LAB EXAM Flashcards
1
Q
Compound Light Microscope Parts
A
2
Q
Magnification def
A
Apparent increase in size of the specimen
3
Q
Resolution def
A
Ability to distinguish two objects that are close together
4
Q
Contrast def
A
Ability to distinguish an object from its background
5
Q
Compound Light Microscope parts: eyepiece
A
- AKA Ocular lens
- Magnifies image by 10x
- Does NOT help resolution
- May include pointer
6
Q
Compound Light Microscope parts: Objective lenses
A
- Magnify AND increase resolution
SCANNER: 4x (find object)
LOW POWER: 10x (examine larger features)
HIGH POWER: 40x (detailed examination)
7
Q
Microscope parts: Coaxial Corse & Fine Focus Knob
A
- Moves stage up and down
- Corse focus: use only w/ scanner and low power lens
8
Q
Microscope parts: Coaxial Stage Motion Knob
A
- Large part at top = front and back
- Small part at bottom = side to side
9
Q
Compound Light Microscope parts: Condenser
A
- Focuses light from lamp
- Adjustment knob moved it up or down
- Aperture iris diaphragm: controls angle (contrast)
- Held in place and centered by centring screws
10
Q
Microscope parts: Field iris diaphragm
A
- Part of the lamp
- Controls the width of the beam of light
- Adjust contrast
11
Q
How to calculate Magnification
A
Ocular lens x objective lens
10x40=400x
12
Q
Parfocal System
A
Field of view will remain in focus as you change objective lense
13
Q
Depth of Focus
A
- Distance between lens and object required for image to be in focus
- AKA working distance
- Larger for 4x and very narrow for 40x
14
Q
Field of view size for each lens
A
- Scanner: 4x: 5mm (i.e. 10/4 of low power)
- Low power: 10x: 2mm (i.e. 4/10 of scanner)
- High Power: 40x: 0.5mm (i.e. 1/4 of low power)
- 1mm = 1000 microns µm
15
Q
Brownian Movement
A
- The continuous RANDOM movement of particles in water
- Robert Brown
16
Q
Diffusion
A
- NET movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
- They move down the concentration gradient
- We say NET movement because some particles may go towards more concentration, but the total net movement is towards lower concentrations
17
Q
Heavy vs light molecule diffusion
A
- Light molecule travels faster because it requires less kinetic energy to move its light load.
- Size, shape, temperature also affect how fast a molecule will diffuse.
18
Q
How can materials PASSIVELY enter or exit a cell?
A
- Diffusion through the phospholipid bilayer
- Facilitated Diffusion (through channels or carrier proteins)
- Passive does not cost the cell any energy
19
Q
How can materials ACTIVELY enter or exit a cell?
A
- Active transport
- Cytosis
20
Q
Diffusion in or out of cells
A
- Phospholipid bilayer is semi-permeable
- CO2 and O2 and H2O (slowly) can pass via DIFFUSION
*
21
Q
Osmosis
A
Diffusion of H2O across a selectively permeable membrane
22
Q
Channel Proteins
A
- Provide an opening in the phospholipid bilayer through which specific small molecules can diffuse
- Uses NO ENERGY
- Can be gated
- Aquaporin: a channel protein for water
23
Q
Carrier Protein
A
- Pick up a specific molecule on either side of the phospholipid bilayer and brings it across
- No energy used
- Also diffusion (because goes from an area of high concentration to one of lower concentration
24
Q
Active Transport
A
- Will move molecules to a desired side of the phospholipid bilayer regardless of concentration gradient.
- Requires energy from the cell
- Cell can maintain higher or lower concentration than environment
25
Q
Cytosis
A
- Pocket formed in cell membrane which forms a vacuole around molecule to transport it in or out of the cell
- Requires energy
- Endocytosis: goes inside cell
- Exocytosis: Exits cell
26
Q
Isotonic
A
Same concentration there as in comparison area
27
Q
Hypertonic
A
- Higher concentration of solute than in compared solution
- If A is hypertonic to B, then B has a higher concentration of water than A
28
Q
Hypotonic
A
- Concentration of solute is lower than in compared solution
- In the hypotonic solution, the concentration of water is higher than in the compared solution
29
Q
Turgidity
A
Firmness
30
Q
Plasmolysis or crenulation
A
Too little H2O, so the cell collapses
31
Q
Haemolysis
A
- In blood cells
- Too much water to the cell bursts
32
Q
Binary Fission
A
- Prokaryotes
- Single cell splits in two
- Each has the same genotype as the parent cell
33
Q
Mitotic Cell Division
A
- Eukaryotes
- Produces two nearly identical cells
34
Q
Phases of Cell Cycle
A
- Interphase (longest phase)
- G1 - Gap 1: cell builds protein and grows
- S - Synthesis of DNA: cell grows and copies DNA
- G2 - Gap 2: cell grows and does final preps
- Mitotic Phase
- Mitosis: Division of nucleus
- Cytokinesis: Division of cell
35
Q
Chromatin
A
- DNA mixed with proteins
- Inside nucleus during interphase
36
Q
Chromosome
A
- Humans have 46, very coiled
- They copy have 92 chromatids
- Each chromatid is bound to another at centre by centromere, so it still leaves 46 chromosomes
- Chromosome = 2 chromatids bound by centromere
37
Q
Mitosis phases
A
- Prophase (prepare): Chromosomes codense, nucleolus starts to disappear, spindle starts forming. Cell gets rounder (animal cells only)
- Prometaphase: Nuclear envelope breaks up, spindle attaches to centromere and begins to pull. Centrosomes begin to move to sides of cell (animal cells only)
- Metaphase (middle): Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell on the cell plate
- Anaphase (away): Chromatids break free of each other and are pull to either end by spindle. Each free chromatid is now considered a chromosome. Cell elongates (animal cells only)
- Telophase (two): Spindle begins to disappear, chromosomes start to disperse, nucleoli and its envelope begin to assemble. In plant cells, a new cell wall (cell plate) begins to form. In animal cells, cell begins to pinch, forming the cleavage furrow.
38
Q
Meiosis
A
- Produces haploid (n) cells from diploid
- Not part of the cell cycle
- Involves 2 cell divisions (Meiosis 1 and 2)
- Creates 4 daughter cells
39
Q
Meiosis 1
A
- Prophase 1: (Includes prophase and prometaphase). Chromosomes condense next to their homologue = homologous pair = crossing over
- Metaphase 1: Homologous pairs line up on metaphase plate
- Anaphase 1: Entire homologous pairs pulled apart = half the amount of chromosomes = 1n
40
Q
Meiosis 2
A
- Starts with 2 n cells
- Same phases as Meiosis 1
- Produces 4 n cells
- n = haploid “half”
41
Q
Spermatogenesis
A
- Primary spermatocyte (2n) begins meiosis 1
- It creates 2 secondary spermatocytes (n), which undergo meiosis 2
- Creates 4 spermatids (n)
- Spermatids mature to become spermatozoa
42
Q
Oogenesis
A
- Primary oocyte (2n) begins meiosis 1 and produces 1 secondary oocyte (n) (which kept almost all the cytoplasm during cytokinesis) and a polar body
- The secondary oocyte undergoes meiosis 2, producing one ootid (n) and one polar body
- The ootid matures to become an ovum
- When the ovum is fertilized by a spermatozoan, it becomes a zygote
43
Q
Spermatogenesis (identify parts)
A
- Name parts in attached image
- Inside the seminiferous tubule:
- Outer layer = spermatogonia which create more of themselves
- Spermatagonia push inwards and become large primary spermatocytes which begin meiosis 1
- This produces smaller secondary spermatocytes, pushed more towards the middle. they start Meiosis 2
- This results in tiny spermatids near the lumen (hollow center)
- The spermatids then migrate towards Sertoli (nurse) cells, which nourish them until maturity (spermatozoa with flagella)
44
Q
Oogenesis (identify parts)
A
- Before birth, girls have thousands of oogonia that have begun meiosis 1
- They become primary oocytes and stop right before metaphase 1
- When menstrual cycle begins, one at a time
- Primary follicle is developed and contains the primary oocyte
- Primary follicle grows x10 and begins to bulge out of the surface of the ovary as meiosis 1 is completed (it then contains a secondary oocyte)
- At ovulation, the follicle ruptures and releases the secondary oocyte from the ovary.
- The ruptures follicle remains inside ovary and is called corpus luteum, which will eventually break down
- The secondary oocyte is picked up by the fallopian tube and migrates towards the uterus
- If a spermatozoan comes in contact with it, meiosis 2 will start
- Once meiosis 2 is finished, then the spermatozoan and ovum fuse and become a zygote
45
Q
Phenotype
A
- Observable trait
- If you have the phenotype of the recessive allele, then you def have homozygous recessive genotype
- If you have the phenotype of the dominant allele, then you could be homozygous dominant or heterozygous
46
Q
Genotype
A
- Combination of alleles
- Diploid can be either homozygous or heterozygous
- Homozygous (both alleles are the same at those loci (both dominant or recessive)
- Heterozygous (you have both types dominant and recessive alleles)
- Meiosis creates the alleles for the haploid cell
47
Q
Dominance vs recessive
A
- An allele can be dominant (capital letter) or recessive (same letter as dominant, but small)
48
Q
True breeding vs hybrid
also
monohybrid VS dihybrid cross
A
- True breeding: all individuals have the genotype AA or aa
- Hybrid: diploid organism that has one of each allele, so Aa
- Monohybrid cross: a hybrid cross when we are looking at a single trait
- Dihybrid cross: a hybrid cross when we are looking at two traits simultaneously (ex: kernel colour and kernel texture)
- In a dihybrid cross punnet square, we would put one allele for teach trait together, ex: AB, Ab, aB, etc… as each of the 4 parents
49
Q
Generation names
A
- P = parental
- F1: first generation (offspring of P)
- F1: second generation (offspring of F1)
- etc…
50
Q
Evolution def
A
A change in the frequency of alleles in a population
51
Q
What two processes can result in evolution?
A
- Genetic drift: a change in allele frequency due to chance
- Natural selection: greater reproductive rate as a result of having a particular trait
52
Q
If you suffer from a rare genetic disorder that is caused by a recessive allele at a single locus, and neither your parents nor your brother have the disease, what is the probability that your brother is a carrier?
A
- 2 chances on three
- 25% homozygous healthy
- 25% homozygous sick (me)
- remaining 50% is carrier
- Since I take myself out of the probability, it means brother has 2 chances on the remaining 3
53
Q
DNA def
A
- Deoxyribonucleic acid
- Long string of nucleotides each of which has one of the four bases (adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine)
- The sequence of these bases directs the production of specific RNA or protein
- Only 1.5% of human DNA codes for RNA
54
Q
DNA Sequencing
A
- Finding the sequence of G, T, C and A from a sample
- Time consuming and expensive
- Easier to compare two sets of DNA through gel electrophoresis
55
Q
Gel electrophoresis
A
- Restriction enzyme cuts the DNA at a specific sequence of bases, resulting in DNA fragments of different lengths (which is specific for each individual)
- Fragments of DNA move through gel. We increase their speed with an electric current (DNA negative, so attracted to positive pole)
- Smallest fragments will be fastest. This creates bands.
- Each band has DNA fragments of a particular size, unique to each individual = DNA fingerprint
56
Q
Why do we use a warm lysis solution in DNA extraction?
A
- The heat will denature (break down the tertiary and quaternary structures of) the proteins in the cytosol that would damage DNA as the cell is broken up
- It contains 4 chemicals (SDS, Sodium citrate, Sodium chloride, EDTA)
57
Q
What is each chemical in the lysis solution for?
A
- SDS: sodium dodecyl sulfate. A strong detergent that allows lipids (or other nonpolar compounds) to mix with water. This allows the DNA to exit the phospholipid bilayer.
- Sodium Citrate: Helps inactivate enzymes to prevent them from damaging DNA
- Sodium Chloride: table salt. Proteins do not stay dissolved well in salt water. Prevents the DNA from dissolving in the ethanol
- EDTA: EthyleneDiamine Tetraacetic Acid. A magnesium ion chelator. A chelator removes ions from a solution. Ions in the solution help to stabilize the phospholipid membranes and also activate the enzymes that would break up DNA.
58
Q
Why do we need to cool the DNA and lysis mixture after the lysis has done its work?
A
DNA molecules are less likely to break if kept cool
59
Q
Transcription
A
- A sequence of bases in DNA is transcribed into a sequence of bases in RNA
- The main molecule that accomplishes transcription is RNA polymerase, which binds to DNA at a specific sequence of bases (promoter sequence)
- RNA polymerase will then move away from the 3’ end towards the 5’ end
- As RNA polymerase moves, it builds a strand of RNA growing from its 5’ to its 3’ end with complementary bases
- This process stops at a terminator sequence
60
Q
RNA complementary bases
A
Guanine - sticks to DNA’s cytosine
Cytosine - sticks to DNA’s guanine
Adenine - sticks to DNA’s thymine
Uracil - sticks to DNA’s adenine
61
Q
Translation
A
- The sequences of bases in RNA is translated into a sequence of amino acids in a protein
- Performed by a ribosome
- Initiated at a specific RNA sequence (start codon) AUG
- Reads away from the RNA’s 5’ end towards the 3’ end
- The ribosome ads one amino acid to the protein for each codon. It also ads one amino acid MET for the start codon
- Continues until a stop codon is reached
- At stop codon, the chain of amino acids (unfolded protein) is released. So is the ribosome.
62
Q
Codon
A
A sequence of three RNA bases
63
Q
In electrophoresis, after exposure to electric current, the gel is immersed in a warm stain solution. Why?
A
- The heat helps the diffusion process
- The stain sticks only to the DNA, allowing us to see distance travelled
64
Q
A super long piece of DNA is cut between bases 25000 and 25001, then between 50000 and 50001. How many bands will you see and why?
A
3
one piece from 0 to 25000, one from 25001 to 50000, and one piece from 50001 to the end.
68
Q
What is this bacteria shape?
A
coccus
69
Q
What is this bacteria shape?
A
Bacillus
70
Q
What is this bacteria shape?
A
Spirillum
72
Q
Name this bacteria
A
oscillatoria
(bacteria - cyanobacteria)
73
Q
name this bacteria
A
anabaena
(bacteria - cyanobacteria)
76
Q
Diatoms
A
- domain eukaria
- unicellular
- photoautotrophic
- cells enclosed in a hard outer shell (testae)
- made of 2 overlapping halves like a shoe box with lid
- shell composed of silica
- geometric shapes
- some have motility moving along their raphe (slit opening in their shell)
77
Q
Brown algae
A
- domain eukaria - protists
- multicellular
- photoautotrophic
- marine
- cell wall composed of cellulose and polysaccharides
- body: thallus
- bottom: root like “holdfast”
- leaf-ish “blade”
- stem-ish “stipe”
- swellings at tips: receptacles (produce gametes)
79
Q
name these algae
A
Chlamydomonas
- green algae - eukarya - protist
- rapid movement due to pair of (not visible) flagella
- cell has a single cup-shaped chloroplast which surrounds the nucleus and cytoplasm
80
Q
Name these algae
A
Volvox
- form colonies
- move via a cooperative movement of each individual’s flagella
- green algae - protist - eukarya
81
Q
Amoebozoa
A
- protist - eukarya
- constantly changing shape
- unicellular
- chemoheterotroph
- move by streaming their cytoplasm into pseudopodia
- pseudopodia are also used in endocytosis
82
Q
Ciliates
A
- protist - eukarya
- photo is a paramecium
- oval (not pointy tips)
- you can’t really see much inside on the slide except for the nucleus
- unicellular
- chemoheterotrophs
- feed by endocytosis through oral groove
- swim by waving short cilia (not always visible)
83
Q
Euglenozoa
A
- protist - eukarya
- oval but sort of pointy on one corner
- chemoheterotroph or photoautotroph (have chloroplast)
- motility via single flagellum (not visible)
- you can see stuff inside on the slide
86
Q
phylum zygomycetes
A
- fungi
- produce zygosporangium during sexual reproduction
- black bread mould
- spores do not have flagella
95
Q
Name the parts of the plant embryo
A
- radicle (root)
- plumule (leaf)
- cotyledon (leaflet modified to store food)
- endosperm (food storage)
- seed coat (protection)
105
Q
roots
characteristics
A
- anchor the plant in soil
- absorb water and dissolved minerals
- store food
- centre has vascular cylinder surrounded by a thick layer of ground tissue (cortex), which stores material
- growing tip = apical meristem (provides new cells)
- root cap = protects apical meristem
- above apical meristem = zone of cell division
- above that = zone of elongation
- above that = zone of maturation where cells specialize
- root covered by a single layer of dermal cells = epidermis (may incl. root hairs)
106
Q
Monocot root:
- has pith in centre
- no cambieum
- smaller phloem
- endodermis cells nicely aligned in cicle
A
dicot root
- no pith
- cambium between zylem and phloem
- phloem takes up more space
- endodermis less nicely aligned
107
Q
parts of dicot vs monocot roots
A
111
Q
Monocot stem
- no cortex or cambium
- smaller vascular bundles
- vascular bundles spread throughout stem
A
Dicot Stem
- pitch and cortex
- larger vascular bundles
- vascular bundles concentrated at perimeter with pith in center
112
Q
Monocot vs dicot stem parts
A
114
Q
Monocot leaf
- parallel veins
- sheath attaches leaf to stem (no petiole)
A
Dicot leaf
- branching veins
- petiole attaches leaf to stem
115
Q
Flowers
characteristics and parts
A
- reproductive organ
- parts arranged symmetrically in whorls on receptacle
- receptacle: enlarged end of stem
- sepals: outermost whorl (green or look like petals)
- petals: modified leaves, colourful to attract pollinators
- stamens: stalk + anther (2 pollen sacs) pollen is male gamete
- carpel: center. holds stigma (sticky). Stalk = style (holds up stigma)
- base of carpel swells to form ovary (ovules inside) ovule contains female gamete
- carpels often fused together into a pistil, but maintain separate stigmas
121
Q
Stratified squamous epithelium
(mammal skin)
A
- bottom layer (germinal layer) is box-like. cells become flatter as we move to the surface
- covered by flat dead cells (corneum) which wear off
- germinal layer goes through cell cycle. New cells are pushed towards the top to replace corneum
- protection from friction, blows, heat loss, water loss, etc…
122
Q
Simple cuboidal epithelium
(human kidney tubules)
A
- in the slide, the little holes are the tubules and the simple cuboidal epithelium is what lines them
- single layer of boxy (sort-of cubelike) cells
- tightly joined, the membranes between the cells might be tough to see
- form kidney tubules, smallest lung bronchioles, ducts of glands.
- function: secretion of certain materials
123
Q
simple columnar epithelium
intestine lining
A
- single layer of brick-shaped cells
- nuclei near the base
- upper face might be covered by cilia
- lining the digestive or respiratory tract
- functions: secretion, absorption and dust filtration
125
Q
Loose connective tissue
animal
(areolar tissue)
A
- extracellular matrix = liquid
- loose web of all three types of fibres (collagenous, reticular, elastic)
- scattered in this are irregular cells with large nuclei (fibroblasts)
- found under the skin
- provides support while remaining elastic
126
Q
Fibrous Connective Tissue
animal
(white fibrous tissue)
A
- More dense than loose connective tissue
- dominated by strong parallel collagenous fibres with fibroblasts squeezed between them
- found in tendons (that connect muscles to bones) and ligaments (that connect bones to other bones)
127
Q
Cartilage
animal
(trachea)
A
- connective tissue
- matrix composed of collagenous fibres embedded in a solid but rubbery material
- oval cells are chondrocytes
- found at the end of bones (to reduce friction), joining ribs to sternum (for flexibility), in the nose, larynx, … to provide shape with flexibility
128
Q
Bone
animal
A
- connective tissue
- matrix is hard, mineralized, has collagen
- made up of many osteons fused together
- each osteon is composed of layers of matrix around a central canal (containing blood vessels and nerves) with cells (osteoblasts) between the layers
- provides anchos and levers for voluntary muscles, protects vital organs, stores calcium
129
Q
Adipose tissue
animal
A
- specialized form of loose connective tissue
- adipose cells in matrix
- each adipose cell contains a large droplet of fat
- function: storage of food energy, insulation, padding
130
Q
Blood
animal
A
- connective tissue
- no fibres
- liquid matrix called plasma
- erythrocytes (red blood cells) - no nucleus, for transporting oxygen
- leukocytes (white blood cells) - large, complexe nucleus. for protecting from infection
- thrombocytes (platelets) tiny. irregular fragments, no nucleus. help clotting
132
Q
Skeletal muscle tissue
A
- voluntary muscle
- attached by tendons to bones
- aka striated muscle tissue
- transverse bands give muscle a striated appearance
- each muscle fibre is very long with many nuclei and uniform in thickness with blunt ends
- does NOT branch like cardiac muscle
133
Q
Smooth Muscle Tissue
A
- involuntary muscle
- not attached to bones
- no transverse bands
- each fibre is a single cell, tapering at the ends
- found in the walls if intestines, blood vessels, air passages, trachea, etc…
- function: change the diameter of some tubes and move materials through other tubes
134
Q
Cardiac Muscle
A
- contraction is involuntary
- muscle fibres are short with a single nucleus
- connected by intercalated discs into long branched chains of cells
- in the heart, so responsible for pumping blood throughout the body
- recognize this slide because of the muscle fibers forking at places
135
Q
Nerve tissue
A
- found in the nervous tissue
- two types
- neurons (transmit signals)
- glia (help neurons function)
- neurons have a cell body with nucleus, dendrites that receive signals and transmit them to the cell body and an axon that transmits signals from the cell body to other neurons, muscles or glands
140
Q
Identify pig digestive and respiratory parts
A
- right atrium
- lungs
- heart
- liver
- urinary bladder
- larynx
- trachea
- vena cava
- rib cage
- left atrium
- diaphragm
- stomach
- pancreas
- small intestine
- large intestine
- anus
141
Q
identify pig excretory parts
A
- larynx
- trachea
- right kidney
- urethra
- oesophagus
- diaphragm
- vena cava
- left kidney
- ureters
- urinary bladder
144
Q
Cnidaria
characteristics
A
- sessile cup-shaped, mouth facing up (hydra, anemone, coral) OR
- free-swimming medusa, mouth down (jellyfish).
- all have specialized STINGING CELLS
- Symmetry: radial
- Reproduction: asexual (budding) or sexual (hermaphroditic, fertilization external
- Nervous system: nerve net, simple sensory cells, sometimes eyes
- Digestive system: incomplete, gastrovascular cavity. intra AND extracellular digestion
- exoskeleton in coral
147
Q
Platyhelminthes
characteristics
A
- flatworms, flukes, tapeworms
- cilia often used for locomotion
- aquatic carnivores or parasites
- Symmetry: bilateral
- Reproduction: asexual (fission) or sexual, hermaphroditic, internal fertilization
- Nervous system: net-like, simple brain and nerves, sense organs (or not)
- Digestive system: incomplete (gastrovascular cavity with intra and extracellular digestion
- Excretory system: protonephridia (osmoregulation)
- Segmentation: only in tapeworms
149
Q
Annelida
characteristics
A
- earthworms, leech, sandworms, sea mouse
- segmented
- each segment has hairs that help locomotion
- most free-living, but some parasites
- if cut in half, front can survive, rear dies
- Symmetry: bilateral
- Reproduction: sexual, hermaphroditic, internal
- Nervous system: simple brain (nerve ring), nerves, ganglia, sense organs
- Digestive system: complete, extracellular digestion
- Circulatory system: closed with several 1 chambered hearts
- Respiratory system: none or gills
- Excretory system: metanephridia
- Body cavity: coelom
- Segmentation: prominent
- Appendages: some have paired appendages
150
Q
Nematoda
characteristics
A
- roundworms, ascaris (parasite)
- tough outer cuticle that molts
- LASHING MANNER of LOCOMOTION because only longitudinal muscles
- most free-living, some parasitic
- Symmetry: bilateral
- Reproduction: sexual, separate sexes, internal fertilization
- Nervous system: simple brain (nerve ring), nerves, no sense organs
- Digestive system: complete, extracellular
- Excretory system: simple glands
- Body cavity: pseudocoelom (cavity under skin)
- Segmentation: NO
