Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MTAP 2 FINALS > LABMAN > Flashcards

LABMAN Flashcards

1
Q

Removes hazard at the source

Preferred solution to protect workers because no exposure can occur

A

Elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

using a safer alternative to the source of the hazard

effective substitutes reduce the potential for harmful effects and do not create new risks

A

Substitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

reduce or prevent hazards from coming into contact with workers

modifying equipment or the workspace, using protective
barriers, ventilation, and more.

A

Engineering Controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Establish work practices that reduce the duration, frequency, or intensity of exposure to hazards.

A

Administrative Controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Equipment worn to minimize exposure to hazards

A

PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PPE should address:

A

Workplace hazards assessment

PPE selection and use

Inspection and replacement of damaged or worn out PPE

Program monitoring for continued effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

disease producing agents (pathogens) that can be transmitted to individuals through various routes of exposure

A

Biohazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)

Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

A

Blood and Body Fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)
Hepatitis E Virus (HEV)

A

Fecal-Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Herpes Simplex Viruses (HSV)

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE)

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)

Clostridium difficile (C. difficile)

A

Contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

A

Small particle aerosol (airborne)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pathogens and Common Modes of Transmission:

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

Coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2)

Herpes Zoster Virus (HZV)

Influenza virus (Flu)

Measles (Rubeola virus)

A

More than one mode: contact, and/or
droplet spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Habitat for organism to grow; human, animal, air, food, soil, water, equipment

A

Reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Secretions (e.g. saliva), excretions (e.g. urine, feces)

A

Port of exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contact, droplet, airborne, vector, formites

A

Modes of Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mucosa, lining, open, wound, oral, respiratory tract, urinary tract

A

Port of Entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Biosafety levels:

Agents that have no known potential for infecting healthy people

A

BSL 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Biosafety levels:

Microorganisms associated with
human diseases that are rarely serious and for which preventive or therapeutic interventions are often available.

A

BSL2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Biosafety levels:

Material that may
contain viruses not normally encountered
in a clinical laboratory and mycobacteria

A

BSL 3 with risk based enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Biosafety levels:

dangerous and exotic agents that pose a higher risk of aerosol transmitted laboratory infections and life-threatening disease for which effective treatments are limited.

A

BSL 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Biosafety level:

Controlled access

Hand washing sink

Sharp hazards warning policy

Personal protective equipment

Laboratory bench
Autoclave

A

BSL1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Biosafety level:

Controlled access

Hand washing sink

Sharp hazards warning policy

Physical containment device

Personal protective equipment

Laboratory bench

Autoclave

A

BSL 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Biosafety level:

Air tight when disinfecting

Self-closing, double-door access

Controlled access

Personal shower out (risk-based enhancement)

Sharp hazards warning policy

Hand washing sink

Sealed penetrations

Physical containment device

Powered air purifying respirator (risk- based enhancement)

Laboratory bench

Autoclave

Exhaust HEPA filter (risk-based enhancement)

Effluent decontamination system (risk- based enhancement)

A

BSL 3 with Risk Based Enhancements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Biosafety levels:

Air tight

Self-closing, double-door access

Controlled access

Sharp hazards warning policy

Hand washing sink

Sealed penetrations

Physical containment device

Positive pressure protective suit

Laboratory bench

Autoclave

Chemical shower out

Personal shower out

Supply and exhaust
HEPA filter

Effluent decontamination system

A

BSL 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most important means of preventing the spread of infection

A

Hand washing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If hands are visibly soiled, wash hands with soap and water for —-

A

1-2 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If hands are not visibly soiled, wash hands for at least — or use

A

30 secs; alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CDC Guidelines: During hand washing, thoroughly clean between your fingers
and under your fingernails for at least ——

A

20 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CDC guidelines: rinse hands in a — position to prevent recontamination

A

downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Worn to protect the clothing and skin of
health

Should be put on first

A

Laboratory gown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Worn to protect against splashes and
inhalation of droplets containing
pathogens from infective patients.

A

Masks, Goggles, Face shields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Worn to protect healthcare workers from
contamination by patient body
substances

A

Gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Donning steps:

A

Gown should be put on first

Mask should cover both nose and mouth

Gloves should be pulled over the gown
cuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Doffing steps:

A

Gloves are removed first.

Gown should be pulled from the shoulders towards the hands

Mask should be removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Decontamination recommended contact time

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Decontamination of Body Fluid Spills uses

A

5.25% NaOCL or 10% chlorine bleach (1:10 dilution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

enclosed workspaces with a ventilated hood that is designed to contain pathogenic microorganisms during microbiological processes.

A

Biosafety Cabinets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

primary purpose of biosafety cabinets

A

protect the laboratory personnel and the environment from the pathogenic microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most suitable for work with hazardous agents that require Biosafety Level 3 or 4

BIOSAFETY CLASS

A

Class III BSCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cabinet for BSL I and II

A

Class I and II biosafety cabinets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

the most basic biosafety cabinet that provides protection to the environment and the laboratory personnel.

A

Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Room air is drawn in through the opening that also allows the entry of the operator’s arm during work

BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION

A

Class I BSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Provide both kinds of protection (of the samples and the environment) since makeup air is also HEPA- filtered.

BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION

A

Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Air moves underneath the work station and back up to the top of the cabinet before passing through the HEPA filters.

Exhaust that moves out of the facility consists of air being drawn into the front of the cabinet underneath the work surface

Air drawn in acts as a barrier against the potentially contaminated air coming back out to the operator

BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION

A

Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Have a minimum inflow velocity of 75ft/min where the contaminated divided just above the work station and mixes with the inflow air

A

CLASS II Type A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

have a minimum inflow velocity of 100 ft/min.

air enters the chamber through the front aperture, which provides operator protection.

A

Class II Type A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Approximately 60% to 70% of the contaminated air is recycled and pushed back into the workstation in the chamber through the downflow HEPA filter, while the remaining 30% to 40% is exhausted through the exhaust HEPA filter.

A

Class II Type A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

use single-pass airflow to control the flow of hazardous vapors

A

Class II Type B cabinets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Divide the airflow so that the contaminated air is directed towards the exhaust system while the air between the operator and the workstation mixes with the inflow and is recirculated.

BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION

A

Class II Type B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

40% of the air is recirculated, whereas the remaining 60% is exhausted out of the facility

BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION

A

Class II Type B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Air is drawn in from the front opening creating an air barrier that protects the operator.

Air is also drawn in from an opening at the top of the cabinet that supplies the downflow of air in the cabinet.

BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION

A

Class II Type B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The air then passes through a HEPA filter, where 100% of the air is exhausted through a dedicated duct system with an exhaust fan motor. The air moving out of the facility is thus sterilized before its release into the atmosphere

BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION

A

Class II Type B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The advantage of this system is the removal of toxic vapors that are generated in the cabinet with no recirculation within the BSC

BIOSAFETY CABINET CLASSIFICATION

A

Class II Type B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Similar to Type B cabinets in their working mechanism, but these are designed to reduce operating costs add flexibility to the laboratories.

A

Class II Type C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Are leak-tight, totally enclosed but ventilated cabinets, where all air that either enters or leaves through the facility pass through a HEPA filter.

A

Class III cabinets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Provided with rubber gloves that are attached to the system to be used during operations in the cabinet.

A

Class III Cabinets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

These cabinets can be used for all four Biosafety levels (1, 2, 3, and 4). But these are the most important for the manipulation of biological materials in the Biosafety level 4.

A

Class III Cabinets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Important source of information for workers, lab personnel, emergency responders, and emergency medical personnel

A

SDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Color for health hazard

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Color for Fire Hazard

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Color for Instability Hazard

A

Yellow

62
Q

Color for specific hazard

A

White

63
Q

Rating Health Hazard:

Deadly; Special full protective suit and breathing apparatus must be worn

A

4

64
Q

Health Hazard:

Extremely danger; Full protective suit and breathing apparatus

A

3

65
Q

Health Hazard:

Hazardous; Breathing apparatus should be worn

A

2

66
Q

Fire Hazard:

Below 73 deg F; Very flammable

A

4

67
Q

Fire Hazard:

Below 100 deg F; Ignites under normal temperature conditions

A

3

68
Q

Fire Hazard:

Below 200 deg F; Ignites with moderate heating

A

2

69
Q

Fire Hazard:

Above 200 deg F; Ignites when preheated

A

1

70
Q

Instability Hazard:

May detonate under normal conditions

A

4

71
Q

Instability Hazard:

Shock and Heat may detonate; May detonate with shock or heat

A

3

72
Q

Instability Hazard:

Violent chemical change; does not detonate

A

2

73
Q

found at the long wavelength end of the spectrum and may have enough energy to excite molecules and atoms causing them to vibrate faster.

Examples are radio, TV, microwave and etc.

A

Non-ionising radiation

74
Q

has more energy than non-ionising radiation; enough to cause chemical changes by breaking chemical bonds

Examples are medical X-ray and radioactive sources

A

Ionising radiation

75
Q

TYPE OF FIRE:

Wood, paper, cloth

Class of Fire:

A

Class A Ordinary Combustibles

76
Q

TYPE OF FIRE:

Gasoline, Paints, Oils, Grease

Class of Fire:

A

Class B Flammable liquids

77
Q

TYPE OF FIRE:

Electrical wiring, fuse box

Class of Fire:

A

Class C; Live Electrical Equipment

78
Q

TYPE OF FIRE:

Metals

Class of Fire:

A

Type D; combustible metal

79
Q

TYPE OF FIRE:

Commercial Cooking Equipment

Class of Fire:

A

Type K; Commercial Cooking Equipment

80
Q

Approved fire extinguisher for Class A fire

A

Type A; Type A-B

81
Q

Approved fire extinguisher for Class B

A

Type A-B; B-C; A-B-C

82
Q

Approved fire extinguisher for Class C

A

Type B-C, A-B-C

83
Q

Approved fire extinguisher for Class D

A

Bucket of Sand

84
Q

Approved fire extinguisher for Class K

A

Wet chemical

85
Q

Activities characterized by constant or excessive repetitive actions, mechanical pressure, vibrations, compressive forces or static postures for an extended period of time which may cause cumulative trauma disorders or work related MSD

A

Ergonomic Hazard

86
Q

Color coding for health care waste:

non-infectious dry waste

A

Black

87
Q

Color coding for health care waste:

Non-infectious wet waste (kitchen, dietary, etc.)

A

Green

88
Q

Color coding for health care waste:

infectious and pathological waste

A

yellow

89
Q

Color coding for health care waste:

Chemical waste including those w/ heavy metals

A

Yellow with black band

90
Q

Color coding for health care waste: Radioactive waste

A

Orange

91
Q

Color coding for health care waste: sharps and pressurized containers

A

Red

92
Q

Waste handling:

Non-infectious waste - kitchen waste, bottles and cans, papers and cartons

collection site:

A

garbage holding area

93
Q

Waste handling:

Non-infectious waste - kitchen waste, bottles and cans, papers and cartons

waste disposal:

A

Composting, Animal feeds, recylcing

94
Q

Waste handling:

aerosol and pressurized container

collection site

A

designated storage area

95
Q

Waste handling:

aerosol and pressurized container

waste disposal:

A

landfill
disposal by supplier

96
Q

Waste handling:

infectious waste

treatment:

A

non-burn technologies

97
Q

Waste handling:

infectious waste

waste disposal:

A

landfill

98
Q

Waste handling:

chemical waste

waste disposal

A

sink
recycling

99
Q

Waste handling:

sharps

waste disposal

A

landfill
burying

100
Q

Waste handling:

pharmaceutical waste (expired)

A

disposable by supplier

101
Q

Waste handling:

pathological waste

waste disposal

A

recycling
concrete vault
burying

102
Q

the organizing and controlling of the affairs of a business or a sector of a business or “working with and through people to accomplish a common mission.

A

Management (administration)

103
Q

autocratic; closed system; manager makes all decisions without input from others

A

Authoritarian

104
Q

participated; open system; manager makes decisions after polling staff

A

democratic

105
Q

manager gets at least partial agreement from staff

A

consensus

106
Q

free reign; manager leaves decision to staff, abdicates responsibility

A

Laissez-faire

107
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs most important to least

A

self-actualization
self-esteem
love and belonging
safety and security
physiological needs

108
Q

Motivational theory:

improving the motivator factors increases job satisfaction

improving the hygiene factors decreases job dissatisfaction

A

Herzberg’s Two Factor Principles

109
Q

Motivational theory:

Styles can be plotted on a continuum from authoritative to democratic.

A

Tannenbaum and Schmidt theory

110
Q

Motivational Theory:

relates to authoritative leader

Douglas McGregor’s X and Y theory

A

X theory

111
Q

Motivational Theory:

relates to the democratic leader

Douglas McGregor’s X and Y theory

A

Y theory

112
Q

Motivational theory:

describes five types of management situations

A

Blake and Mouton theory

113
Q

Blake and Mouton theory:

Low concern for people and production

A

Impoverished management.

114
Q

Blake and Mouton theory:

Low concern for people, but high concern for production

A

Authority-compliance

115
Q

Blake and Mouton theory:

Medium concern for people and production

A

Middle-of-the-road management

116
Q

Blake and Mouton theory:

High concern for people, but low concern for production

A

Country club management.

117
Q

Blake and Mouton theory:

High concern for people and production

A

Team management

118
Q

This theory indicates that the style used by the leader may vary according to the situation with a very favorable or very unfavorable situation requiring a task-oriented leader and a moderately favorable or moderately unfavorable situation requiring a relationship-oriented leader.

A

Fielder theory

119
Q

Motivational theory:

Four leadership situations:

a)Employee new to job.

b)Employee has mastered some of the job, but needs supervision.

c)Employee has mastered the job, but needs verification.

d) Employee has mastered the job and is confident

A

Hersey-Blanchard theory

120
Q

Skills of Managers:

A

Organizational skills
People skills
Financial skills
Technical skills

121
Q

Skills of Managers:

Conceptualize and apply management process, systematize workflow, make decisions, and communicate with coworkers

A

Organizational Skills

122
Q

Skills of Managers:

Understands basic theories of human needs and work motivation.

A

People skills

123
Q

Skills of Managers:

Effective use of and accounting for the monetary assets of the company

A

Financial skills

124
Q

Skills of Managers:

Involve the synthesis of the first three skills above and the management of physical resources (supplies, equipment, facilities) into the operational parameters (products and services)

A

Technical skills

125
Q

Foundations of Management Process:

a descriptive picture of a desired future state, long-term

A

Vision

126
Q

Foundations of Management Process:

organization’s purpose

A

Mission

127
Q

Foundations of Management Process:

organization’s desired outcomes, intermediate term and broad

A

Goals

128
Q

Foundations of Management Process:

directives that describe how a goal will be achieved; should be SMART

A

Objectives

129
Q

The concept as a continuous process of interacting functions, each dependent on the success of the other.

A

Management process

130
Q

Four main functions of Management Process:

A

Planning
Organizing
Directing
Controlling

131
Q

the act of overseeing all activities and tasks that must be accomplished to maintain a desired level of excellence. This includes the determination of a quality policy, creating and implementing quality planning and assurance, and quality control and quality improvement

A

Quality management

132
Q

provides both a management philosophy for organizational development and a management process for improvement of quality in all aspects of work.

A

TQM

133
Q

includes analytical processes and the general policies, practices and procedures that define how all aspects of the laboratory are done (Quality Assurance)

A

Quality Laboratory Process(QLP)

134
Q

emphasizes statistical control procedures, but also includes non-statistical check procedure such as linearity checks, reagents and standard checks and temperature monitoring

A

Quality Control (QC)

135
Q

concerned primarily with broader measures and monitoring of laboratory performance (TAT, patient ID, test utility)

A

Quality Assessment (QA)

136
Q

a structured problem solving process to help identify the root cause of a problem and a remedy for that problem

A

Quality Improvement (QI)

137
Q

provides the planning to eliminate problems identified by QI

A

Quality Planning (QP)

138
Q

a set of methodologies and tools used to improve business processes by reducing defects and errors, minimizing variation, and increasing quality and efficiency.

A

Six Sigma

139
Q

The Six Sigma Methodology comprises five data-driven stages

A

Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control (DMAIC)

140
Q

designed to reduce waste, increase efficiency, and improve customer satisfaction; often used in clinical laboratories to improve turn around time (TAT)

A

Lean

141
Q

5 Lean Principles

A

Define Value
Map Value Stream
Create Flow
Establish Pull System
Pursue Perfection

142
Q

Medical Laboratories is an international standard that specifies the requirements for quality and competence in medical lab environments. Essentially, it is a standard that requires labs to develop a robust, reliable quality management system (QMS) to establish their competence.

A

ISO 15189:2022

143
Q

Targets organizational and employee performance by aligning goals and objectives throughout the organization, including timelines, tracking, and feedback in the process

A

Management by objective (MBO)

144
Q

process whereby the best process in one organization is modified to fit similar processes in another organization

A

Benchmarking

145
Q

Identifies many possible causes for an effect or problem and sorts ideas into useful categories.

A

Cause -and -effect diagram (also called Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams

146
Q

A structured, prepared form for collecting and analyzing data; a generic tool that can be adapted for a wide variety of purposes

A

Check sheet

147
Q

Graph used to study how a process changes over time. Comparing current data to historical control limits leads to conclusions about whether the process variation is consistent (in control) or is unpredictable (out of control, affected by special causes of variation).

A

Control chart

148
Q

The most commonly used graph for showing frequency distributions, or how often each different value in a set of data occurs

A

Histogram

149
Q

A bar graph that shows which factors are more significant.

A

Pareto chart

150
Q

Graphs pairs of numerical data, one variable on each axis, to look for a relationship.

A

Scatter Diagram

151
Q

A technique that separates data gathered from a variety of sources so that patterns can be seen

A

Stratification

MTAP 2 FINALS (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions