Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anesthesia scs RUSVM > Lab Final > Flashcards

Lab Final Flashcards

1
Q

This class of animals has complete tracheal rings

A

Birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

“Tripe drip” in an injectable anesthetic mixture commonly used in this species

A

Horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bradycardia is the primary indication for administering this class of drugs

A

Anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The filling pressure and volume of an O2 E cylinder

A

2200psi & 660L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This class of sedatives produces vasoconstriction, reflex bradycardia, and decreased CO

A

A2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This operator error will result in excessive breathing system pressure and patient death

A

Closed pop-off/APL valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The primary side effects of this sedative are vasodilation and hypotension

A

Acepromazine (Phenothiazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The concentration of anesthetic preventing movement in 50% of patients exposed to a noxious stimuli

A

MAC (Minimum Alveolar Concentration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Induction agent contraindicated in cats with cardiac or renal disease

A

Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Species especially prone to tracheal tears due to improper cuff inflation or breathing tube traction

A

Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Species most likely to develop malignant hyperthermia

A

Pigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Common induction agent that should be used in very low doses or not at all on “shocky” patients

A

Propofol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The PaO2 corresponding to an SpO2 of 90%

A

60mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The PaO2 corresponding to an SpO2 of 100%

A

550mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The PaO2 corresponding to an SpO2 of 98%

A

110mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Histamine release may occur with IV administration of this opioid

A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Inhalants administered at >1MAC should be avoided with this condition

A

Increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Group on animals that should be extubated with the ETT cuff inflated

A

Ruminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Serum sodium levels are a special concern when anesthetizing patients with this disease

A

Diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

You should check a coagulation profile before surgery in patients with dysfunction of this organ

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The primary indication for this alpha and beta agonist is CPR

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This drug is an Class IB antiarrhythmic agent used commonly to treat ventricular arrhythmias

A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This ECG diagnosis indicates a complete absence of electrical activity

A

Asystole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

These 2 ECG rhythms are treatable with defibrillation (“shockable”)

A

Ventricular fibrillation & pulseless ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This class of sedatives may cause hyperglycemia and should be avoided in patients w/DM

A

A2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Technique to treat respiratory acidosis in an anesthetized patient

A

IPPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Parts of an anesthesia machine under high pressure (100-2200psi)

A

Cylinder, regulator, cylinder pressure gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The cylinder color indicating oxygen

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The cylinder color indicating nitrogen (NO)

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The cylinder color indicating medical air

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gas enters the flow meter at ___psi and exists at ___psi

A

50, 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The % O2 that is in air as well as the legal drinking age in the USA

A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Minimum acceptable FiO2

A

0.3-0.35 / 30-35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Modern vaporizers are ___ , also known as ____

A

Out-Of-Circuit, Precision vaporizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F: The remaining amount of nitrogen in a cylinder can be calculated using the gauge

A

False (Gauge only reads the gas pressure, not the liquid nitrogen. Must use weight.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The gas-specific threaded connections

A

Diameter index system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The gas-specific pin patterns only allowing appropriate yolk-cylinder connections

A

Pin index system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F: Flow meters are gas-specific

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

This breathing system has one way gas-flow, includes a CO2 absorber and requires less fresh gas flow than the alternative.

A

Re-breathing system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The calculation used for bag sizes for small animals

A

15mL/kg x 6

BWx90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The calculation for O2 flow rate in animals <50kg and >50kg for maintenance

A

<50kg 20-50 mL/kg/min

>50kg: 10-20mL/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The calculation for O2 flow rate in animals <50kg and >50kg for induction and recovery

A

<50kg 50-100 mL/kg/min

>50kg 20-50 mL/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common side effects of propofol

A

Apnea & hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
If you could choose one anesthetic monitor, which is most valuable?
PulsOx
EtCO2
Doppler
ECG
A

Doppler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What pressure does Doppler measure?

A

Systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Under what body weight is using a non-rebreather appropriate?

A

3kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which ECG lead is used in large animals?

A

Lead I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What drugs can be used to treat hypotension and bradycardia in small animals?

A

Anticholinergics- Glycopyrrolate or Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does expired soda lime cause?

A

Hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which measurements does the Pulse Ox give?

A

Heart rate & %Hb saturation with O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What parameter is most important to monitor when using acepromazine? Why?

A

Blood pressure. Because it causes massive vasodilation.

52
Q

What noise does the species make for which you use the dorsal pedal artery for blood gas analysis?

A

Bark

Woof

53
Q

In which species do you use the median artery for blood gas analysis?

A

Sheep

54
Q

In which species do you use the facial or transverse facial artery for blood gas analysis?

A

Horse

55
Q

What is the normal range for pH in small animal blood gas analysis?

A

7.35-7.45

56
Q

What is the normal range for PCO2 in small animal blood gas analysis? What about cats?

A

35-45mmHg (Cats 30 +/- 2)

57
Q

What is the normal range for BE in small animal blood gas analysis?

A

0 +/- 4 mEq/L

58
Q

What is the normal range for HCO3- in small animal blood gas analysis? What about cats? Herbivores?

A

24+/-4 mEq/L.
Cats 22+/- 2
Herbs 30+/-5

59
Q

What is the ideal normal range for lactate in small animal blood gas analysis? Up to what level is permissible?

A

1-2 mmol/L, up to 5

60
Q

What are the 5 causes of hypoxemia?

A
  1. Low FiO2
  2. Hypoventillation
  3. Diffusion impairement
  4. V/Q mismatch
  5. R-L shunt
61
Q

What type of fluid and how much over what time period do you give if the patient’s blood pressure is dropping while under anesthesia?

A

Crystalloids
10mg/kg
Over 15 min

62
Q

What do you do if your patient’s heart rate is climbing due to blood loss under anesthesia?

A

Bolus fluids

63
Q

What do you do if your patient’s heart rate is climbing due to VPCs under anesthesia?

A

Give lidocaine

64
Q

What pressure do you fill the reservoir bag to when performing a leak check?

A

30 cmH20

65
Q

What will the EtCO2 reading be if the ETT is in the esophagus/stomach?

A

0

66
Q

T/F When placing the doppler probe, is should be proximal to the cuff.

A

False, distal to cuff

67
Q

T/F ECG gel can be used on a doppler probe to improve contact.

A

False. Can use US gel or alcohol, but nothing with electrolytes.

68
Q

T/F The doppler cuff should measure 40% of the circumference of the limb.

A

True

69
Q

T/F Circle and Universal F are examples of non-rebreathing systems.

A

False. These are re-breathing systems. Mapleson A-F and Bain are non-rebreathing.

70
Q

What is the O2 flow rate for a non-rebreathing system?

A

2-3x tidal volume (approx 300mL/kg/min)

71
Q

Which breathing system has less dead space?

A

Non-rebreathing

72
Q

Which breathing system has fewer potential for leaks?

A

Non-rebreathing

73
Q

Which breathing system allows for faster change in anesthetic concentration?

A

Non-rebreathing

74
Q

Which type of cuffed ETT is preferred, High V-Low P or Low V-High P?

A

High V-Low P

75
Q

Which type of ETT has an eye and is availiable both cuffed and uncuffed?

A

Murphy

76
Q

Which ETT is used in birds and has a shoulder?

A

Cole

77
Q

Which ETT is most ridged?

A

Armored

78
Q

How many mL of leakage is acceptable when leak-checking a system?

A

300

79
Q

What level of anesthetic exposure should not be exceeded in personnel?

A

2 ppm

80
Q

Which type of scavenging system is most common?

A

Active

81
Q

When should an F air Canister be discarded?

A

When it has gained 50g.

Same as fashion model.

82
Q

What gas does an F air Canister NOT filter?

A

Nitrogen

83
Q

What is the main indication for providing mechanical ventilation?

A

Decreased PaCO2 if intubated, hypoxemia if receiving <100% O2.

84
Q

What are the main side effects of mechanical ventilation?

A

Hypotension & hypercapnea

85
Q

What has the largest impact on oxygenation?

A

FiO2

86
Q

Ventilation is to ___ as oxygenation is to ___

A

PaCO2

PaO2

87
Q

Resistance limits ____, Compliance limits ____

A

Flow

Volume

88
Q

Which is the most common driving power for mechanical ventilation, electric or pneumatic?

A

Pneumatic

89
Q

Which is a more sensitive trigger variable for mechanical ventilation, flow or pressure?

A

Pressure

90
Q

Which organs/systems are responsible for maintaining acid-base homeostasis?

A

Lungs/respiratory, liver/hepatic, kidneys/renal and GIT

91
Q

What are the chemical acid-base buffers intracellularly and extracellularly? Which acts faster?

A

In: Phosphorous and protein
Ex: HCO3-
HCO3- is faster, acts in seconds

92
Q

Which of Guedel’s stage & plane of anesthesia is adequate for most surgeries?

A

Stage III, Plane 2

93
Q

Moving from central to peripheral, systolic becomes ___, diastolic ___, mean remains similar

A

Higher

Lower

94
Q

Which blood pressure reflects myocardial perfusion?

A

Diastolic

95
Q

Which blood pressure reflects tissue perfusion?

A

Mean

96
Q

Which blood pressure reflects afterload?

A

Systolic

97
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring blood pressure?

A

Invasive direct, via arterial catheter

98
Q

What are the non-invasive methods of obtaining blood pressure?

A

Doppler & Oscillometry

99
Q

T/F ECG gel, saline or alcohol can be used for ECG contact

A

False, no alcohol

100
Q

What type of block is present when the PR interval is prolonged but constant?

A

1st degree

101
Q

What type of block is present when the PR interval gets progressively longer before a dropped beat?

A

2nd degree, Wenkebach

102
Q

What type of block is present when some P waves do not get through?

A

2nd degree, Mobitz II

103
Q

In what dog breeds should one avoid thiobarbituates?

A

Sighthounds

104
Q

What is the blood volume in a dog?

A

90mL/kg

105
Q

Why should A-2 agonist be avoided in aggressive dogs?

A

It can cause arousal (not the sexual kind, that would be awkward but probably less dangerous)

106
Q

T/F: Ketamine has a wide safety margin

A

True

107
Q

Why should A-2 agonists be avoided in ruminants?

A

Cause pulmonary damage which can cause hemorrhage and edema leading to hypoxemia

108
Q

What is the normal range for heart rate in small ruminants?

A

90-130 bpm

109
Q

Which drug class does flumazenil antagonize?

A

Benzos

110
Q

What is the reversal agent used for A-2 agonists?

A

Atipamazole

111
Q

T/F: When using opioids, a higher MAC is needed because opioids are MAC sparing.

A

False, lower MAC

112
Q

What receptor does ketamine antagonize?

A

NMDA

113
Q

What induction drug class causes necrosis if it is administered extravascularly?

A

Barbituates

114
Q

What induction drug causes transient adrenal suppression?

A

Etomidate

115
Q

What induction drugs are GABA agonists?

A

Propofol, alfaxalone, etomidate

116
Q

Which anticholinergic crosses the BBB?

A

Atropine

117
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat feline hypotension?

A

Dopamine

118
Q

What B agonist is commonly used in horses to improve inotropy?

A

Dobutamine

119
Q

What CV drug causes splenic contraction?

A

Phenylephrine

120
Q

Which CV drug does not act on adrenergic receptors?

A

Vasopressin (ADH)

121
Q

Which 2 CV drugs are indicated for refractory shock and non-responsive hypotension?

A

Norepinephrine & Vasopressin

122
Q

How much of crystalloid IVF is still found intravascularly after 30 min?

A

1/3

123
Q

What fluid type can be given quickly in large volumes?

A

Crystalloids

124
Q

What IVF is used for immediate plasma volume expansion and ICFV reduction?

A

7.5% NaCl (hypertonic crystalloid)

125
Q

What IVF is indicated when cerebral edema is present?

A

7.5% NaCl (hypertonic crystalloid)

126
Q

What IVF is indicated to treat hypoalbuminemia?

A

Colloids

Anesthesia scs RUSVM (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions