down the drain as a method of disposal

A

True

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53
Q

Applies to waste that are liquids with a flash point less than 140 degrees Fahrenheit.

Solid that are capable of spontaneous combustion under normal temperature and pressure.

ex: ethanol, sodium nitrate, hydrogen gas, xylene, acetone

A

Ignitability

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54
Q

Applies to waste that aqueous solutions with less than or equal to 2% or greater than or equal to 12.5

This does not apply to solid or non-aqueous materials

ex: hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, sodium hydroxide

A

Corrosive

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55
Q

Refers to the materials that react violently or generate toxic fumes when mixed with water

Materials that are normally unstable or explosive

A

Reactivity

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56
Q

Refers to the characteristics applies to the wastes that have potential to contaminate ground water if improperly disposed

A

Toxicity

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57
Q

Waste contaminated with blood and other body fluids, cultures, and stocks of infectious agents from laboratory work or waste from patients with infections.

A

Infectious waste

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58
Q

Human tissues, organs or fluids, body parts and contaminated animal carcasses.

A

Pathological waste

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59
Q

Types of waste that contains syringes, needles, disposable scalpels and blades.

A

Sharps waste

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60
Q

Waste that contains of solvent and reagents for laboratory preparations, disinfectants, sterilant and heavy metals contained medical devices and batteries.

A

Chemical waste

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61
Q

Expired, unused, contaminated drugs and vaccines.

A

Pharmaceutical waste

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62
Q

Waste containing substances with genotoxic properties highly hazardous substances that are mutagenic, teratogenic, carcinogenic such as cytotoxic drugs used in cancer treatment and their metabolites

A

Cytotoxic waste

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63
Q

Products contaminated by radionuclides including radioactive diagnostic material or radiotherapeutic materials

A

Radioactive waste

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64
Q

Waste that does not pose any particular biological, chemical, radioactive.

A

Non hazardous or General waste

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65
Q

Non infectious dry waste

A

Black

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66
Q

Sharps and pressurized

A

Red

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67
Q

Infectious and pathologic wet waste

A

Yellow

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68
Q

Non-infectious wet waste

A

Green

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69
Q

Chemical wastes

A

Yellow with black band

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70
Q

Systemic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that laboratory services will satisfy given medical needs for patient care.

A

Quality assurance

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71
Q

What is the primary goal of quality assurance?

A

To deliver quality service and products to costumer

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72
Q

Refers to the planned and systemic activities implemented in a quality system so that the quality requirements for a product or service will be fulfilled

A

Quality assurance

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73
Q

What are the two principles involved in QA?

A

Fit for purpose
Right first time

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74
Q

Mistakes should be eliminated

A

Right first time

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75
Q

Product should be suitable for the intended purpose

A

Fit for purpose

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76
Q

Test ordering
Specimen collection, transport, and processing
Preservatives used
Entering patient information

A

Pre analytical phase

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77
Q

Test processing and analysis
QC data
Record keeping

A

Analytical phase

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78
Q

Reporting out of specimen results
Physician contact
Reference range

A

Post Analytical phase

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79
Q

True or False?

QA monitors quality performance starting from the ordering of a laboratory determination to its reporting, the interpretation of the results, and then application to patient care.

A

True

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80
Q

A system used to monitor the analytical process to detect and prevent errors that would impact on the accuracy and precision of laboratory results.

A

Quality control

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81
Q

What is the goal of QC?

A

To detect the errors and correct them before patient’s results are reported

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82
Q

It is concerned with the analytic phase of QA

A

Quality control

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83
Q

Objectives of Quality Control?

A

To check the stability of the machine
To check the quality reagents
To check the technical errors

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84
Q

Also known as Intralaboratory QC
Performed by laboratory personnel using control materials of know values and comparing the control values to established acceptable ranges

A

Internal QC

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85
Q

Also known as Interlaboratory QC, Proficiency testing
Performed by labor personnel when analyzing specimens sent to the laboratory by an external agency and the results generated are submitted to the agency for assessment.

A

External QC

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86
Q

It detects both random and systematic errors

A

Internal QC

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87
Q

The purpose is to maintain the accuracy of the analytical methods

A

External QC

88
Q

NRL

Hematology

A

National Kidney and Transplant Institute (NKTI)

89
Q

Clinical Chemistry

A

Lung Center of the Philippines

90
Q

Bacteriology, Clinical Microscopy, Blood banking, Mycology, Parasitology

A

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine (RITM)

91
Q

HIV/AIDS and other Sexually Transmitted Infections

A

San Lazaro Hospital - STD AIDS Cooperative Central Laboratory (SLH/SACCL

92
Q

The nearness or closeness of the assayed value to the target or true value.

A

Accuracy

93
Q

The ability of an analytical method to give repeated results on the same sample that agree with one another.

A

Precision

94
Q

The degree by which the method is easily repeated.

A

Practicability

95
Q

The ability of an analytical method to maintain the accuracy and precision over an extended period of time during the equipment, reagents, and personnel may change.

A

Reliability

96
Q

The ability of an analytical method to measure the smallest concentration of the analyte of the interest.

A

Sensitivity

97
Q

Ability of the test to detect the proportion of individuals with that disease who test positively with the test

A

Diagnostic sensitivity

98
Q

Indicates the ability of the test to generate more true-positives and few false-negative.

A

Diagnostic sensitivity

99
Q

True or False

Screening tests require high sensitivity so that no case is missed.

A

True

100
Q

Ability of an analytical method to measure only the analyte of interest (no interfering substance)

A

Specificity

101
Q

Ability of the test to detect the proportion of individuals without the disease who test negatively for the disease.

A

Diagnostic of Specificity

102
Q

It reflects the ability of the method to detect true-negatives with very few false-positives.

A

Diagnostic of the Specificity

103
Q

True or False

Confirmatory tests require high specificity to be certain in diagnosis.

A

True

104
Q

A quality management technique and symbols logic flow charts used by management information system to chart specific process of information flow.

It serves as a disruption to the exact sequence of work task and ways.

A

Flow Chart

105
Q

Also known as trend charts.

They are designed to show patterns of performance.

A unique graph used to display over a period of time.

A

Run Charts

106
Q

Used to plot control measurements against standards.

It is used to identify whether the process is in or out of control.

A

Control Charts

107
Q

It is a term assigned to a bar chart that is designed to illustrate the classical Pareto principle, which states that 80% of all the problems can be attributed to 20% of the possible causes.

A

Pareto charts

108
Q

Also known as Ishikawa diagrams and Fishbone diagrams.

This method identifies possible causes or contributing factors on quality defects.

The problem is placed in the head of the diagram, with possible causes branching out of the backbone, in the work flow direction.

A

Cause and Effect Diagrams

109
Q

This method used to show relationship between one variable and another.

A big advantage of this diagram is that all data points, not just the summary statistical indexes are plotted on the graph.

A

Scatter Diagram

110
Q

A technique of using a practical sequence on a flip chart or other visual aid to “tell the story”

A

Story Boards

111
Q

Extent which the test value is close to the true value.

Refers to the correctness of the value obtained to the actual value of analyte.

A

Accuracy

112
Q

True or False

The accuracy of the method is reflected by its ability to reproduce the value of reference samples of known concentration.

A

True

113
Q

True or False

To achieve accuracy, we also use blank.

A

True

114
Q

Used to set the absorbance (OD) to zero.

A

Blank

115
Q

Used when reagent is colorless

A

Water blank

116
Q

Used when reagent is colored

A

Reagent blank

117
Q

Also the Reference Material or Calibrator

It is used as a basis or reference for the calculation of the value of the unknown.

A

Standard

118
Q

It has highest purity

Can be measured directly.

A

Primary standard

119
Q

It has lowest purity.

Concentration is determined by comparison to a primary standard and this is less expensive.

A

Secondary standard

120
Q

Refers to the average of values.

Measure the central tendency.

A

Mean

121
Q

Refer to the most common value.

A

Mode

122
Q

The middle value and the 50th centile

A

Median

123
Q

Refers to the nearness of the obtained value to each other.

It is the “reproducibility” of a laboratory determination when it is run repeatedly under identical conditions.

A

Precision

124
Q

Substance having a known or determined range of values.

A

Control

125
Q

Values stated by the manufacturer

More expensive but can be used as external checks for accuracy.

A

Assayed commercial control

126
Q

Values not given, determined by the user.

A

Unassayed commercial control

127
Q

Shortcomings include increased for exposure to pathogens, deterioration, contamination and loss of potency.

A

Pooled control sera

128
Q

True or False

Bovine-based QC material is not the choice for immunochemistry, dye binding, and certain bilirubin assays.

A

True

129
Q

This refers to the control range

Range of values within which control result must fall.

A

Confidence interval

130
Q

Most common unit of precision

Measure of dispersion of the values around the mean

A

Standard Deviation

131
Q

Percentile express of the mean

A

Coefficient of Variation

132
Q

A measure of variability.

A

Variance

133
Q

Bell shaped curve

It is obtained by plotting the values from multiple analyses of sample.

A

Gaussian Distribution Curve

134
Q

It is occurs when data elements are centered around the mean with most elements close to the mean.

It focuses on the distribution of errors from the analytical method rather than the values from a healthy or patient population

A

Gaussian Distribution Curve

135
Q

Refers to the degree of flatness or sharpness in the peak of a set values having a Gaussian distribution.

A

Kurtosis

136
Q

It calculates the difference between QC results and the target means.

This plot will give the earliest indication of systemic errors (trend) and can be with the 13s rule.

A

Cumulative Sum Graph (CUSUM)

137
Q

True or False?

When a systemic error is present the CUSUM values steadily increase.

A

True

138
Q

Used to compare results obtained on a high and low control serum from different laboratories.

A

Youden/Twin plot

139
Q

Compares most recent patient result with previous results.

Most commonly used patient based-QC technique

A

Delta Check

140
Q

Most common and most widely used in QC chart in the laboratory.

A

Shewhart Levey-Jennings Chart

141
Q

Is a graph wherein quality control data is plotted on to give a visual indication whether a laboratory test is working well.

A

Shewhart Levey-Jennings Chart

142
Q

It is formed by control values that either increase or decrease for 6 consecutive days.

A

Trend

143
Q

What is the main cause of trend?

A

Deterioration of Reagents

144
Q

It is formed by control values that distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for 6 consecutive days.

A

Shift

145
Q

What is the main cause of shift?

A

Improper calibration of the instrument

146
Q

Refers to the sample values that are widely scattered in an unusual and unexplained pattern around the mean.

A

Dispersion

147
Q

Causes of dispersion

A

Operators inattention
Clerical errors
Interfering substances in the reagent
Electronic or optical variation in instrument

148
Q

Are control values that are far from the main set of values.

Are highly deviating values caused by random or systemic errors.

A

Outliers

149
Q

It is recognized that the use of simple upper and lower control limits is not enough to identify analytical problems.

Used to accept or reject a “run” of samples.

A

Westward Multi-rules

150
Q

What are random errors?

A

1:3S and R:4S

151
Q

What are systematic errors?

A

2:2S
4:1S
10:x

152
Q

Is due to chance

Basis for varying differences between repeated measurements

A

Random error

153
Q

Unable to predict because they are no pattern

A

Random error

154
Q

Random errors are caused by:

A

Pipetting errors (incorrect volume)
Mislabeling of the specimen
Voltage/Temperature fluctuation
Improper mixing of the sample and reagent
Analytical result is assigned to a wrong specimen
Sample error (lipemia, drug interference, hemolysis)

155
Q

Is an error that influences observations consistently in one direction (constant difference)

Predictable

Usually analytical errors

A

Systematic error

156
Q

Systematic error are often related to:

A

Calibration problems
Deterioration of reagents and control materials
Contaminated solutions
Unstable and inadequate reagent blanks
Dirty photometer
Leaky ion selective electrode (ISE)
Failing instrumentation
Poorly written procedures

157
Q

Highest frequency of clerical errors with the use of handwritten labels and request forms.

Online computer input is the most error-feee means of requesting laboratory tests.

A

Clerical errors

158
Q

Also the reference limit/interval/value or normal value

Range in which a certain percentage of the population is expected to fall

A

Reference Range

159
Q

Factors to be considered when establishing reference intervals

A

Composition of the reference population
Criteria used for excluding and including the individuals from the reference population
Physiologic and environmental conditions
Specimen collection, including preparation for testing
Analytical method used

160
Q

FBS

A

8-10 hours

161
Q

Lipid profile

A

10-14 hours

162
Q

BMP (Na, K, Cl, CO2, Glu, BUN, CRT, Ca:

A

10-12 hours

163
Q

A process by which blood is obtained from a patient vein

A

Venipuncture

164
Q

Is the deoxygenated blood with a dark red color.

A

Venous blood

165
Q

What are the advantages of the venipuncture?

A

Collect large amount of blood
Repeated and additional blood tests can be made
Can be stored for future use
Ideal for blood chemistry determination

166
Q

Outpatient/Ambulatory patient:

A

Verbally ask the name
DOB
Ask for an ID card conscious

167
Q

In patient/Hospitalized patients

A

Verbally ask the full name
Verify the name using ID/bracelet

168
Q

Sleeping patients

A

Must be awakened before blood collection
Verbally ask full name
Verify the name using ID/bracelet

169
Q

Unconscious, mentally incompetent patients

A

Ask the attending nurse or the relative verify using ID/bracelet

170
Q

Infants/children

A

A nurse or relative may identify the patient verify using ID bracelet

171
Q

What is the proper patient positioning in venipuncture

A

The patient is lying supine or sitting in a phlebotomy chair
Position patient’s arm using the phlebotomy wedge or patient’s fist

172
Q

Torniquet application

A

Should not be pinched
Should be flat around the arm and not rolled or twisted
Should be applied 3 to 4 inches or 3 fingers above the venipuncture site
Remain in place for 1 minute
Should be released for 2 minutes before being reapplied

173
Q

Blood pressure cuff

A

Inflated 40 mm/hg

174
Q

Site selection

A

Select a vein that is large and does not roll
Exam in antecubital area first
Ask the patient to hold arm still and make a fist
Palpate the vein using the tip of your index finger not the thumb
Use a warm, moist compress for 3 to 5 minutes to increase vein sized if needed

175
Q

Cleansing the site

A

Circular motion, starting inside of the venipuncture site and working outward in widening concentric circles about 2 to 3 inches
Cleaning the site with an antiseptic (70% isopropyl alcohol) helps prevents contamination
Be sure to allow the alcohol to dry before attempting the venipuncture procedure
Never blow on the site/never wipe it dry

176
Q

Performing the venipuncture

A

Reapply the tourniquet
Visually confirm the venipuncture site
Anchor the below the venipuncture site, place the thumb of the non dominant hand 1-2 inches below the puncture site and pulling the skin taut.
Insert the needle at a 15 degrees to 30 degrees angle.
Insert the evacuate tube and allow it to fill.

177
Q

Calcium A

A

5x

178
Q

Na Citrate

A

3-4x

179
Q

Heparin

A

8x

180
Q

EDTA

A

8x

181
Q

NaF

A

8x

182
Q

Bruising or skin discoloration

A

Ecchymosis

183
Q

Collection of blood into the surrounding tissue and skin layer

A

Hematoma

184
Q

Following information that needs to be fill up in collecting specimen

A

Patient’s name
Identification number
Date and Time of collection
Phlebotomist initial
Test maybe included

185
Q

Do NOT draw blood in the following areas

A

Edematous or has a lesion
IV site
Arm on the side of a mastectomy
Underside wrist
Lower extremities
Feet
Ankle

186
Q

True or False

The gauge of the needle is inversely related to the size of the needle

A

True

187
Q

21 gauge

A

Standard for venipuncture

188
Q

23 gauge

A

Children

189
Q

23 or 25 gauge

A

Winged infusion set

190
Q

23 gauge butterfly

A

For small and difficult veins

191
Q

25 gauge

A

Collection from scalp or other tiny veins of infants

192
Q

Sites to be avoided for venipuncture

A

Burned areas
Areas with hematoma
Thrombosed veins
Edematous arms
Mastectomy on one or both arms
Arms with AV shunt
Casts
IV therapy lines in both arms

193
Q

Procedures in collecting below the IV

A

Turn off the IV at least 5 minutes before venipuncture
Apply the torniquet below the IV site
Select a vein other than the one with the IV
Draw 5 ml of blood and discard before drawing the specimen tubes for testing

194
Q

Common causes of hematoma

A

Vein is fragile or too small for the needle size
Needle penetrates all the way through the vein
Needle is partly inserted in to the vein
Needle is removed while the torniquet is still on
Pressure is not adequately applied after venipuncture

195
Q

Liquid that remains when clotting is prevented with the addition of an anticoagulant

A

Plasma

196
Q

Density is 1.025 g/ml

A

Plasma

197
Q

Liquid that remains after the blood has clotted.

A

Serum

198
Q

Obtain after the centrifuging whole blood containing anticoagulant

A

Plasma

199
Q

Contain clotting factors

A

Plasma

200
Q

Obtain after centrifuging clotted blood

A

Serum

201
Q

Does not contain clotting factors

A

Serum

202
Q

Yellow colored serum due to increase bilirubin pigment interfere with albumin, Chol, TP and glucose.

Cause: increase bilirubin

A

Icteric

203
Q

Reddish due to the rupture of RBC membrane releasing hemoglobin and other red cell components

Caused: Rupture of RBCs

A

Hemolyzed

204
Q

White colored serum due to high fat content

Causes: TAG levels exceed 400 mg/dL, alcoholism, steroids

A

Lipemic

205
Q

Are substances which prevent blood coagulation

They inhibit coagulation process by eliminating calcium or by binding with thrombin.

A

Anticoagulants/Blood anticoagulants

206
Q

EDTA, Citrate, Calcium binds with

A

Calcium

207
Q

Heparin binds with

A

Thrombin

208
Q

Tubes containing sodium and potassium anticoagulants are not use in measuring concentration of electrolytes

A

False positive result

209
Q

Tubes contain sodium oxalate are not used for measuring calcium level because oxalate will react with calcium and precipitated as calcium oxalate

A

False negative result

210
Q

Tubes with EDTA and citrate are not suitable for enzymatic assays because it binds with calcium ion that is a cofactor for enzymes like alkaline phosphates

A

False Negative Result

211
Q

Order of Draw

A

Blood cultures
Light blue stopper tubes
Red/gray
Green/Light green
Lavender
Gray
Yellow/Orange

212
Q

Ideal temperature for storing serum (long term)

A

Rapid freezing in liquid nitrogen

213
Q

Short term storage of serum (6 weeks)

A

Store at -200 degrees Celsius

214
Q

Specimen retention

Clinical samples

A

1 year at -80 degrees Celsius

215
Q

Serum/Plasma

A

48 hours

216
Q

CSF/Body fluid

A

7 days

217
Q

Grounds of rejecting a specimen

A

Unlabeled or mislabeled specimen
Insufficient volume of specimen collected
Clots in an anti coagulated tube
Hemolysis
Improper transport
Wrong blood collection tube
Discrepancies between requisition and specimen label
Non-fasting if required

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