LAB EXAM #2 Flashcards
1
Q
Free nerve ending?
A
Branching tips of sensory nerves, respond to stimuli or receptors in the skin
2
Q
Tactile disks?
A
Extremely sensitive to fine touch + light pressure
(Merkel cells w/in epidermis)
3
Q
Tactile corpuscles?
A
Fine touch + light pressure
- eyelids, fingertips, external epidermis
4
Q
Lamellated corpuscles?
A
Deep pressure in skin , muscles, joint capsules and some internal structures
- Urinary bladder
5
Q
Ruffini corpuscles?
A
Responds to pressure + distortion
- twisting, tugging etc.
- in dermis
6
Q
What types (3) of cutaneous receptors were being stimulated during the two-point discrimination test?
A
- Tactile corpuscle
- Noiceceptor
- Tactile disc
7
Q
What are the 3 regions of the ear, and what do they consist of?
A
- Outer: auricle (pinna), tympanic membrane, external auditory canal
- Middle: Ossicles (top->down: malleus, incus, stapes, oval window)
- Inner: Semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlear branch of vestibulochoclear nerve, cochlear auditory tube (pharyngotympanic)
8
Q
Auricle/pinna?
A
composed of elastic cartilage, captures soundwaves
9
Q
Stapes
A
ossicle that touches oval window
10
Q
Malleus
A
ossicle that touches tympanic membrane
11
Q
Tympanic membrane
A
transmits sound vibrations to ossicles
12
Q
Cochlea
A
contains receptors for sound
13
Q
Auditory tube
A
allows pressure in middle ear to be equalized
14
Q
Vestibule
A
contains receptors for static equilibrium
15
Q
Semicircular canals
A
contains receptors for dynamic equilibrium
16
Q
Vestibulocochlear nerve
A
conveys sound and equilibrium to brain
17
Q
Sensorineural deafness?
A
a type of hearing loss. It occurs from damage to the inner ear, the place of origin of the nerve that runs from the ear to the brain (auditory nerve), or the brain. The ear consists of external, middle, and inner structures.
18
Q
Conduction deafness?
A
Sound may be blocked by earwax or a foreign object located in the ear canal; the middle ear space may be impacted with fluid, infection or a bone abnormality; or the eardrum may have been injured.
19
Q
What are the 3 tunics of the eye, and what do they consist of?
A
- Fibrous: outer layer, dense CT, protects eyeball and maintains shape
- Vascular: composed of the iris, collars body and choroid
- Neural: composed of outermost cells of sensory retina (rods and cones layer)
20
Q
What structure contains the sensory receptors for detecting light? How would you classify these receptors?
A
A) retina
B) Photoreceptors
21
Q
Suspensory ligaments (zonules)
A
Attaches lens to ciliary body
22
Q
Sclera?
A
White of eye
23
Q
Fovea centralis
A
area of most acute vision
24
Q
Optic disc?
A
area of retina with no photoreceptors (blind spot)
25
Retina?
contains rods and cones
26
Ciliary body?
contains smooth muscle that controls shape of lens
27
Choroid?
Contains blood vessels
28
Aqueous humour
fluid that provides nutrients to lens and cornea
29
Vitreous humour or vitreous body
gel like substance that reinforces eye
30
Lens?
structure that focuses light on retina
31
Extra ocular eye muscles?
skeletal muscles which move the eyeball
32
Cornea?
anterior-most part of fibrous tunic
33
Optic nerve?
cranial nerve that relays visual stimuli to brain
34
What muscles in the eye change the shape of the lens?
Ciliary body
35
Which structure(s) in the eye are responsible for refraction?
About 80% of the refraction occurs in the cornea and about 20% in the inner crystalline lens
36
At what specific point on the retina are images seen with the greatest clarity?
Fovea centralis macula
37
What is a cataract?
Breakdown of proteins that cause the cornea to look hazy/Smokey
38
Why are images inverted on the retina?
Lens in convex
39
Focal plane?
plane in which image is in focus
40
Emmetropia?
normal eye; focal plane is on the retina distance vision is normal
41
Hyperopnia?
“farsightedness”; focal plane falls behind retina (often eyeball is flatter);
distance vision is normal but near
objects are blurry
42
Myopia
“nearsightedness”; focal plane falls in front of retina (often eyeball is elongated);
distant objects are blurry but near
vision is normal
43
Presbyopia?
As one ages, the crystallin proteins in the lens denature. This causes the lens to become less elastic making it is more difficult to accommodate (change the shape of the lens) for focusing on near objects.
- requires reading glasses
44
Astigmatism?
visual defect caused by irregularities in the shape of the cornea or lens.
- don’t effect depth of focus only irregulars along the shape of the eye = distorting image.
45
How many different types of cones are there and what colour are they? How do they work?
A) 3
B) red, blue, green
C) The degree of stimulation that each type of cone gets from a particular wavelength of light determines what colour is perceived by the brain.
46
Sex-linked hereditary condition:
Colour blindness affects 8% of the male population and 0.5% of females
47
Protanopia?
Individuals that have this condition see blue-greens and purplish-tinted reds as grey due to a lack of red cones
48
Deuteranopia?
Individuals that have this condition see blue-greens and purplish-tinted reds as grey due to a lack of green cones
49
What was the purpose of the following tests?
1. Rinne test
2. Ability to focus
3. Near point determination
4. Snellen eye chart
5. Diplopia and dominance
1. Testing for sensorineural or conduction deafness (tuning fork)
2. Testing for emmetropia, hyperopia or myopia.
3. Denaturing of crystallin proteins
4. assess visual acuity (as it relates to distance vision, 20/20 vision)
5. Binocular vision
50
Binocular vision?
differences in the views from each eye, we see a single image because the cerebral cortex integrates the images
51
Stereopsis?
3-dimensional vision
52
Diplopia?
Double vision
53
What causes objects to be less clear when using peripheral vision?
1. photoreceptors in the fovea are tightly packed, while those around the edges of the retina are more widely spaced.
2. Another factor is the type of photoreceptor (rods or cones) found in the different areas of the retina. Rods and cones differ in their morphology, their location on the retina, and their function. Functionally, rods are sensitive in low-light conditions, while our cones provide good visual acuity and colour vision in bright light.
54
What makes up compact bone?
Where is compact bone located?
What are its functions?
A) osteons with osteocytes (bone cells) in lacunae (spaces), mineral matrix made of calcium salts and collagen fibers and organized into concentric rings lamellae surrounding a central Haversian canal (containing blood vessels and nerves)
B) external parts of bones
C) strong but flexible; stores minerals (e.g. calcium)
55
What makes up spongy bone?
Where is spongy bone located?
What are its functions?
A) (no osteons) matrix made of calcium salts and collagen fibers and organized into open network of trabeculae enclosing red marrow (blood cell synthesis occurs here), trabeculae, osteocytes, red marrow.
B) internal sections of bones
C) not as strong as compact bone, but lightweight and able to resist force in many directions, contains red marrow (site of blood cell synthesis)
56
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
Where are they found?
1. Hyaline, end of long bones (articular cartilage), tip of nose
2. Elastic, flexible cartilage; forms ear and epiglottis
3. Fibrocartilage, resists compression; forms menisci of knees and pubic symphysis
57
What are the 6 classifications of bone shape? Provide example.
1. Irregular, vertebrae
2. Flat, rib
3. Long, metacarpal
4. Sutural, skull (partial and frontal bones)
5. Sesamoid (bones embedded in tendons), patella
6. Short, carpals
58
Diaphysis, epiphyses and medullary cavity?
1. the shaft or central part of a long bone
2. the end part of a long bone, initially growing separately from the shaft.
3. the hollow part of bone that contains bone marrow.
59
What type of bone tissue forms the walls of the diaphysis?
Compact bone
60
What type of bone tissue predominates at the epiphyses?
Spongy bone
61
What is found in the medullary cavity of living bone?
Yellow marrow
62
What are the two membranes that covers the bones surface?
1. periosteum, covers external surface and is composed of a layer of dense irregular connective
tissue overlying cellular layer richly supplied with nerves and blood
2. Endosteum, covers trabeculae and lines bone cavities; is a cellular layer
63
Ossification?
Formation of bone
64
Calcification?
Deposition of calcium salts w/in a tissue (any tissue)
65
Osteocytes
Maintain bone tissue
66
Osteoblasts
Produce bone matrix
67
Osteoclasts
Dissolve bone matrix
68
osteoprogenitors
Stem cells that can differentiate into bone cells
69
What are they 2 types of ossification?
1. endochondral ossification, cartilage is replaced by bone
- long bones grow by this method
2. intramembranous ossification, bone is formed w/in fibrous CT
- most flat bones grow by this method
70
epiphyseal line vs plate
the epiphyseal line signifies that bone growth has stopped = adult
Epiphyseal plate - juvenile
71
What are the 3 main subdivisions of the axial skeleton?
1. Skull
2. Cerebral column
3. Boney thorax
72
What are the 8 bones the skull is made up of?
1. Frontal
2. Parietal (2)
3. Occipital
4. Temporal (2)
5.ethmoid
6.sphenoid
73
Function of frontal sinus?
Fluid drainage
74
What passes through foramen magnum?
Spinal cord
75
What articulates with the occipital condyles?
Cervical vertebrae (C1- atlas)
76
Function of mastoid process?
Site of muscle attachment for the sternocleidomastoid muscle which rotates the head and flexes the neck.
77
Function of styloid process
site of attachment for muscles of tongue and larynx
78
The stylohyoid ligament connects the styloid process to which bone?
Hyoid bone
79
external acoustic (auditory) meatus?
where sound enters the ear
80
What makes up the zygomatic process?
Temporal process and zygomatic bone
81
Function of crista galli?
attachment site for membrane which secures brain within cranial cavity; visible in transverse section
82
Which dural fold attaches to the crista galli?
Falx cerebri
83
Function of cribriform plate?
forms roof of nasal cavity, visible in transverse section
84
What nerve endings pass through the tiny hole of the cribriform plate?
Olfactory nerve
85
What does the perpendicular plate form?
Boney nasal septum
86
Function of ethmoid sinuses?
air filled spaces visible in sagittal section, functions like frontal sinus
87
Function of superior and middle nasal conchae?
Swirling air currents, filters + warms
88
What makes up the nasal septum?
The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone (superiorly), the vomer bone (inferiorly) and hyaline cartilage (anteriorly)
89
Function of optic foramen?
passage of optic nerves
90
What important endocrine gland sits at the sella Turcica?
Pituitary gland
91
Paranasal sinuses are found in which 4 bones?
Ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal and maxilla
92
Function of frontal bone?
forms forehead (male frontal bone may have a brow ridge)
93
Function of maxillary bones?
(2 bones forming the upper jaw, the roof of the mouth, and floor of orbits)
Locate the maxillary sinuses in the sagittal section and the split head model
94
Function of zygomatic bone?
forms "cheekbones”; “chewing muscles” attach here
Locate the temporal process. This, together with the zygomatic process
Also form zygomatic arch
95
Mandible?
Lower jaw bone
96
Function of lacrimal bones?
nasolacrimal canal allows tears to drain into nasal cavity
97
Auditory ossicles?
- smallest bones in body
- located in petrous portion of the temporal bone identify the - malleus, incus and stapes
98
Hyoid bone
- only bone that does not articulate (form a joint) with any other bone(s)
- suspended from the styloid processes of temporal bones
- tongue and swallowing muscles attach to it.
- locate the hyoid bone in the plastic skeleton (peer at the mandible from below)
99
What are the three types of vertebrae, and how many of each?
7 cervical vertebrae (HINT: breakfast at 7)
12 thoracic vertebrae (HINT: lunch at 12 noon)
5 lumbar vertebrae (HINT: dinner at 5)
100
intervertebral discs?
- located between the vertebrae
- each disc consists of an inner gelatinous nucleus pulposus surrounded by a collar of
collagen fibers and cartilage, the anulus fibrosus
101
What kind of cartilages formed intervertebral discs?
Fibrocartilage
102
intervertebral foramina?
holes located between the stacked vertebrae.
103
What structures of the PNS exit through the holes of the intervertebral foramina?
Spinal nerves
104
Vertebral canal?
formed from stacked vertebral foramina
105
What structure of the CNS passes through the intervertebral canal?
Spinal cord
106
What are the basic structure of a vertebra?
- body (centrum)
- transverse process
- vertebral foramen (the vertebral foramina collectively form the vertebral canal) • spinous process
- superior (and inferior) articular facets
107
What are the 5 types of vertebrae?
1. C1 (atlas), no body - its superior articulating facets articulate with the occipital condyles of the skull allowing the “yes-yes” motion of the head
2. C2 (axis), contains dens (odontoid process) which, with the transverse ligaments holding it against the anterior arch of the atlas, allows the "no-no" motion of head (rotation).
3. Cervical vertebrae (C3 – C7), spinous process is bifid (split), transverse foramina, and oval-shaped body
4. thoracic vertebrae (T1 to T12), articulate with the ribs, long, slender spinous process, heart-shaped body, demifacets (superior & inferior costal facets) on superior and inferior edges of body,
- transverse costal facets on transverse processes for articulating with rib.
5. lumbar vertebrae (L1 - L5), largest of the vertebrae, and the least movable; they bear the weight of the torso.
A typical lumbar vertebra is characterized by: stout body, broad, short spine and large flat transverse processes
108
What passes through the transverse foramina?
Blood vessels
109
What bone articulates with the facet labelled in C1 above?
Occipital bone
110
With what part of the rib do demifacets articulate?
Head
111
With what part of the rib do the transverse costal facets articulate?
Tubercle
112
What bone articulates with the facets of thoracic vertebra?
Ribs
113
Why are lumbar vertebrae larger in structure compared to other vertebrae?
Weight baring
114
Sacrum?
5 fused vertebrae
115
Median sacral crest?
How is it formed?
Fused spinous processes
116
sacral foramina
passage of spinal nerves and blood vessels
117
auricular surface of sacrum?
Articulates with hip bone forming the sacroiliac joint
118
What forms the sacroiliac joint?
Auricle of sacrum and hip bone
119
What important organ is protected by the sternum?
Heart
120
What bone articulates at the clavicular notch?
Clavicle bone
121
Function of xiphoid process?
point of attachment for several ligaments and muscles
122
True vs false ribs?
T: attached to sternum
F: not attached, “floating”
123
What makes up the appendicular skeleton?
Pectoral girdle, arm bones, pelvic girdle and leg bones
124
What are the two ends of the clavichord bone? What do they articulate with?
1. Acrominal end, scapula
2. Sternal end, clavicle notches of sternum
125
Scapula spine:
Site of attachments of trapezius and deltoid muscles, laterally becomes acromion process.
126
supraspinous fossa of scapula?
supraspinatus muscle sits in this fossa
127
infraspinous fossa of scapula?
infraspinatus muscle sits in this fossa
128
acromion process of scapula?
Tip of the shoulder
129
coracoid process of scapula spine?
three muscles attach here: coracobrachialis, pectoralis minor, short head of the biceps brachii. *
130
glenoid fossa (cavity) of scapula?
head of the humerus fits here.
131
What does the head of the humerus articulate with?
Glenoid cavity/fossa of scapula
132
What part pf the humerus is a common fracture site?
Surgical neck
133
Greater tubercle?
3 rotator cuff muscles attach here.
134
Lesser tubercle?
subscapularis muscle inserts here.
135
intertubercular groove (sulcus)
for the tendon of biceps brachii
136
deltoid tuberosity
deltoid muscle inserts at this site.
137
Head of radius
articulates with capitulum of humerus and radial notch of ulna
138
Carpals? Shape?
- There are eight carpal bones in total
- short bones
139
metacarpals? Shape?
These bones form the palm of your hand. They are numbered from lateral to medial (in anatomical position).
-long bones
140
Phalanges
Numbered 1-5 (or I to V) from lateral (thumb) to medial, like the metacarpals. Note that the thumb (or ‘pollex’) has only proximal and distal phalanges while all the fingers have proximal, middle and distal phalanges.
141
What makes up the glenohumeral joint?
Glenoid cavity of scapula and head of the humerus
142
What 2 parts makes up the elbow joint?
Humeroulnar: Trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulnar
Radioulnar: captiulum of humerus moves across surface of the head of the radius.
143
What 3 bones make up the hip bone?
1. Ilium
2. Ischium
3. Pubis
144
Function of iliac fossa?
helps support abdominal organs and iliacus muscle originates here
145
What articulates from the acetabulum
Femur
146
Function of ischial tuberosity
you sit on them (muscles of the hamstring group originate here)
147
Function of obturator foramen?
– a large nerve runs through this hole
148
Function of symphyseal surface?
– joins with opposite pubic bone to form the pubic symphysis
149
What bone articulates with the auricular surface?
Sacrum
150
pubic symphysis?
The anterior joint between the pubic bones of the left and right hip bones
151
sacroiliac joints?
The posterior joints between the hip bones and the sacrum
152
What are 5 ways most female pelvises differ from most male pelvises:
1. Smaller
2. Lighter
3. Less prominent
4. Pelvic outlet is wider
5. Obturator Forman is triangular (not oval)
153
What articulates with the head of the femur?
Acetabulum of hip
154
Function of greater trochanter of femur?
insertion site for gluteus medius and minimus and deep lateral rotator muscles
155
Lesser trochanter?
site of attachment for iliopsoas muscle
156
gluteal tuberosity
where gluteus maximus inserts
157
patellar surface
where patella articulates
158
patella? Shape?
The patella protects the knee joint anteriorly and improves the leverage of the thigh muscles. The patella also prevents friction from occurring where the quadriceps tendon crosses the joint.
- sesmoid
159
Tibia structures?
lateral tibial condyle, medial tibial condyle, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus (medial ‘ankle bone’)
160
What does the fibula articulate with?
Head of tibia
161
Why is the fibula thinner and smaller than the other leg bones?
Not weight bearing
162
Tarsals?
There are 7 tarsal bones in total.
- calcaneus ‘heel bone’
163
metatarsals
- five, numbered 1 – 5 (I – V) from the great toe
- locate the base and head of each metatarsal.
164
phalanges
- there are only two phalanges (proximal and distal) in the great toe or hallux (phalanx #1), and 3 in each of the other toes; a proximal, middle and distal phalanx.
165
What structure makes up the ball of the foot?
Metatarsals and the phalangeal joint
166
Pubic symphysis? What cartilage forms it?
A) The superior rami of both pubic bones join at their symphyseal surfaces with cartilage to form the pubic symphysis.
B) Fibrocartilage
167
What makes up the hip joint?
acetabulum, head of femur, ligaments reinforcing the capsule (three on each side)
168
In a typical ‘hip replacement’ surgery, what is actually replaced?
Head and neck of femur
169
In a typical ‘hip fracture’ (common in elderly individuals with osteoporosis), what bone is usually fractured?
Femur
170
What part of the femur is most vulnerable to fracture?
Neck
171
What are the 2 stabilizing structures within the knee? What type of cartilage forms it?
1. medial meniscus
2. lateral meniscus
- Fibrocartilage
172
What is the function of the medial meniscus and lateral meniscus?
Increase stability, distribute load, absorb shock, lubrication, provide nutrition to the knee.
173
What are the medial and lateral meniscus (2)?
1. anterior cruciate ligaments (ACL)
2. posterior cruciate ligaments (PCL)
174
What is the function of the cruciate ligaments?
Stabilize knee joint by preventing excess forward movement of the tibia or limiting rotational movement.
175
What type of tissue forms tendons and ligaments?
Dense CT
176
Knee injury commonly occurs when an individual receives a blow to the lateral side of the knee. What ligaments would most likely be torn in this type of injury?
Medial (Tibial) collateral ligament
177
Functional vs structural classification?
F: classification on the basis of the amount of movement at the joint.
S: classification on the basis tissues holding bones together.
178
Synarthrosis?
No movement
179
Amphyarthrosis?
Slight movement
180
Diarthrosis?
Freely movable
181
Synovial joints?
Diarthroses (freely movable) and can be classified by the number of axes or planes along which movement occurs: monaxial (one plane or axis) biaxial (two), triaxial / multiaxial (three).
182
Articular cartilage is composed of what?
Hyaline
183
articular capsule composed of what two layers?
1. Outer fibrous capsule composed of dense irregular connective tissue.
2. Inner layer, the synovial membrane that secretes synovial fluid
184
Tissue type and function of the following:
1. Ligaments
2. Tendons
3. Menisci
4. Fat pads
5. Bursae
6. Tendon sheaths
1. Dense regular CT, connects bone to bone
2. Dense regular CT, connects bone to muscle
3. Fibrocartilage, stability and fit between bones
4. Adipose tissue, protects cartilages, acts as packing material
5. Synovial membrane (simple squamous epithelium, areolar CT), decrease friction, help absorb shock around synovial joints
6. Dense fibrous connective tissue
185
Smooth muscle?
functions to propel food, urine, reproductive secretions; regulates diameter of respiratory
passages and blood vessels; not striated
186
Cardiac muscle?
branched, striated cells with intercalated discs
187
Skeletal muscle
striated; functions in voluntary movement (moves bones)
188
What are muscle fibers?
What are the 3 main contractile proteins found in muscle fibers?
- long, cylindrical cells composed of bundles of myofibrils.
1. Myosin w/ core of titin (thick filament)
2. Actin (mostly), troponin, tropomyosin
3. Titin
189
each muscle fiber is surrounded in a sheath of c.t. called the?
Endomysium
190
muscle fibers are organized into bundles called?
Fascicles
191
Fascicles are surrounded by a sheath of c.t. called the?
Perimysium
192
Describe the following fascicles arrangements:
1. Parallel
2. Pennate
3. Circular
4. Convergent
1. arrangement allows for maximal change in length
2. arrangement has shorter muscle fibers that attach at an oblique angle to a common tendon and produces more tension than a parallel muscle of the same size
3. arrangement controls entrances and exits of body
4. arrangement allows for versatility in the direction of pull
193
Flexion?
Movement that reduces the angel between 2 articulating elements
194
Extension?
Movement that increases the angel between 2 articulating elements
195
Hyperextension
An excessive joint movement in which the angle formed by the bones of a particular joint is straightened beyond its normal, healthy range of motion.
196
Abduction?
The motion of a limb or appendage away from the midline
197
Adduction?
Movement towards the midline of the body/frontal plane
198
Circumduction
To trace a circle with a body part
199
Rotation?
Movement of a body part around a longitudinal axis
200
Supination
Turning palm internally (holding bowl of soup)
201
Pronation
Turning hand posteriorly (pouring soup out)
202
Dorsiflexion
Movement at ankle to lift toes
203
Planter flection
Movement at ankle to point toes
204
Inversion
Movement of sole (foot) towards median plane
205
Eversion
Moving sole of foot away from median plane (turning foot outwards)
206
Elevation
Movement in superior direction
207
Depression
Movement in inferior direction
208
Opposition?
Movement o thumb toward palm or other fingers
209
Protraction
Moving body party forward/anteriorly (Jaw)
210
Retraction?
Moving a body part backwards/posteriorly
211
Origin vs insertion
O: place where bone that remains immobile for an action, one of two places that muscle attaches
I: one of two places that muscle attach, place on bone that moves during action
212
Muscle that is contracting?
Agonist
213
Muscle that helps other muscles perform a specific function?
Synergist
214
Muscle that relaxes or lengthening during movement
Antagonist
215
Function of temporalis?
Contracts/elevates mandible
216
Sternocleidomastoid function?
Bends head to shoulders
217
Function of orbicularis oculi?
Closes eyelids + pumping tears from eye into nasolacrimal duct system
218
Function of masseter?
Elevates mandible
219
Function of orbicularis oris?
Pursing or puckering lips
220
Function of pectoral is major?
Flexion and Adduction at shoulder
221
Function of rectus abdominus?
Flexes vertebral column, depresses ribs, compresses abdomen
222
External obliques function?
Lateral flexion of vertebral column, rotation of trunk
223
Function of pectoralis minor?
Depresses scapula, elevates ribs
224
External intercostals function?
Elevate ribs to inhale
225
internal intercostals
depress ribs during forced exhalation
226
Internal obliques
Lateral flexion of vertebral column
227
Rhomboids function?
Adduction, retraction of scapula
228
Trapezius function?
Elevates, abducts, depresses scapulae and elevates clavicle
229
Latissimus Dorsi function?
Adduction/extension of arm at shoulder
230
Gluteal medius function?
Abduction and medial rotation of thigh at hip
231
Tensor fasciae latae function?
Abduction and medial rotation of thigh at hip
232
Quadriceps group function?
Flexion of thigh at hip, extension of leg at knee
233
Tibialis anterior function
Dorsiflexion ya ankle
234
Gluteus Maximus function?
Extension/Hyperextension and lateral rotation of thigh at hip
235
Hamstring group function?
Flextion of leg at knee and extension of thigh at hip
236
Gastrocnemuis
Planter flexion at ankle
237
Soleus function?
Planter Flexion at ankle
238
Adductor group function?
Adduction of thigh at hip
239
Sartorius function?
Flexion at hip and knee, lateral rotation and abduction at hip
240
Deltoid function?
Abduction at shoulder with help of synergists, also involved in the flexion and extension of arm at shoulder
241
Biceps brachii function?
Flexion of arm at elbow
242
Brachioradialis function?
Flexion of arm at elbow
243
Wrist and finger extensor function?
Extension at wrist and fingers (DUH)
244
Triceps brachii function?
Extension of arm at elbow
245
Wrist/finger flexors function?
Flexion of fingers and wrist (DUH)
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Hypothalamus function?
Produces thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), somatostatin, and dopamine into blood stream
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Pituitary gland function?
TSH, ACTH, PRL, MSH, FSH, LH and GH
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Adrenal glands function?
Aldosterone, glucocorticoids, androgens, epinephrine, and norepinephrine
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Ovaries produce?
Estrogen and progesterone
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What do testes produce (hormone)
Testosterone
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Pineal gland function?
Produces melatonin
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Thyroid gland function
T3, T4 and calcitonin
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Parathyroid function?
Parathyroid hormone (DUH)
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Thymus function?
Thymosin
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Pancreas produces?
Insulin and glycagon
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TSH - target tissue and function?
Thyroid
Stimulates release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)
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ACTH - target tissue and function
Adrenal cortex, stimulates release of steroid hormones, especially glucocorticoids
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PRL - target tissue and function
Mammary tissue, stimulates milk production
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MSH - target tissue and function
Epidermal melanocytes, promotes epidermal pigment production
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FSH (2) - target tissue and function
Female: developing ovarian follicle, promotes follicle maturation and estrogen secretion
Male: nurse-sertoli sustentacular cells, promotes maturation of spermatozoa
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LH (2) - target tissue and function
Female: mature ovarian cells, lowers blood calcium, triggers ovulation and formation of corpus luteum; stimulates secretion of estrogen and progesterone
Male: interstitial leydig cells, stimulates secretion of testosterone
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GH - target tissue and function
All cells esp. muscle/cartilage adipose + liver, Stimulates protein synthesis and cell division for growth; stimulates breakdown of fat and glycogen to fuel growth
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ADH -target tissue and function
Renal tubules, smooth muscle and blood vessels ]
Stimulates water reabsorption; vasoconstriction
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OXT (FEMALE) - target tissue and functions
Uterine myometrium mammary glands, Stimulates uterine contractions; milk ejection
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Hypothalamus and regulating pituitary function:
Secretes hormones that regulate anterior pituitary function
- RH (release hormones) stimulates synthesis or secretion of anterior pituitary hormones
- IH (inhibiting hormones) inhibit synthesis or secretion of anterior pituitary hormones
- RH and IH hormones transported via hypophyseal vein directly to pituitary
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Thyroid gland:
A) Hormones
B) Produced by?
C) Functions
1. A) thyroxine (T4) and Triodothyronine (T3) B) thyroid follicle cells C) Increases metabolic rate and ATP production; increases body temperatures in children and promotes normal development of neural, skeletal and muscular systems
2. A) Calcitonin B) C cells C) lowers blood calcium
267
Pineal Gland
A) Hormones
B) Produced by?
C) Functions
A) melatonin
C) Regulates timing of sexual maturity; maintains circadian rhythms; protects against free radical damage in the CNS
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Trymosin
A) Hormones
B) Produced by?
C) Functions
A) Thymosin
C) Stimulates maturation of lymphocytes
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Adrenal Cortex
A) Hormone
B) function
1a) mineralocorticoid b) Stimulates renal Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion
2a) glycocorticoid b) Stimulates fat and protein breakdown for fuel for repair; anti-inflammatory
3a) gonadocorticoid b) Promotes pubic hair growth; maintains libido
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Adrenal medulla
A) hormone
B) function
1a) epinephrine b) Prolongs sympathetic response
2a) norepinephrine b) Prolongs sympathetic response
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Pancreas
A) hormone
B) function
C) produces by..
1a) glycogen, b) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogen breakdown c) alpha cells
2a) insulin b) Decreases blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake by cells and glycogen storage c) beta cells
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What is special about the pancreas gland?
both an exocrine and endocrine gland. The endocrine cells, located in the Islets of Langerhans (also known as the pancreatic islets) produce several hormones. We will consider the two major hormones which are produced by the islet alpha and beta cells
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What hormone do the C cells produce?
Calcitonin
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Symptoms of hypoglycemia
Fast heartbeat.
Shaking.
Sweating.
Nervousness or anxiety.
Irritability or confusion.
Dizziness.
Hunger.
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Causes of hypoglycemia
Causes of Low Blood Sugar:
Taking too much insulin.
Not eating enough carbs for how much insulin you take.
Timing of when you take your insulin.
The amount and timing of physical activity.
Drinking alcohol.
How much fat, protein, and fiber are in your meal.
Hot and humid weather.
Unexpected changes in your schedule.
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Insulin and glucose?
two hormones from the pancreas, help control the blood glucose level.
Insulin is released when blood glucose levels rise following a meal. Insulin is needed for cellular membrane permeability to glucose and for transportation of glucose into the cells. Without insulin, glucose cannot enter most cells. Insulin also stimulates enzymatic processes that break down glucose for energy or store glucose as glycogen and fat.
Glucagon is released in the fasted state as blood glucose levels fall. Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis (conversion of stored glycogen to glucose) in the liver as well as gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from amino acids and fat).
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non-fasted blood glucose range vs normal fasting blood glucose
Non: 4.0-8.0 mmol/L.
Normal: 3.5 - 6.0 mmol/L.
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diabetes mellitus
When there is not enough insulin or cells do not respond normally to insulin
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How do you confirm whether a patient’s blood glucose level is borderline or slightly elevated?
fasting blood glucose (FBG) test and /or an oral glucose tolerance (OGT) test is performed. Fasting blood glucose levels of 6.1 – 6.9 mmol/L suggest prediabetes, >7.0 mmol/L suggests diabetes.
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Symptoms of hyperglycemia
Symptoms of hyperglycaemia include:
increased thirst and a dry mouth.
needing to pee frequently.
tiredness.
blurred vision.
unintentional weight loss.
recurrent infections, such as thrush, bladder infections (cystitis) and skin infections.
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Causes of hyperglycemia
Not using enough insulin or other diabetes medication.
Not injecting insulin properly or using expired insulin.
Not following your diabetes eating plan.
Being inactive.
Having an illness or infection.
Using certain medications, such as steroids or immunosuppressants.
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Type 1 vs type 2 diabetes
The main difference between the type 1 and type 2 diabetes is that type 1 diabetes is a genetic condition that often shows up early in life, and type 2 is mainly lifestyle-related and develops over time. With type 1 diabetes, your immune system is attacking and destroying the insulin-producing cells in your pancreas.
1: The bodies inability to produce insulin, genetic predisposition. Often shows up early in life
2: The body becomes insensitive to insulin, therefor you have a high Blood sugar. Caused by high levels of glucose over long periods of time. Body requires higher levels of insulin to attain same rate of glucose transport into cells.
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3 risk factors for development of type 2 diabetes:
1. Obesity
2. Family History
3. Diet
4. Age
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retinopathy and diabetes:
Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes, caused by high blood sugar levels damaging the back of the eye (retina). It can cause blindness if left undiagnosed and untreated. However, it usually takes several years for diabetic retinopathy to reach a stage where it could threaten your sight.
285
nephropathy and diabetes?
Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication of type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Over time, poorly controlled diabetes can cause damage to blood vessel clusters in your kidneys that filter waste from your blood. This can lead to kidney damage and cause high blood pressure.
286
peripheral neuropathy and diabetes?
t's the most common type of diabetic neuropathy. It affects the feet and legs first, followed by the hands and arms. Signs and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy are often worse at night, and may include: Numbness or reduced ability to feel pain or temperature changes.
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Purpose of Oral glucose tolerance test?
assesses the body’s ability to tolerate the ingestion of a fairly substantial quantity of glucose. The individual is required to fast overnight (12 hours) and a fasting blood glucose level is determined at time 0. The individual is then given 70g to 100g of glucose orally and blood samples are taken again at 60 and 120 minutes. The following data set represents the results of an OGTT in 2 patients. Blood testing was extended to 3 hours.
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What does glycated mean
(of a protein or lipid) containing an added sugar molecule as a result of having undergone glycation.
"in non-diabetic adults, glycated hemoglobin is associated with risk of cardiovascular disease"
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Scrotum function?
Novses testes
290
Testes function?
Produce sperm and testosterone
291
Epididymis function?
Storage and maturation of sperm
292
Ductus deferents function?
Conveys sperm from epididymis to ejaculatory duct during ejaculation
293
seminal vesicle (seminal gland) function?
Secrets alkaline fluid containing fructose, fibrinogen, and
Prostaglandins
294
ejaculatory duct function
Conveys sperm and semen from ductus defers and
saminal Vesicles to urethra
295
prostate gland function?
Secrets seminalplasmin to kill bacteria in UT
296
bulbourethral gland function?
Secrets alkaline mucus prior to ejaculation for lubricating glans penis and neutralizing urinary acids
297
urethra function?
Carries urine and semen to outside body
298
corpora cavernosa corpus spongiosum function
Erectile bodies that become engorged w/ blood to produce
erection
299
Prepuce function
‘Foreskin’ skin covering tip of penis
300
spermatic cords?
House the ductus deferens and assorted blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels
301
Each spermatic cord passes through where?
inguinal canal (a passageway through the abdominal wall).
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What is the function of the cremaster muscle and dartos muscle?
The cremaster and dartos muscles work together to maintain the temperature of the testicles which is responsible for spermatogenesis. At lower temperatures, they raise the testicals closer to the body to retain heat, while at higher temperatures they relax the scrotum to promote heat loss.
303
List all of the anatomical structures that a sperm cell would travel through from its site of production in a seminiferous tubule to the end of the penile urethra.
After they leave the testes, the sperm passes through the epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra.
304
testes are divided into 250-300 wedge shaped compartments called.. containing what?
A) Lobules
B) 4 coiled seminiferous tubules (“sperm factories”)
305
spermatogonia vs spermatocytes
Spermatocytes are a type of male gametocyte in animals. They derive from immature germ cells called spermatogonia. They are found in the testis, in a structure known as the seminiferous tubules. There are two types of spermatocytes, primary and secondary spermatocytes.
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nurse (sustentacular or Sertoli) cells?
Sertoli cells are a type of sustentacular "nurse" cell found in human testes which contribute to the process of spermatogenesis (the production of sperm) as a structural component of the seminiferous tubules.
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interstitial (Leydig) cells
synthesize and secrete the male sex hormones (e.g., testosterone), and are the principal cell type found in the interstitial supporting tissue, located between the seminiferous tubules.
308
Ovary function
Produces oocytes; secrets estrogen and proestrogen
309
Fimbriae
Creates currents that pull oocyte into uterine tube
310
Uterine tubes
Conveys oocyte to uterus; optimal site of infection
311
Uterus
To nourish the developing fetus prior to birth
312
Cervix
Entrance to uterus; dilates from 1mm to 10cm during
childbirth
313
Clitoris
Developmental homologue to penis; sexual arousal
314
Labia minora
Hairless ‘lips’ of flesh that flank vaginal opening
315
Labia majora
Flank vaginal opening, lateral to labia Minora (have pubic
hair, sebaceous and apocrine sudoriferous glands)
316
Vagina
Receives penis, birth canal
317
Vestibular gland
Production of the mucous secretion that aids in vaginal and
Vulvar lubrication
318
How is a released oocyte directed toward the infundibulum and how does a captured oocyte move from the infundibulum to the isthmus of the uterine tube?
?
319
What ciliated structures capture the oocyte?
Fimbriae
320
Where in the female reproductive system is the optimal site for fertilization to occur?
Ovarian tube
321
Which 2 pituitary hormones regulate the ovarian cycle?
FSH and LH
322
Which layer of the uterus has tissue that is shed during menstruation?
Endometrium
323
What type of muscle is the myometrium made of?
Smooth muscle
324
What 2 ovarian hormones regulate the uterine (menstrual) cycle?
estrogen and progesterone
