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Anatomy 152 > LAB EXAM #2 > Flashcards

LAB EXAM #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Free nerve ending?

A

Branching tips of sensory nerves, respond to stimuli or receptors in the skin

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2
Q

Tactile disks?

A

Extremely sensitive to fine touch + light pressure
(Merkel cells w/in epidermis)

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3
Q

Tactile corpuscles?

A

Fine touch + light pressure
- eyelids, fingertips, external epidermis

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4
Q

Lamellated corpuscles?

A

Deep pressure in skin , muscles, joint capsules and some internal structures
- Urinary bladder

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5
Q

Ruffini corpuscles?

A

Responds to pressure + distortion
- twisting, tugging etc.
- in dermis

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6
Q

What types (3) of cutaneous receptors were being stimulated during the two-point discrimination test?

A
  1. Tactile corpuscle
  2. Noiceceptor
  3. Tactile disc
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7
Q

What are the 3 regions of the ear, and what do they consist of?

A
  1. Outer: auricle (pinna), tympanic membrane, external auditory canal
  2. Middle: Ossicles (top->down: malleus, incus, stapes, oval window)
  3. Inner: Semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlear branch of vestibulochoclear nerve, cochlear auditory tube (pharyngotympanic)
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8
Q

Auricle/pinna?

A

composed of elastic cartilage, captures soundwaves

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9
Q

Stapes

A

ossicle that touches oval window

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10
Q

Malleus

A

ossicle that touches tympanic membrane

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11
Q

Tympanic membrane

A

transmits sound vibrations to ossicles

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12
Q

Cochlea

A

contains receptors for sound

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13
Q

Auditory tube

A

allows pressure in middle ear to be equalized

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14
Q

Vestibule

A

contains receptors for static equilibrium

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15
Q

Semicircular canals

A

contains receptors for dynamic equilibrium

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16
Q

Vestibulocochlear nerve

A

conveys sound and equilibrium to brain

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17
Q

Sensorineural deafness?

A

a type of hearing loss. It occurs from damage to the inner ear, the place of origin of the nerve that runs from the ear to the brain (auditory nerve), or the brain. The ear consists of external, middle, and inner structures.

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18
Q

Conduction deafness?

A

Sound may be blocked by earwax or a foreign object located in the ear canal; the middle ear space may be impacted with fluid, infection or a bone abnormality; or the eardrum may have been injured.

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19
Q

What are the 3 tunics of the eye, and what do they consist of?

A
  1. Fibrous: outer layer, dense CT, protects eyeball and maintains shape
  2. Vascular: composed of the iris, collars body and choroid
  3. Neural: composed of outermost cells of sensory retina (rods and cones layer)
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20
Q

What structure contains the sensory receptors for detecting light? How would you classify these receptors?

A

A) retina

B) Photoreceptors

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21
Q

Suspensory ligaments (zonules)

A

Attaches lens to ciliary body

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22
Q

Sclera?

A

White of eye

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23
Q

Fovea centralis

A

area of most acute vision

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24
Q

Optic disc?

A

area of retina with no photoreceptors (blind spot)

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25
Q

Retina?

A

contains rods and cones

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26
Q

Ciliary body?

A

contains smooth muscle that controls shape of lens

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27
Q

Choroid?

A

Contains blood vessels

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28
Q

Aqueous humour

A

fluid that provides nutrients to lens and cornea

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29
Q

Vitreous humour or vitreous body

A

gel like substance that reinforces eye

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30
Q

Lens?

A

structure that focuses light on retina

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31
Q

Extra ocular eye muscles?

A

skeletal muscles which move the eyeball

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32
Q

Cornea?

A

anterior-most part of fibrous tunic

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33
Q

Optic nerve?

A

cranial nerve that relays visual stimuli to brain

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34
Q

What muscles in the eye change the shape of the lens?

A

Ciliary body

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35
Q

Which structure(s) in the eye are responsible for refraction?

A

About 80% of the refraction occurs in the cornea and about 20% in the inner crystalline lens

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36
Q

At what specific point on the retina are images seen with the greatest clarity?

A

Fovea centralis macula

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37
Q

What is a cataract?

A

Breakdown of proteins that cause the cornea to look hazy/Smokey

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38
Q

Why are images inverted on the retina?

A

Lens in convex

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39
Q

Focal plane?

A

plane in which image is in focus

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40
Q

Emmetropia?

A

normal eye; focal plane is on the retina distance vision is normal

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41
Q

Hyperopnia?

A

“farsightedness”; focal plane falls behind retina (often eyeball is flatter);
distance vision is normal but near
objects are blurry

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42
Q

Myopia

A

“nearsightedness”; focal plane falls in front of retina (often eyeball is elongated);
distant objects are blurry but near
vision is normal

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43
Q

Presbyopia?

A

As one ages, the crystallin proteins in the lens denature. This causes the lens to become less elastic making it is more difficult to accommodate (change the shape of the lens) for focusing on near objects.
- requires reading glasses

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44
Q

Astigmatism?

A

visual defect caused by irregularities in the shape of the cornea or lens.

  • don’t effect depth of focus only irregulars along the shape of the eye = distorting image.
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45
Q

How many different types of cones are there and what colour are they? How do they work?

A

A) 3

B) red, blue, green

C) The degree of stimulation that each type of cone gets from a particular wavelength of light determines what colour is perceived by the brain.

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46
Q

Sex-linked hereditary condition:

A

Colour blindness affects 8% of the male population and 0.5% of females

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47
Q

Protanopia?

A

Individuals that have this condition see blue-greens and purplish-tinted reds as grey due to a lack of red cones

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48
Q

Deuteranopia?

A

Individuals that have this condition see blue-greens and purplish-tinted reds as grey due to a lack of green cones

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49
Q

What was the purpose of the following tests?
1. Rinne test
2. Ability to focus
3. Near point determination
4. Snellen eye chart
5. Diplopia and dominance

A
  1. Testing for sensorineural or conduction deafness (tuning fork)
  2. Testing for emmetropia, hyperopia or myopia.
  3. Denaturing of crystallin proteins
  4. assess visual acuity (as it relates to distance vision, 20/20 vision)
  5. Binocular vision
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50
Q

Binocular vision?

A

differences in the views from each eye, we see a single image because the cerebral cortex integrates the images

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51
Q

Stereopsis?

A

3-dimensional vision

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52
Q

Diplopia?

A

Double vision

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53
Q

What causes objects to be less clear when using peripheral vision?

A
  1. photoreceptors in the fovea are tightly packed, while those around the edges of the retina are more widely spaced.
  2. Another factor is the type of photoreceptor (rods or cones) found in the different areas of the retina. Rods and cones differ in their morphology, their location on the retina, and their function. Functionally, rods are sensitive in low-light conditions, while our cones provide good visual acuity and colour vision in bright light.
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54
Q

What makes up compact bone?
Where is compact bone located?
What are its functions?

A

A) osteons with osteocytes (bone cells) in lacunae (spaces), mineral matrix made of calcium salts and collagen fibers and organized into concentric rings lamellae surrounding a central Haversian canal (containing blood vessels and nerves)

B) external parts of bones

C) strong but flexible; stores minerals (e.g. calcium)

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55
Q

What makes up spongy bone?
Where is spongy bone located?
What are its functions?

A

A) (no osteons) matrix made of calcium salts and collagen fibers and organized into open network of trabeculae enclosing red marrow (blood cell synthesis occurs here), trabeculae, osteocytes, red marrow.

B) internal sections of bones

C) not as strong as compact bone, but lightweight and able to resist force in many directions, contains red marrow (site of blood cell synthesis)

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56
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?
Where are they found?

A
  1. Hyaline, end of long bones (articular cartilage), tip of nose
  2. Elastic, flexible cartilage; forms ear and epiglottis
  3. Fibrocartilage, resists compression; forms menisci of knees and pubic symphysis
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57
Q

What are the 6 classifications of bone shape? Provide example.

A
  1. Irregular, vertebrae
  2. Flat, rib
  3. Long, metacarpal
  4. Sutural, skull (partial and frontal bones)
  5. Sesamoid (bones embedded in tendons), patella
  6. Short, carpals
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58
Q

Diaphysis, epiphyses and medullary cavity?

A
  1. the shaft or central part of a long bone
  2. the end part of a long bone, initially growing separately from the shaft.
  3. the hollow part of bone that contains bone marrow.
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59
Q

What type of bone tissue forms the walls of the diaphysis?

A

Compact bone

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60
Q

What type of bone tissue predominates at the epiphyses?

A

Spongy bone

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61
Q

What is found in the medullary cavity of living bone?

A

Yellow marrow

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62
Q

What are the two membranes that covers the bones surface?

A
  1. periosteum, covers external surface and is composed of a layer of dense irregular connective
    tissue overlying cellular layer richly supplied with nerves and blood
  2. Endosteum, covers trabeculae and lines bone cavities; is a cellular layer
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63
Q

Ossification?

A

Formation of bone

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64
Q

Calcification?

A

Deposition of calcium salts w/in a tissue (any tissue)

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65
Q

Osteocytes

A

Maintain bone tissue

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66
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Produce bone matrix

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67
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Dissolve bone matrix

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68
Q

osteoprogenitors

A

Stem cells that can differentiate into bone cells

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69
Q

What are they 2 types of ossification?

A
  1. endochondral ossification, cartilage is replaced by bone
    - long bones grow by this method
  2. intramembranous ossification, bone is formed w/in fibrous CT
    - most flat bones grow by this method
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70
Q

epiphyseal line vs plate

A

the epiphyseal line signifies that bone growth has stopped = adult

Epiphyseal plate - juvenile

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71
Q

What are the 3 main subdivisions of the axial skeleton?

A
  1. Skull
  2. Cerebral column
  3. Boney thorax
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72
Q

What are the 8 bones the skull is made up of?

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Parietal (2)
  3. Occipital
  4. Temporal (2)
    5.ethmoid
    6.sphenoid
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73
Q

Function of frontal sinus?

A

Fluid drainage

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74
Q

What passes through foramen magnum?

A

Spinal cord

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75
Q

What articulates with the occipital condyles?

A

Cervical vertebrae (C1- atlas)

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76
Q

Function of mastoid process?

A

Site of muscle attachment for the sternocleidomastoid muscle which rotates the head and flexes the neck.

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77
Q

Function of styloid process

A

site of attachment for muscles of tongue and larynx

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78
Q

The stylohyoid ligament connects the styloid process to which bone?

A

Hyoid bone

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79
Q

external acoustic (auditory) meatus?

A

where sound enters the ear

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80
Q

What makes up the zygomatic process?

A

Temporal process and zygomatic bone

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81
Q

Function of crista galli?

A

attachment site for membrane which secures brain within cranial cavity; visible in transverse section

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82
Q

Which dural fold attaches to the crista galli?

A

Falx cerebri

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83
Q

Function of cribriform plate?

A

forms roof of nasal cavity, visible in transverse section

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84
Q

What nerve endings pass through the tiny hole of the cribriform plate?

A

Olfactory nerve

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85
Q

What does the perpendicular plate form?

A

Boney nasal septum

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86
Q

Function of ethmoid sinuses?

A

air filled spaces visible in sagittal section, functions like frontal sinus

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87
Q

Function of superior and middle nasal conchae?

A

Swirling air currents, filters + warms

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88
Q

What makes up the nasal septum?

A

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone (superiorly), the vomer bone (inferiorly) and hyaline cartilage (anteriorly)

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89
Q

Function of optic foramen?

A

passage of optic nerves

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90
Q

What important endocrine gland sits at the sella Turcica?

A

Pituitary gland

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91
Q

Paranasal sinuses are found in which 4 bones?

A

Ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal and maxilla

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92
Q

Function of frontal bone?

A

forms forehead (male frontal bone may have a brow ridge)

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93
Q

Function of maxillary bones?

A

(2 bones forming the upper jaw, the roof of the mouth, and floor of orbits)

Locate the maxillary sinuses in the sagittal section and the split head model

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94
Q

Function of zygomatic bone?

A

forms “cheekbones”; “chewing muscles” attach here
Locate the temporal process. This, together with the zygomatic process

Also form zygomatic arch

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95
Q

Mandible?

A

Lower jaw bone

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96
Q

Function of lacrimal bones?

A

nasolacrimal canal allows tears to drain into nasal cavity

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97
Q

Auditory ossicles?

A
  • smallest bones in body
  • located in petrous portion of the temporal bone identify the - malleus, incus and stapes
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98
Q

Hyoid bone

A
  • only bone that does not articulate (form a joint) with any other bone(s)
  • suspended from the styloid processes of temporal bones
  • tongue and swallowing muscles attach to it.
  • locate the hyoid bone in the plastic skeleton (peer at the mandible from below)
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99
Q

What are the three types of vertebrae, and how many of each?

A

7 cervical vertebrae (HINT: breakfast at 7)
12 thoracic vertebrae (HINT: lunch at 12 noon)
5 lumbar vertebrae (HINT: dinner at 5)

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100
Q

intervertebral discs?

A
  • located between the vertebrae
  • each disc consists of an inner gelatinous nucleus pulposus surrounded by a collar of
    collagen fibers and cartilage, the anulus fibrosus
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101
Q

What kind of cartilages formed intervertebral discs?

A

Fibrocartilage

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102
Q

intervertebral foramina?

A

holes located between the stacked vertebrae.

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103
Q

What structures of the PNS exit through the holes of the intervertebral foramina?

A

Spinal nerves

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104
Q

Vertebral canal?

A

formed from stacked vertebral foramina

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105
Q

What structure of the CNS passes through the intervertebral canal?

A

Spinal cord

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106
Q

What are the basic structure of a vertebra?

A
  • body (centrum)
  • transverse process
  • vertebral foramen (the vertebral foramina collectively form the vertebral canal) • spinous process
  • superior (and inferior) articular facets
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107
Q

What are the 5 types of vertebrae?

A
  1. C1 (atlas), no body - its superior articulating facets articulate with the occipital condyles of the skull allowing the “yes-yes” motion of the head
  2. C2 (axis), contains dens (odontoid process) which, with the transverse ligaments holding it against the anterior arch of the atlas, allows the “no-no” motion of head (rotation).
  3. Cervical vertebrae (C3 – C7), spinous process is bifid (split), transverse foramina, and oval-shaped body
  4. thoracic vertebrae (T1 to T12), articulate with the ribs, long, slender spinous process, heart-shaped body, demifacets (superior & inferior costal facets) on superior and inferior edges of body,
    - transverse costal facets on transverse processes for articulating with rib.
  5. lumbar vertebrae (L1 - L5), largest of the vertebrae, and the least movable; they bear the weight of the torso.
    A typical lumbar vertebra is characterized by: stout body, broad, short spine and large flat transverse processes
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108
Q

What passes through the transverse foramina?

A

Blood vessels

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109
Q

What bone articulates with the facet labelled in C1 above?

A

Occipital bone

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110
Q

With what part of the rib do demifacets articulate?

A

Head

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111
Q

With what part of the rib do the transverse costal facets articulate?

A

Tubercle

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112
Q

What bone articulates with the facets of thoracic vertebra?

A

Ribs

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113
Q

Why are lumbar vertebrae larger in structure compared to other vertebrae?

A

Weight baring

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114
Q

Sacrum?

A

5 fused vertebrae

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115
Q

Median sacral crest?
How is it formed?

A

Fused spinous processes

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116
Q

sacral foramina

A

passage of spinal nerves and blood vessels

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117
Q

auricular surface of sacrum?

A

Articulates with hip bone forming the sacroiliac joint

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118
Q

What forms the sacroiliac joint?

A

Auricle of sacrum and hip bone

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119
Q

What important organ is protected by the sternum?

A

Heart

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120
Q

What bone articulates at the clavicular notch?

A

Clavicle bone

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121
Q

Function of xiphoid process?

A

point of attachment for several ligaments and muscles

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122
Q

True vs false ribs?

A

T: attached to sternum
F: not attached, “floating”

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123
Q

What makes up the appendicular skeleton?

A

Pectoral girdle, arm bones, pelvic girdle and leg bones

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124
Q

What are the two ends of the clavichord bone? What do they articulate with?

A
  1. Acrominal end, scapula
  2. Sternal end, clavicle notches of sternum
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125
Q

Scapula spine:

A

Site of attachments of trapezius and deltoid muscles, laterally becomes acromion process.

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126
Q

supraspinous fossa of scapula?

A

supraspinatus muscle sits in this fossa

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127
Q

infraspinous fossa of scapula?

A

infraspinatus muscle sits in this fossa

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128
Q

acromion process of scapula?

A

Tip of the shoulder

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129
Q

coracoid process of scapula spine?

A

three muscles attach here: coracobrachialis, pectoralis minor, short head of the biceps brachii. *

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130
Q

glenoid fossa (cavity) of scapula?

A

head of the humerus fits here.

131
Q

What does the head of the humerus articulate with?

A

Glenoid cavity/fossa of scapula

132
Q

What part pf the humerus is a common fracture site?

A

Surgical neck

133
Q

Greater tubercle?

A

3 rotator cuff muscles attach here.

134
Q

Lesser tubercle?

A

subscapularis muscle inserts here.

135
Q

intertubercular groove (sulcus)

A

for the tendon of biceps brachii

136
Q

deltoid tuberosity

A

deltoid muscle inserts at this site.

137
Q

Head of radius

A

articulates with capitulum of humerus and radial notch of ulna

138
Q

Carpals? Shape?

A
  • There are eight carpal bones in total
  • short bones
139
Q

metacarpals? Shape?

A

These bones form the palm of your hand. They are numbered from lateral to medial (in anatomical position).
-long bones

140
Q

Phalanges

A

Numbered 1-5 (or I to V) from lateral (thumb) to medial, like the metacarpals. Note that the thumb (or ‘pollex’) has only proximal and distal phalanges while all the fingers have proximal, middle and distal phalanges.

141
Q

What makes up the glenohumeral joint?

A

Glenoid cavity of scapula and head of the humerus

142
Q

What 2 parts makes up the elbow joint?

A

Humeroulnar: Trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulnar

Radioulnar: captiulum of humerus moves across surface of the head of the radius.

143
Q

What 3 bones make up the hip bone?

A
  1. Ilium
  2. Ischium
  3. Pubis
144
Q

Function of iliac fossa?

A

helps support abdominal organs and iliacus muscle originates here

145
Q

What articulates from the acetabulum

A

Femur

146
Q

Function of ischial tuberosity

A

you sit on them (muscles of the hamstring group originate here)

147
Q

Function of obturator foramen?

A

– a large nerve runs through this hole

148
Q

Function of symphyseal surface?

A

– joins with opposite pubic bone to form the pubic symphysis

149
Q

What bone articulates with the auricular surface?

A

Sacrum

150
Q

pubic symphysis?

A

The anterior joint between the pubic bones of the left and right hip bones

151
Q

sacroiliac joints?

A

The posterior joints between the hip bones and the sacrum

152
Q

What are 5 ways most female pelvises differ from most male pelvises:

A
  1. Smaller
  2. Lighter
  3. Less prominent
  4. Pelvic outlet is wider
  5. Obturator Forman is triangular (not oval)
153
Q

What articulates with the head of the femur?

A

Acetabulum of hip

154
Q

Function of greater trochanter of femur?

A

insertion site for gluteus medius and minimus and deep lateral rotator muscles

155
Q

Lesser trochanter?

A

site of attachment for iliopsoas muscle

156
Q

gluteal tuberosity

A

where gluteus maximus inserts

157
Q

patellar surface

A

where patella articulates

158
Q

patella? Shape?

A

The patella protects the knee joint anteriorly and improves the leverage of the thigh muscles. The patella also prevents friction from occurring where the quadriceps tendon crosses the joint.
- sesmoid

159
Q

Tibia structures?

A

lateral tibial condyle, medial tibial condyle, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus (medial ‘ankle bone’)

160
Q

What does the fibula articulate with?

A

Head of tibia

161
Q

Why is the fibula thinner and smaller than the other leg bones?

A

Not weight bearing

162
Q

Tarsals?

A

There are 7 tarsal bones in total.
- calcaneus ‘heel bone’

163
Q

metatarsals

A
  • five, numbered 1 – 5 (I – V) from the great toe
  • locate the base and head of each metatarsal.
164
Q

phalanges

A
  • there are only two phalanges (proximal and distal) in the great toe or hallux (phalanx #1), and 3 in each of the other toes; a proximal, middle and distal phalanx.
165
Q

What structure makes up the ball of the foot?

A

Metatarsals and the phalangeal joint

166
Q

Pubic symphysis? What cartilage forms it?

A

A) The superior rami of both pubic bones join at their symphyseal surfaces with cartilage to form the pubic symphysis.

B) Fibrocartilage

167
Q

What makes up the hip joint?

A

acetabulum, head of femur, ligaments reinforcing the capsule (three on each side)

168
Q

In a typical ‘hip replacement’ surgery, what is actually replaced?

A

Head and neck of femur

169
Q

In a typical ‘hip fracture’ (common in elderly individuals with osteoporosis), what bone is usually fractured?

A

Femur

170
Q

What part of the femur is most vulnerable to fracture?

A

Neck

171
Q

What are the 2 stabilizing structures within the knee? What type of cartilage forms it?

A
  1. medial meniscus
  2. lateral meniscus
  • Fibrocartilage
172
Q

What is the function of the medial meniscus and lateral meniscus?

A

Increase stability, distribute load, absorb shock, lubrication, provide nutrition to the knee.

173
Q

What are the medial and lateral meniscus (2)?

A
  1. anterior cruciate ligaments (ACL)
  2. posterior cruciate ligaments (PCL)
174
Q

What is the function of the cruciate ligaments?

A

Stabilize knee joint by preventing excess forward movement of the tibia or limiting rotational movement.

175
Q

What type of tissue forms tendons and ligaments?

A

Dense CT

176
Q

Knee injury commonly occurs when an individual receives a blow to the lateral side of the knee. What ligaments would most likely be torn in this type of injury?

A

Medial (Tibial) collateral ligament

177
Q

Functional vs structural classification?

A

F: classification on the basis of the amount of movement at the joint.

S: classification on the basis tissues holding bones together.

178
Q

Synarthrosis?

A

No movement

179
Q

Amphyarthrosis?

A

Slight movement

180
Q

Diarthrosis?

A

Freely movable

181
Q

Synovial joints?

A

Diarthroses (freely movable) and can be classified by the number of axes or planes along which movement occurs: monaxial (one plane or axis) biaxial (two), triaxial / multiaxial (three).

182
Q

Articular cartilage is composed of what?

A

Hyaline

183
Q

articular capsule composed of what two layers?

A
  1. Outer fibrous capsule composed of dense irregular connective tissue.
  2. Inner layer, the synovial membrane that secretes synovial fluid
184
Q

Tissue type and function of the following:
1. Ligaments
2. Tendons
3. Menisci
4. Fat pads
5. Bursae
6. Tendon sheaths

A
  1. Dense regular CT, connects bone to bone
  2. Dense regular CT, connects bone to muscle
  3. Fibrocartilage, stability and fit between bones
  4. Adipose tissue, protects cartilages, acts as packing material
  5. Synovial membrane (simple squamous epithelium, areolar CT), decrease friction, help absorb shock around synovial joints
  6. Dense fibrous connective tissue
185
Q

Smooth muscle?

A

functions to propel food, urine, reproductive secretions; regulates diameter of respiratory
passages and blood vessels; not striated

186
Q

Cardiac muscle?

A

branched, striated cells with intercalated discs

187
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

striated; functions in voluntary movement (moves bones)

188
Q

What are muscle fibers?

What are the 3 main contractile proteins found in muscle fibers?

A
  • long, cylindrical cells composed of bundles of myofibrils.
  1. Myosin w/ core of titin (thick filament)
  2. Actin (mostly), troponin, tropomyosin
  3. Titin
189
Q

each muscle fiber is surrounded in a sheath of c.t. called the?

A

Endomysium

190
Q

muscle fibers are organized into bundles called?

A

Fascicles

191
Q

Fascicles are surrounded by a sheath of c.t. called the?

A

Perimysium

192
Q

Describe the following fascicles arrangements:

  1. Parallel
  2. Pennate
  3. Circular
  4. Convergent
A
  1. arrangement allows for maximal change in length
  2. arrangement has shorter muscle fibers that attach at an oblique angle to a common tendon and produces more tension than a parallel muscle of the same size
  3. arrangement controls entrances and exits of body
  4. arrangement allows for versatility in the direction of pull
193
Q

Flexion?

A

Movement that reduces the angel between 2 articulating elements

194
Q

Extension?

A

Movement that increases the angel between 2 articulating elements

195
Q

Hyperextension

A

An excessive joint movement in which the angle formed by the bones of a particular joint is straightened beyond its normal, healthy range of motion.

196
Q

Abduction?

A

The motion of a limb or appendage away from the midline

197
Q

Adduction?

A

Movement towards the midline of the body/frontal plane

198
Q

Circumduction

A

To trace a circle with a body part

199
Q

Rotation?

A

Movement of a body part around a longitudinal axis

200
Q

Supination

A

Turning palm internally (holding bowl of soup)

201
Q

Pronation

A

Turning hand posteriorly (pouring soup out)

202
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Movement at ankle to lift toes

203
Q

Planter flection

A

Movement at ankle to point toes

204
Q

Inversion

A

Movement of sole (foot) towards median plane

205
Q

Eversion

A

Moving sole of foot away from median plane (turning foot outwards)

206
Q

Elevation

A

Movement in superior direction

207
Q

Depression

A

Movement in inferior direction

208
Q

Opposition?

A

Movement o thumb toward palm or other fingers

209
Q

Protraction

A

Moving body party forward/anteriorly (Jaw)

210
Q

Retraction?

A

Moving a body part backwards/posteriorly

211
Q

Origin vs insertion

A

O: place where bone that remains immobile for an action, one of two places that muscle attaches

I: one of two places that muscle attach, place on bone that moves during action

212
Q

Muscle that is contracting?

A

Agonist

213
Q

Muscle that helps other muscles perform a specific function?

A

Synergist

214
Q

Muscle that relaxes or lengthening during movement

A

Antagonist

215
Q

Function of temporalis?

A

Contracts/elevates mandible

216
Q

Sternocleidomastoid function?

A

Bends head to shoulders

217
Q

Function of orbicularis oculi?

A

Closes eyelids + pumping tears from eye into nasolacrimal duct system

218
Q

Function of masseter?

A

Elevates mandible

219
Q

Function of orbicularis oris?

A

Pursing or puckering lips

220
Q

Function of pectoral is major?

A

Flexion and Adduction at shoulder

221
Q

Function of rectus abdominus?

A

Flexes vertebral column, depresses ribs, compresses abdomen

222
Q

External obliques function?

A

Lateral flexion of vertebral column, rotation of trunk

223
Q

Function of pectoralis minor?

A

Depresses scapula, elevates ribs

224
Q

External intercostals function?

A

Elevate ribs to inhale

225
Q

internal intercostals

A

depress ribs during forced exhalation

226
Q

Internal obliques

A

Lateral flexion of vertebral column

227
Q

Rhomboids function?

A

Adduction, retraction of scapula

228
Q

Trapezius function?

A

Elevates, abducts, depresses scapulae and elevates clavicle

229
Q

Latissimus Dorsi function?

A

Adduction/extension of arm at shoulder

230
Q

Gluteal medius function?

A

Abduction and medial rotation of thigh at hip

231
Q

Tensor fasciae latae function?

A

Abduction and medial rotation of thigh at hip

232
Q

Quadriceps group function?

A

Flexion of thigh at hip, extension of leg at knee

233
Q

Tibialis anterior function

A

Dorsiflexion ya ankle

234
Q

Gluteus Maximus function?

A

Extension/Hyperextension and lateral rotation of thigh at hip

235
Q

Hamstring group function?

A

Flextion of leg at knee and extension of thigh at hip

236
Q

Gastrocnemuis

A

Planter flexion at ankle

237
Q

Soleus function?

A

Planter Flexion at ankle

238
Q

Adductor group function?

A

Adduction of thigh at hip

239
Q

Sartorius function?

A

Flexion at hip and knee, lateral rotation and abduction at hip

240
Q

Deltoid function?

A

Abduction at shoulder with help of synergists, also involved in the flexion and extension of arm at shoulder

241
Q

Biceps brachii function?

A

Flexion of arm at elbow

242
Q

Brachioradialis function?

A

Flexion of arm at elbow

243
Q

Wrist and finger extensor function?

A

Extension at wrist and fingers (DUH)

244
Q

Triceps brachii function?

A

Extension of arm at elbow

245
Q

Wrist/finger flexors function?

A

Flexion of fingers and wrist (DUH)

246
Q

Hypothalamus function?

A

Produces thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), somatostatin, and dopamine into blood stream

247
Q

Pituitary gland function?

A

TSH, ACTH, PRL, MSH, FSH, LH and GH

248
Q

Adrenal glands function?

A

Aldosterone, glucocorticoids, androgens, epinephrine, and norepinephrine

249
Q

Ovaries produce?

A

Estrogen and progesterone

250
Q

What do testes produce (hormone)

A

Testosterone

251
Q

Pineal gland function?

A

Produces melatonin

252
Q

Thyroid gland function

A

T3, T4 and calcitonin

253
Q

Parathyroid function?

A

Parathyroid hormone (DUH)

254
Q

Thymus function?

A

Thymosin

255
Q

Pancreas produces?

A

Insulin and glycagon

256
Q

TSH - target tissue and function?

A

Thyroid

Stimulates release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)

257
Q

ACTH - target tissue and function

A

Adrenal cortex, stimulates release of steroid hormones, especially glucocorticoids

258
Q

PRL - target tissue and function

A

Mammary tissue, stimulates milk production

259
Q

MSH - target tissue and function

A

Epidermal melanocytes, promotes epidermal pigment production

260
Q

FSH (2) - target tissue and function

A

Female: developing ovarian follicle, promotes follicle maturation and estrogen secretion

Male: nurse-sertoli sustentacular cells, promotes maturation of spermatozoa

261
Q

LH (2) - target tissue and function

A

Female: mature ovarian cells, lowers blood calcium, triggers ovulation and formation of corpus luteum; stimulates secretion of estrogen and progesterone

Male: interstitial leydig cells, stimulates secretion of testosterone

262
Q

GH - target tissue and function

A

All cells esp. muscle/cartilage adipose + liver, Stimulates protein synthesis and cell division for growth; stimulates breakdown offat and glycogen to fuel growth

263
Q

ADH -target tissue and function

A

Renal tubules, smooth muscle and blood vessels ]

Stimulates water reabsorption; vasoconstriction

264
Q

OXT (FEMALE) - target tissue and functions

A

Uterine myometrium mammary glands, Stimulates uterine contractions; milk ejection

265
Q

Hypothalamus and regulating pituitary function:

A

Secretes hormones that regulate anterior pituitary function

  • RH (release hormones) stimulates synthesis or secretion of anterior pituitary hormones
  • IH (inhibiting hormones) inhibit synthesis or secretion of anterior pituitary hormones
  • RH and IH hormones transported via hypophyseal vein directly to pituitary
266
Q

Thyroid gland:

A) Hormones

B) Produced by?

C) Functions

A
  1. A) thyroxine (T4) and Triodothyronine (T3) B) thyroid follicle cells C) Increases metabolic rateand ATP production; increases body temperatures in children and promotes normal development of neural, skeletal and muscular systems
  2. A) Calcitonin B) C cells C) lowers blood calcium
267
Q

Pineal Gland

A) Hormones

B) Produced by?

C) Functions

A

A) melatonin

C) Regulates timing of sexual maturity; maintains circadian rhythms; protects against free radical damage in the CNS

268
Q

Trymosin

A) Hormones

B) Produced by?

C) Functions

A

A) Thymosin

C) Stimulates maturation of lymphocytes

269
Q

Adrenal Cortex

A) Hormone

B) function

A

1a) mineralocorticoid b) Stimulates renal Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion

2a) glycocorticoid b) Stimulates fat and protein breakdown for fuel for repair; anti-inflammatory

3a) gonadocorticoid b) Promotes pubic hair growth; maintains libido

270
Q

Adrenal medulla

A) hormone

B) function

A

1a) epinephrine b) Prolongs sympathetic response

2a) norepinephrine b) Prolongs sympathetic response

271
Q

Pancreas

A) hormone

B) function

C) produces by..

A

1a) glycogen, b) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogen breakdown c) alpha cells

2a) insulin b) Decreases blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake by cells and glycogen storage c) beta cells

272
Q

What is special about the pancreas gland?

A

both an exocrine and endocrine gland. The endocrine cells, located in the Islets of Langerhans (also known as the pancreatic islets) produce several hormones. We will consider the two major hormones which are produced by the islet alpha and beta cells

273
Q

What hormone do the C cells produce?

A

Calcitonin

274
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

Fast heartbeat.
Shaking.
Sweating.
Nervousness or anxiety.
Irritability or confusion.
Dizziness.
Hunger.

275
Q

Causes of hypoglycemia

A

Causes of Low Blood Sugar:
Taking too much insulin.
Not eating enough carbs for how much insulin you take.
Timing of when you take your insulin.
The amount and timing of physical activity.
Drinking alcohol.
How much fat, protein, and fiber are in your meal.
Hot and humid weather.
Unexpected changes in your schedule.

276
Q

Insulin and glucose?

A

two hormones from the pancreas, help control the blood glucose level.

Insulin is released when blood glucose levels rise following a meal. Insulin is needed for cellular membrane permeability to glucose and for transportation of glucose into the cells. Without insulin, glucose cannot enter most cells. Insulin also stimulates enzymatic processes that break down glucose for energy or store glucose as glycogen and fat.

Glucagon is released in the fasted state as blood glucose levels fall. Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis (conversion of stored glycogen to glucose) in the liver as well as gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from amino acids and fat).

277
Q

non-fasted blood glucose range vs normal fasting blood glucose

A

Non: 4.0-8.0 mmol/L.

Normal: 3.5 - 6.0 mmol/L.

278
Q

diabetes mellitus

A

When there is not enough insulin or cells do not respond normally to insulin

279
Q

How do you confirm whether a patient’s blood glucose level is borderline or slightly elevated?

A

fasting blood glucose (FBG) test and /or an oral glucose tolerance (OGT) test is performed. Fasting blood glucose levels of 6.1 – 6.9 mmol/L suggest prediabetes, >7.0 mmol/L suggests diabetes.

280
Q

Symptoms of hyperglycemia

A

Symptoms of hyperglycaemia include:
increased thirst and a dry mouth.
needing to pee frequently.
tiredness.
blurred vision.
unintentional weight loss.
recurrent infections, such as thrush, bladder infections (cystitis) and skin infections.

281
Q

Causes of hyperglycemia

A

Not using enough insulin or other diabetes medication.
Not injecting insulin properly or using expired insulin.
Not following your diabetes eating plan.
Being inactive.
Having an illness or infection.
Using certain medications, such as steroids or immunosuppressants.

282
Q

Type 1 vs type 2 diabetes

A

The main difference between the type 1 and type 2 diabetes is that type 1 diabetes is a genetic condition that often shows up early in life, and type 2 is mainly lifestyle-related and develops over time. With type 1 diabetes, your immune system is attacking and destroying the insulin-producing cells in your pancreas.

1: The bodies inability to produce insulin, genetic predisposition. Often shows up early in life

2: The body becomes insensitive to insulin, therefor you have a high Blood sugar. Caused by high levels of glucose over long periods of time. Body requires higher levels of insulin to attain same rate of glucose transport into cells.

283
Q

3 risk factors for development of type 2 diabetes:

A
  1. Obesity
  2. Family History
  3. Diet
  4. Age
284
Q

retinopathy and diabetes:

A

Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes, caused by high blood sugar levels damaging the back of the eye (retina). It can cause blindness if left undiagnosed and untreated. However, it usually takes several years for diabetic retinopathy to reach a stage where it could threaten your sight.

285
Q

nephropathy and diabetes?

A

Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication of type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Over time, poorly controlled diabetes can cause damage to blood vessel clusters in your kidneys that filter waste from your blood. This can lead to kidney damage and cause high blood pressure.

286
Q

peripheral neuropathy and diabetes?

A

t’s the most common type of diabetic neuropathy. It affects the feet and legs first, followed by the hands and arms. Signs and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy are often worse at night, and may include: Numbness or reduced ability to feel pain or temperature changes.

287
Q

Purpose of Oral glucose tolerance test?

A

assesses the body’s ability to tolerate the ingestion of a fairly substantial quantity of glucose. The individual is required to fast overnight (12 hours) and a fasting blood glucose level is determined at time 0. The individual is then given 70g to 100g of glucose orally and blood samples are taken again at 60 and 120 minutes. The following data set represents the results of an OGTT in 2 patients. Blood testing was extended to 3 hours.

288
Q

What does glycated mean

A

(of a protein or lipid) containing an added sugar molecule as a result of having undergone glycation.
“in non-diabetic adults, glycated hemoglobin is associated with risk of cardiovascular disease”

289
Q

Scrotum function?

A

Novses testes

290
Q

Testes function?

A

Produce sperm and testosterone

291
Q

Epididymis function?

A

Storage and maturation of sperm

292
Q

Ductus deferents function?

A

Conveys sperm from epididymis to ejaculatory duct during ejaculation

293
Q

seminal vesicle (seminal gland) function?

A

Secrets alkaline fluid containing fructose, fibrinogen, and
Prostaglandins

294
Q

ejaculatory duct function

A

Conveys sperm and semen from ductus defers and
saminal Vesicles to urethra

295
Q

prostate gland function?

A

Secrets seminalplasmin to kill bacteria in UT

296
Q

bulbourethral gland function?

A

Secrets alkaline mucus prior to ejaculation for lubricating glans penis and neutralizing urinary acids

297
Q

urethra function?

A

Carries urine and semen to outside body

298
Q

corpora cavernosa corpus spongiosum function

A

Erectile bodies that become engorged w/ blood to produce
erection

299
Q

Prepuce function

A

‘Foreskin’ skin covering tip of penis

300
Q

spermatic cords?

A

House the ductus deferens and assorted blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels

301
Q

Each spermatic cord passes through where?

A

inguinal canal (a passageway through the abdominal wall).

302
Q

What is the function of the cremaster muscle and dartos muscle?

A

The cremaster and dartos muscles work together to maintain the temperature of the testicles which is responsible for spermatogenesis. At lower temperatures, they raise the testicals closer to the body to retain heat, while at higher temperatures they relax the scrotum to promote heat loss.

303
Q

List all of the anatomical structures that a sperm cell would travel through from its site of production in a seminiferous tubule to the end of the penile urethra.

A

After they leave the testes, the sperm passes through the epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra.

304
Q

testes are divided into 250-300 wedge shaped compartments called.. containing what?

A

A) Lobules

B) 4 coiled seminiferous tubules (“sperm factories”)

305
Q

spermatogonia vs spermatocytes

A

Spermatocytes are a type of male gametocyte in animals. They derive from immature germ cells called spermatogonia. They are found in the testis, in a structure known as the seminiferous tubules. There are two types of spermatocytes, primary and secondary spermatocytes.

306
Q

nurse (sustentacular or Sertoli) cells?

A

Sertoli cells are a type of sustentacular “nurse” cell found in human testes which contribute to the process of spermatogenesis (the production of sperm) as a structural component of the seminiferous tubules.

307
Q

interstitial (Leydig) cells

A

synthesize and secrete the male sex hormones (e.g., testosterone), and are the principal cell type found in the interstitial supporting tissue, located between the seminiferous tubules.

308
Q

Ovary function

A

Produces oocytes; secrets estrogen and proestrogen

309
Q

Fimbriae

A

Creates currents that pull oocyte into uterine tube

310
Q

Uterine tubes

A

Conveys oocyte to uterus; optimal site of infection

311
Q

Uterus

A

To nourish the developing fetus prior to birth

312
Q

Cervix

A

Entrance to uterus; dilates from 1mm to 10cm during
childbirth

313
Q

Clitoris

A

Developmental homologue to penis; sexual arousal

314
Q

Labia minora

A

Hairless ‘lips’ of flesh that flank vaginal opening

315
Q

Labia majora

A

Flank vaginal opening, lateral to labia Minora (have pubic
hair, sebaceous and apocrine sudoriferous glands)

316
Q

Vagina

A

Receives penis, birth canal

317
Q

Vestibular gland

A

Production of the mucous secretion that aids in vaginal and
Vulvar lubrication

318
Q

How is a released oocyte directed toward the infundibulum and how does a captured oocyte move from the infundibulum to the isthmus of the uterine tube?

A

?

319
Q

What ciliated structures capture the oocyte?

A

Fimbriae

320
Q

Where in the female reproductive system is the optimal site for fertilization to occur?

A

Ovarian tube

321
Q

Which 2 pituitary hormones regulate the ovarian cycle?

A

FSH and LH

322
Q

Which layer of the uterus has tissue that is shed during menstruation?

A

Endometrium

323
Q

What type of muscle is the myometrium made of?

A

Smooth muscle

324
Q

What 2 ovarian hormones regulate the uterine (menstrual) cycle?

A

estrogen and progesterone

Anatomy 152 (3 decks)

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