LABMAN Flashcards

1
Q

Removes hazard at the source

Preferred solution to protect workers because no exposure can occur

A

Elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

using a safer alternative to the source of the hazard

effective substitutes reduce the potential for harmful effects and do not create new risks

A

Substitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

reduce or prevent hazards from coming into contact with workers

modifying equipment or the workspace, using protective
barriers, ventilation, and more.

A

Engineering Controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Establish work practices that reduce the duration, frequency, or intensity of exposure to hazards.

A

Administrative Controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Equipment worn to minimize exposure to hazards

A

PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PPE should address:

A

Workplace hazards assessment

PPE selection and use

Inspection and replacement of damaged or worn out PPE

Program monitoring for continued effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

disease producing agents (pathogens) that can be transmitted to individuals through various routes of exposure

A

Biohazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)

Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

A

Blood and Body Fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)
Hepatitis E Virus (HEV)

A

Fecal-Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Herpes Simplex Viruses (HSV)

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE)

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)

Clostridium difficile (C. difficile)

A

Contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

A

Small particle aerosol (airborne)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

Coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2)

Herpes Zoster Virus (HZV)

Influenza virus (Flu)

Measles (Rubeola virus)

A

More than one mode: contact, and/or
droplet spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Habitat for organism to grow; human, animal, air, food, soil, water, equipment

A

Reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Secretions (e.g. saliva), excretions (e.g. urine, feces)

A

Port of exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contact, droplet, airborne, vector, formites

A

Modes of Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mucosa, lining, open, wound, oral, respiratory tract, urinary tract

A

Port of Entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Biosafety levels:

Agents that have no known potential for infecting healthy people

A

BSL 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Biosafety levels:

Microorganisms associated with
human diseases that are rarely serious and for which preventive or therapeutic interventions are often available.

A

BSL2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Biosafety levels:

Material that may
contain viruses not normally encountered
in a clinical laboratory and mycobacteria

A

BSL 3 with risk based enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Biosafety levels:

dangerous and exotic agents that pose a higher risk of aerosol transmitted laboratory infections and life-threatening disease for which effective treatments are limited.

A

BSL 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Biosafety level:

Controlled access

Hand washing sink

Sharp hazards warning policy

Personal protective equipment

Laboratory bench
Autoclave

A

BSL1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Biosafety level:

Controlled access

Hand washing sink

Sharp hazards warning policy

Physical containment device

Personal protective equipment

Laboratory bench

Autoclave

A

BSL 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Biosafety level:

Air tight when disinfecting

Self-closing, double-door access

Controlled access

Personal shower out (risk-based enhancement)

Sharp hazards warning policy

Hand washing sink

Sealed penetrations

Physical containment device

Powered air purifying respirator (risk- based enhancement)

Laboratory bench

Autoclave

Exhaust HEPA filter (risk-based enhancement)

Effluent decontamination system (risk- based enhancement)

A

BSL 3 with Risk Based Enhancements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Biosafety levels:

Air tight

Self-closing, double-door access

Controlled access

Sharp hazards warning policy

Hand washing sink

Sealed penetrations

Physical containment device

Positive pressure protective suit

Laboratory bench

Autoclave

Chemical shower out

Personal shower out

Supply and exhaust
HEPA filter

Effluent decontamination system

A

BSL 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Most important means of preventing the spread of infection
Hand washing
26
If hands are visibly soiled, wash hands with soap and water for ----
1-2 mins
27
If hands are not visibly soiled, wash hands for at least --- or use
30 secs; alcohol
28
CDC Guidelines: During hand washing, thoroughly clean between your fingers and under your fingernails for at least ------
20 secs
29
CDC guidelines: rinse hands in a --- position to prevent recontamination
downward
30
Worn to protect the clothing and skin of health Should be put on first
Laboratory gown
31
Worn to protect against splashes and inhalation of droplets containing pathogens from infective patients.
Masks, Goggles, Face shields
32
Worn to protect healthcare workers from contamination by patient body substances
Gloves
33
Donning steps:
Gown should be put on first Mask should cover both nose and mouth Gloves should be pulled over the gown cuff
34
Doffing steps:
Gloves are removed first. Gown should be pulled from the shoulders towards the hands Mask should be removed
35
Decontamination recommended contact time
15 minutes
36
Decontamination of Body Fluid Spills uses
5.25% NaOCL or 10% chlorine bleach (1:10 dilution)
37
enclosed workspaces with a ventilated hood that is designed to contain pathogenic microorganisms during microbiological processes.
Biosafety Cabinets
38
primary purpose of biosafety cabinets
protect the laboratory personnel and the environment from the pathogenic microorganism
39
most suitable for work with hazardous agents that require Biosafety Level 3 or 4 | BIOSAFETY CLASS
Class III BSCs
40
Cabinet for BSL I and II
Class I and II biosafety cabinets
41
the most basic biosafety cabinet that provides protection to the environment and the laboratory personnel.
Class I
42
Room air is drawn in through the opening that also allows the entry of the operator’s arm during work | BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION
Class I BSC
43
Provide both kinds of protection (of the samples and the environment) since makeup air is also HEPA- filtered. | BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION
Class II
44
Air moves underneath the work station and back up to the top of the cabinet before passing through the HEPA filters. Exhaust that moves out of the facility consists of air being drawn into the front of the cabinet underneath the work surface **Air drawn in acts as a barrier against the potentially contaminated air coming back out to the operator** | BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION
Class II
45
Have a minimum inflow velocity of 75ft/min where the contaminated divided just above the work station and mixes with the inflow air
CLASS II Type A1
46
have a minimum inflow velocity of 100 ft/min. air enters the chamber through the front aperture, which provides operator protection.
Class II Type A2
47
Approximately **60% to 70% of the contaminated air is recycled** and pushed back into the workstation in the chamber through the downflow HEPA filter, while the ***remaining 30% to 40% is exhausted*** through the exhaust HEPA filter.
Class II Type A2
48
use single-pass airflow to control the flow of hazardous vapors
Class II Type B cabinets
49
Divide the airflow so that the contaminated air is directed towards the exhaust system while the air between the operator and the workstation mixes with the inflow and is recirculated. | BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION
Class II Type B1
50
40% of the air is recirculated, whereas the remaining 60% is exhausted out of the facility | BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION
Class II Type B1
51
Air is drawn in from the front opening creating an air barrier that protects the operator. Air is also drawn in from an opening at the top of the cabinet that supplies the downflow of air in the cabinet. | BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION
Class II Type B2
52
The air then passes through a HEPA filter, where 100% of the air is exhausted through a dedicated duct system with an exhaust fan motor. The **air moving out of the facility is thus sterilized before its release into the atmosphere** | BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION
Class II Type B2
53
The advantage of this system is the removal of toxic vapors that are generated in the cabinet with no recirculation within the BSC | BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION
Class II Type B2
54
Similar to Type B cabinets in their working mechanism, but these are designed to reduce operating costs add flexibility to the laboratories.
Class II Type C1
55
Are leak-tight, totally enclosed but ventilated cabinets, where all air that either enters or leaves through the facility pass through a HEPA filter.
Class III cabinets
56
Provided with rubber gloves that are attached to the system to be used during operations in the cabinet.
Class III Cabinets
57
These cabinets can be used for all four Biosafety levels (1, 2, 3, and 4). But these are the most important for the manipulation of biological materials in the Biosafety level 4.
Class III Cabinets
58
Important source of information for workers, lab personnel, emergency responders, and emergency medical personnel
SDS
59
Color for health hazard
Blue
60
Color for Fire Hazard
Red
61
Color for Instability Hazard
Yellow
62
Color for specific hazard
White
63
Rating Health Hazard: Deadly; Special full protective suit and breathing apparatus must be worn
4
64
Health Hazard: Extremely danger; Full protective suit and breathing apparatus
3
65
Health Hazard: Hazardous; Breathing apparatus should be worn
2
66
Fire Hazard: Below 73 deg F; Very flammable
4
67
Fire Hazard: Below 100 deg F; Ignites under normal temperature conditions
3
68
Fire Hazard: Below 200 deg F; Ignites with moderate heating
2
69
Fire Hazard: Above 200 deg F; Ignites when preheated
1
70
Instability Hazard: May detonate under normal conditions
4
71
Instability Hazard: Shock and Heat may detonate; May detonate with shock or heat
3
72
Instability Hazard: Violent chemical change; does not detonate
2
73
found at the long wavelength end of the spectrum and may have enough energy to excite molecules and atoms causing them to vibrate faster. Examples are radio, TV, microwave and etc.
Non-ionising radiation
74
has more energy than non-ionising radiation; enough to cause chemical changes by breaking chemical bonds Examples are medical X-ray and radioactive sources
Ionising radiation
75
TYPE OF FIRE: Wood, paper, cloth Class of Fire:
Class A Ordinary Combustibles
76
TYPE OF FIRE: Gasoline, Paints, Oils, Grease Class of Fire:
Class B Flammable liquids
77
TYPE OF FIRE: Electrical wiring, fuse box Class of Fire:
Class C; Live Electrical Equipment
78
TYPE OF FIRE: Metals Class of Fire:
Type D; combustible metal
79
TYPE OF FIRE: Commercial Cooking Equipment Class of Fire:
Type K; Commercial Cooking Equipment
80
Approved fire extinguisher for Class A fire
Type A; Type A-B
81
Approved fire extinguisher for Class B
Type A-B; B-C; A-B-C
82
Approved fire extinguisher for Class C
Type B-C, A-B-C
83
Approved fire extinguisher for Class D
Bucket of Sand
84
Approved fire extinguisher for Class K
Wet chemical
85
Activities characterized by constant or excessive repetitive actions, mechanical pressure, vibrations, compressive forces or static postures for an extended period of time which may cause cumulative trauma disorders or work related MSD
Ergonomic Hazard
86
Color coding for health care waste: non-infectious dry waste
Black
87
Color coding for health care waste: Non-infectious wet waste (kitchen, dietary, etc.)
Green
88
Color coding for health care waste: infectious and pathological waste
yellow
89
Color coding for health care waste: Chemical waste including those w/ heavy metals
Yellow with black band
90
Color coding for health care waste: Radioactive waste
Orange
91
Color coding for health care waste: sharps and pressurized containers
Red
92
Waste handling: Non-infectious waste - kitchen waste, bottles and cans, papers and cartons collection site:
garbage holding area
93
Waste handling: Non-infectious waste - kitchen waste, bottles and cans, papers and cartons waste disposal:
Composting, Animal feeds, recylcing
94
Waste handling: aerosol and pressurized container collection site
designated storage area
95
Waste handling: aerosol and pressurized container waste disposal:
landfill disposal by supplier
96
Waste handling: infectious waste treatment:
non-burn technologies
97
Waste handling: infectious waste waste disposal:
landfill
98
Waste handling: chemical waste waste disposal
sink recycling
99
Waste handling: sharps waste disposal
landfill burying
100
Waste handling: pharmaceutical waste (expired)
disposable by supplier
101
Waste handling: pathological waste waste disposal
recycling concrete vault burying
102
the organizing and controlling of the affairs of a business or a sector of a business or “working with and through people to accomplish a common mission.
Management (administration)
103
autocratic; closed system; manager makes all decisions without input from others
Authoritarian
104
participated; open system; manager makes decisions after polling staff
democratic
105
manager gets at least partial agreement from staff
consensus
106
free reign; manager leaves decision to staff, abdicates responsibility
Laissez-faire
107
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs most important to least
self-actualization self-esteem love and belonging safety and security physiological needs
108
Motivational theory: **improving** the ***motivator factors*** increases job satisfaction **improving** the ***hygiene factors*** **decreases job dissatisfaction**
Herzberg's Two Factor Principles
109
Motivational theory: Styles can be plotted on a continuum from authoritative to democratic.
Tannenbaum and Schmidt theory
110
Motivational Theory: relates to authoritative leader | Douglas McGregor’s X and Y theory
X theory
111
Motivational Theory: relates to the democratic leader | Douglas McGregor’s X and Y theory
Y theory
112
Motivational theory: describes five types of management situations
Blake and Mouton theory
113
Blake and Mouton theory: Low concern for people and production
Impoverished management.
114
Blake and Mouton theory: Low concern for people, but high concern for production
Authority-compliance
115
Blake and Mouton theory: Medium concern for people and production
Middle-of-the-road management
116
Blake and Mouton theory: High concern for people, but low concern for production
Country club management.
117
Blake and Mouton theory: High concern for people and production
Team management
118
This theory indicates that the style used by the leader may vary according to the situation with a very favorable or very unfavorable situation requiring a task-oriented leader and a moderately favorable or moderately unfavorable situation requiring a relationship-oriented leader.
Fielder theory
119
Motivational theory: Four leadership situations: a)Employee new to job. b)Employee has mastered some of the job, but needs supervision. c)Employee has mastered the job, but needs verification. d) Employee has mastered the job and is confident
Hersey-Blanchard theory
120
Skills of Managers:
Organizational skills People skills Financial skills Technical skills
121
Skills of Managers: Conceptualize and apply management process, systematize workflow, make decisions, and communicate with coworkers
Organizational Skills
122
Skills of Managers: Understands basic theories of human needs and work motivation.
People skills
123
Skills of Managers: Effective use of and accounting for the monetary assets of the company
Financial skills
124
Skills of Managers: Involve the synthesis of the first three skills above and the management of physical resources (supplies, equipment, facilities) into the operational parameters (products and services)
Technical skills
125
Foundations of Management Process: a descriptive picture of a desired future state, long-term
Vision
126
Foundations of Management Process: organization's purpose
Mission
127
Foundations of Management Process: organization’s desired outcomes, intermediate term and broad
Goals
128
Foundations of Management Process: directives that describe how a goal will be achieved; should be SMART
Objectives
129
The concept as a continuous process of interacting functions, each dependent on the success of the other.
Management process
130
Four main functions of Management Process:
Planning Organizing Directing Controlling
131
the act of overseeing all activities and tasks that must be accomplished to maintain a desired level of excellence. This includes the determination of a quality policy, creating and implementing quality planning and assurance, and quality control and quality improvement
Quality management
132
provides both a management philosophy for organizational development and a management process for improvement of quality in all aspects of work.
TQM
133
includes analytical processes and the general policies, practices and procedures that define how all aspects of the laboratory are done (Quality Assurance)
Quality Laboratory Process(QLP)
134
emphasizes statistical control procedures, but also includes non-statistical check procedure such as linearity checks, reagents and standard checks and temperature monitoring
Quality Control (QC)
135
concerned primarily with broader measures and monitoring of laboratory performance (TAT, patient ID, test utility)
Quality Assessment (QA)
136
a structured problem solving process to help identify the root cause of a problem and a remedy for that problem
Quality Improvement (QI)
137
provides the planning to eliminate problems identified by QI
Quality Planning (QP)
138
a set of methodologies and tools used to improve business processes by reducing defects and errors, minimizing variation, and increasing quality and efficiency.
Six Sigma
139
The Six Sigma Methodology comprises five data-driven stages
Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control (DMAIC)
140
designed to reduce waste, increase efficiency, and improve customer satisfaction; often used in clinical laboratories to improve turn around time (TAT)
Lean
141
5 Lean Principles
Define Value Map Value Stream Create Flow Establish Pull System Pursue Perfection
142
Medical Laboratories is an international standard that specifies the requirements for quality and competence in medical lab environments. Essentially, it is a standard that requires labs to develop a robust, reliable quality management system (QMS) to establish their competence.
ISO 15189:2022
143
Targets organizational and employee performance by aligning goals and objectives throughout the organization, including timelines, tracking, and feedback in the process
Management by objective (MBO)
144
process whereby the best process in one organization is modified to fit similar processes in another organization
Benchmarking
145
Identifies many possible causes for an effect or problem and sorts ideas into useful categories.
Cause -and -effect diagram (also called Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams
146
A structured, prepared form for collecting and analyzing data; a generic tool that can be adapted for a wide variety of purposes
Check sheet
147
Graph used to study how a process changes over time. Comparing current data to historical control limits leads to conclusions about whether the process variation is consistent (in control) or is unpredictable (out of control, affected by special causes of variation).
Control chart
148
The most commonly used graph for showing frequency distributions, or how often each different value in a set of data occurs
Histogram
149
A bar graph that **shows** which **factors are more significant**.
Pareto chart
150
Graphs pairs of numerical data, one variable on each axis, to look for a relationship.
Scatter Diagram
151
A technique that separates data gathered from a variety of sources so that patterns can be seen
Stratification