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153 - First Midterm > Lab Exam #1 > Flashcards

Lab Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of erythrocytes?

A

transports oxygen and carbon dioxide

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2
Q

What is the function of neutrophil?

A

kills bacteria by phagocytosis and respiratory burst; engulfs damaged or dying cells

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3
Q

What is the function of lymphocytes?

A

produces a specific immune responseby direct cell attack or via antibodies

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4
Q

What is the function of monocytes?

A

develops into phagocytic macrophage;triggers specific defenses by presenting antigen to T cells

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5
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

releasesenzymes to destroy parasites; decreases allergic response by engulfing antibody-labelled materials

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6
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

releases histamine to trigger inflammatory response; involved in allergic response

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7
Q

what is the function of thrombocytes (platelets)

A

forms plug to seal small tears inblood vessels; releases chemicals that stimulate blood clotting

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8
Q

What is the significance of erythrocytes structure to its function?

A
  • flexible to fir through small blood vessels
  • ability to stack for easy capillary exchange
  • large surface are unnucleated to bond more O2/CO2
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9
Q

List the three white blood cells that are classified as granulocytes and the two types that are classed as agranulocytes:

A

Gran:
- neutrophils
- eosinophils
- basophils

Agran:
- monocytes
-lymphocytes

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10
Q

What are the major components of plasma?

A
  • 90% water/solvent
  • 8% proteins
  • 2% nutrients, ions, gases, wastes and hormones
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11
Q

What are the three primary classes of plasma proteins? Where are these proteins produced?

A
  1. Albumin
  2. Globulin
  3. Clotting factors
  • all liver!
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12
Q

When do neutrophil counts increase and decrease?

A

dec. levels occur in aplastic + pernicious anemia, viral infections, radiation treatment, with some medications

inc. levels occur in acute bacterial infection, myelocytic leukemia, rheumatoid arthritis and stress

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13
Q

When do lymphocytes counts increase and decrease?

A

dec. levels occur in radiation therapy, AIDS, corticosteroid therapy

inc. levels occur in lymphocytic leukemia, infectious mononucleosis, viral infections

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14
Q

When do monocyte counts increase and decrease?

A

dec. levels occur in aplastic anemia, corticosteroid therapy

inc. levels occur in chronic inflammation, viral infections, tuberculosis

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15
Q

When do eosinophil counts increase and decrease?

A

dec. levels occur with steroid therapy

inc. levels occur in allergies, parasitic infections, some auto-immune disorders

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16
Q

When do basophil counts increase and decrease?

A

dec. levels occur in hypersensitivity reactions

inc. levels occur in inflammatory processes and during healing

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17
Q

Name the type of white blood cell that would be increased in
Winter 2023
Page 8 of 14
a) bacterial infections
b) parasitic infections
c) infectious mononucleosis
d) allergic reaction
e) tissue injury
f) viral infections

A

A) neutrophil
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocyte
D) basophil
E) monocyte
F) lymphocyte

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18
Q

Why is a differential count more useful than a total WBC count?

A

determines the percentage of each type of white blood cell present in your blood. A differential can also detect immature white blood cells and abnormalities, both of which are signs of potential issues.

Each WBC has a different purpose = tells us what type of pathogen might be present

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19
Q

Leukaemia?

A

Uncontrollable Leukopoiesis, cancer of red bone marrow

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20
Q

Leukocytosis?

A

High WBC count

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21
Q

Leukopenia?

A

Low WBC count

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22
Q

Leukopoiesis

A

Formation of WBC

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23
Q

What is the calculate the HCT?

A

HCT = (height of RBC column/total height of blood column) x100

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24
Q

How do you calculate MCV?

A

MCV = (HCT/RBC count (in millions)) x 10

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25
Q

How do you calculate Hb?

A

MCH = (Hb/RBC Count (in millions)) x10

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26
Q

What are the normal ranges of Hb, HCT, MCV, and MCH

A

Hb: 14-18g/dL (men) 12-16 g/dL (women)
HCT: 42-52% (m) 37-47% (w)
MCV:82-92 um^3
MCH:27-31pg

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27
Q

What are 2 reasons someone’s MCV < 70 um^3 and MCH < 20pg?

A

Low HCT and Hb could be iron deficiency anemia or thalassmia (hemolytic anemia)

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28
Q

Microcyte

A

an unusually small red blood cell range , associated with certain anemias. - size

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29
Q

Macrocyte

A

red blood cells that are larger than normal range - size

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30
Q

Hyperchromic?

A

an increase in the intensity of a spectral band due to a change in the molecular environment. (More hemoglobin) - colour

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31
Q

Hypochromic?

A

red blood cells have less color than normal when examined under a microscope (less hemoglobin) - colour

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32
Q

How would you describe the erythrocytes in a blood sample with an MCV <70 μm3 and MCH < 20 pg?

A

Hypochormic microcyte

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33
Q

Iron deficiency anemia?

A

Oxygen binds iron, which is at the center of the heme group. If the body’s supply of iron is low, either due to dietary insufficiency, impaired absorption or chronic blood loss (because iron in lost blood cannot be reused), Hb production slows down. RBCs cannot make sufficient Hb and mature RBCs are unusually small. Symptoms include weakness and fatigue.

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34
Q

Thalassemia?

A

A genetic inability to produce adequate amounts of alpha or beta chains of Hb. Severity of symptoms depends on number of remaining functional units. Individuals with no functional copies of the alpha chain gene die shortly after birth. Individuals with 1-2 copies (instead of 4 copies) of the alpha chain gene or no copies of the beta chain gene have small RBCs with less than the normal quantity of Hb, and moderate to severe anemia. Individuals with 1 normal beta chain gene rarely show clinical symptoms, even though their rate of Hb production is decreased by 15%.

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35
Q

Acute hemorrhagic anemia?

A

low Caused by a significant wound.

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36
Q

Hemolytic anemia?

A

RBCs breakdown prematurely in the bloodstream. May be due to infection, Hb abnormality or transfusion mismatch.

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37
Q

Sickle cell anemia?

A

An inherited disease causing a single amino acid change in beta hemoglobin chains. Carriers (individuals with one abnormal copy of the gene) have some protection against malaria and do not have sickle cell anemia. Individuals with two abnormal copies of the gene make beta chains that link under low O2 conditions, causing RBCs to become stiff and sickle shaped when they release their O2. Sickle shaped RBCs rupture early or plug up vessels causing excruciating pain, stroke, or organ damage.

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38
Q

Aplastic anemia?

A

Bone marrow destruction by bacterial toxin, drugs or radiation reduces or stops production of RBCs.

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39
Q

Pernicious anemia?

A

People who have a vitamin B12 deficiency (strict vegetarians who do not take supplements) or who cannot absorb vitamin B12 because their stomach mucosa cannot produce adequate intrinsic factor (the elderly, alcoholics) have RBCs that grow bigger and bigger because they cannot divide. Vitamin B12 is required for DNA synthesis and DNA copies must be synthesized before a cell can divide into two cells.

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40
Q

Folate deficiency anemia?

A

Like vitamin B12, folate is required for DNA synthesis and is necessary for cell division. Deficiency can be caused by some medications, inflammatory diseases of the small intestine or a deficiency in intake of green vegetables.

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41
Q

Polycythemia?

A

An increase in the number of RBCs due to bone marrow cancer (polycythemia vera) or adaptation to hypoxia from living at high altitude, smoking, COPD or congestive heart failure (secondary polycythemia).

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42
Q

What does the term auricle mean?

A

Ear-shaped anatomical lobe/process

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43
Q

What does the coronary sulcus separate?

A

Atrium from ventricle

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44
Q

What does the interventricular sulcus separate?

A

Left and right ventricles

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45
Q

What is the function of the left and right arteries?

A

arise from aorta and provide oxygenated blood to the heart tissue.

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46
Q

When blood flow through a coronary artery is blocked (eg. due to atherosclerosis), what happens to the heart muscle?

A

Lack of blood flow/oxygen, muscle weekends or cardiomyocyes die = cardiac arrest.

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47
Q

Where does the right atrium receive blood from?

A

Superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus

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48
Q

How many cusps does the tricuspid valve have?

A

3

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49
Q

What does the Pulmonary trunk branches into?

A

Left and right pulmonary arteries

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50
Q

Do the pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

A

Deoxygenated

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51
Q

Do the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

A

Oxygenated

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52
Q

What is the function of the bicuspid valve? How many cusps?

A

Prevents back flow from left ventricle to left atrium

2

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53
Q

What is the function of the aortic semilunar valve?

A

Prevent backflow of blood from aorta to L. Ventricle

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54
Q

What is the function of chordae tendineae and papillary muscles?

A

C.T. Regulates the closure of the AV valve

P.M. facilitate valve function

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55
Q

Function of arteries?

A

Transports blood (usually oxygenated) away from heart

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56
Q

Function of veins?

A

Transports blood (usually deoxygenated) towards heart

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57
Q

Function of capillaries?

A

Point of chance between blood vessel and tissues

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58
Q

Which of these blood vessels may have valves?

A

Veins

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59
Q

Which of these vessels has a thick tunica media?

A

Arteries

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60
Q

Which of these blood vessels is most elastic?

A

Arteries

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61
Q

Which tunic plays an active role in blood pressure regulation?

A

Tunica media

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62
Q

Which tunic provides a supporting and protective coat?

A

Tunica externa

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63
Q

Which tunic consists of a single layer of cells?

A

Tunica interna

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64
Q

What type of blood vessel consists of endothelium only?

A

Capillaries

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65
Q

What type of tissue forms the tunica media?

A

Smooth muscle, elastic C.T.

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66
Q

What type of tissue forms the endothelium?

A

Simple squamous

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67
Q

What type of tissue forms the tunica externa?

A

Fibrous C.T.

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68
Q

What are the 3 large branches off of the aortic arch? And where do they go?

A

Brachiocephalic artery - splits into two branches

Left common carotid artery - to left side of head and brain

Left subclavian artery - to left upper chest and limb

69
Q

What does the Brachiocephalic artery split into? And where do they go?

A
  • Right subclavian artery * to right upper chest and limb
  • Right common carotid artery* to right side of head and brain
70
Q

What do the right and left common carotid arteries branch to form an….

A

• internal carotid artery * - to brain via the Circle of Willis
• external carotid artery *- to face and scalp

71
Q

Right and left vertebral arteries branch off the right and left subclavian arteries, travel up the neck in transverse foramina of
cervical vertebrae to anterior brainstem where they anastomose (fuse) to form the…

A

• basilar artery - which supplies the brainstem and then enters the …

• Circle of Willis (cerebral arterial circle)- an arterial ring that circles around the pituitary gland. Gives rise to anterior, middle and posterior cerebral arteries which supply the brain

72
Q

What do the right and left subclavian arteries give rise to?

A
  1. Subclavian artery
    - thoracic a. → intercostal muscles; breast
  2. Axillary a.
    - thoracoacromial trunk → pectoralis and deltoids
    - subscapular a. → scapular region and latissimus dorsi
    - circumflex humeral arteries → deltoid and shoulder joint
  3. Brachial a. → anterior muscles of arm
    - Deep brachial a. → triceps brachii
    - Radial a. * → brachioradialis palmar arches
    - Ulnar a. * flexors / extensors palmar arches *
    - (Radial + ulnar = Hand)
73
Q

Definition of blood pressure?

A

the pressure the blood exerts against the blood vessel walls and it is generally measured in the arteries.

74
Q

Systolic pressure definition?

A

the pressure in the arteries at the peak of ventricular contraction and ejection of blood and the measurement of the diastolic pressure

75
Q

Diastolic pressure?

A

the pressure during ventricular relaxation

76
Q

Deep veins?

A

typically travel alongside an artery of the same name

77
Q

Superficial veins?

A

There are many superficial veins and they vary considerably between individuals and even between left and right sides on the same individual! Note the superficial veins visible under the skin of your arm.

78
Q

Venous sinuses - e.g?

A

in the heart, the coronary sinus; e.g. in the dura mater, there are several sinuses providing quick drainage of the brain.

79
Q

The hepatic portal system routes blood from the capillary beds of what?

A

the stomach, spleen, pancreas, and intestines to the liver where it passes through a second capillary bed for processing of materials picked up in the digestive tract.

80
Q

Processed blood from the digestive tract is then p[assed through_______ to ________.

A

hepatic veins to the inferior vena cava.

81
Q

the coronary arteries originate from the base of the _____________?

A

Aorta

82
Q

the coronary sinus delivers deoxygenated blood to the ________________?

A

Right atrium

83
Q

What is CAD?

A

Coronary artery disease

84
Q

Explain what coronary ischemia is and what causes this condition:

A

occurs when the blood flow through one or more of your coronary arteries is decreased. The low blood flow decreases the amount of oxygen your heart muscle receives. Myocardial ischemia can develop slowly as arteries become blocked over time. Reduced blood flow = less oxygen = muscle dies or struggles, can = angina.

85
Q

Explain what a myocardial infarction (heart attack)is:

A

A lack of blood flow can damage or destroy part of the heart muscle. A portion of cells have died, not regenerative.

86
Q

Explain what a coronary bypass graft (CABG) is:

A

a surgical procedure used to treat coronary heart disease. It diverts blood around narrowed or clogged parts of the major arteries to improve blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart. (Usually a vein)

87
Q

The brain can receive oxygenated blood from what 2 pairs of major arteries (thus reducing the likelihood of serious blood flow interruption to the brain)?
_____________________________ and __________________?

A

Internal common carotid artery

And

Vertebral artery

88
Q

The Internal common carotid artery and vertebral artery are connected by what?

A

Circle of Willis

89
Q

The vertebral arteries pass through the
transverse foramina of what bones?

A

Enters C6, exits C2

90
Q

The cerebral arterial circle (Circle of Willis) encircles
the infundibulum of what endocrine gland?

A

Pituitary gland

91
Q

What is a CVA and what is the common term for a CVA?

A

A stroke, or cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is the rapid loss of brain function(s) due to disturbance in the blood supply to the brain.

92
Q

What are 3 possible signs or symptoms of a CVA?

A

Sudden numbness or weakness in the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body. Sudden confusion, trouble speaking, or difficulty understanding speech. Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes. Sudden trouble walking, dizziness, loss of balance, or lack of coordination. FAST

93
Q

The middle cerebral artery is a common site of a CVA. Why do you think this is?

A

Thrombus plaques forming embolisms from the internal carotid is a large vessel possibly carrying large embolisms.

94
Q

A CVA involving the left branch of this artery will affect sensation and motor function on which side of the body? Explain.

A

Right because the brain is contralateral innervation

95
Q

Explain the difference between a hemorrhagic stroke and a thrombotic stroke:

A

A thrombotic stroke: blockage preventing blood from flowing

A hemorrhagic stroke happens when an artery in the brain leaks or bursts (ruptures).

96
Q

WBC test?

A

white blood cell count (number of leukocytes)

High - Leukocytosis
Low - leukopenia

97
Q

RBC test?

A

red blood cell count (number of erythrocytes)

High - low oxygen levels
Low - anemia

98
Q

Hb/hgb test?

A

hemoglobin (hemoglobin content of blood)

High - polycythemia
Low - anemia

99
Q

Hct test?

A

hematocrit (percent volume taken up by erythrocytes)

hematocrit (percent volume taken up by erythrocytes)

100
Q

MCV test?

A

The average size of RBC

High - macrocytic
Low - microcytic

101
Q

Platelet county test?

A

Number if thrombocytes

High - thrombocytosis, higher risk of blood clots
Low - thrombocytopenia, higher risk of bleeding

102
Q

CRP test?

A

C-reactive protein(a liver protein; marker of inflammation)

High - low risk of heart disease
Low - high risk of heart disease

103
Q

PT test?

A

prothrombin time (time for plasma to clot)

Low - clot is formed very fast
High - clot is formed slowly; liver disease

104
Q

LDH test?

A

lactate dehydrogenase (muscle enzyme)

105
Q

LDH1 test?

A

dehydrogenase in cardiac muscle cells

High - hemolytic anemia
Low - not harmful; LDH deficiency

106
Q

CPK (CK) test?

A

creatine phosphokinase / creatine kinase (muscle enzyme)

High - stress or injury in heart or other internal organs
Low - connective tissue disease, alcoholic liver arthritis

107
Q

CK-MB test?

A

creatine kinase in cardiac muscle cells

High - damage to heart muscle

108
Q

Troponin T (cTnT)

A

cardiac troponin T (protein in cardiac muscle cells)

High - heart muscle damage or heart attack

109
Q

Troponin 1 (cTn1)

A

cardiac troponinI (protein in cardiac muscle cells)

High - damage heart muscle sells are leaking troponin into blood

110
Q

What is happened for the “LUB” and “DUB”?

A

LUB: The first sound (S1) is due to blood turbulence associated with closure of the atrioventricular valves and signifies the onset of systole as the ventricular pressure rises above the atrial pressure.

DUB: The second sound (S2) is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves at the end of systole.

111
Q

Bradycardia?

A

a slow heart rate. If you have bradycardia, your heart beats fewer than 60 times a minute

112
Q

Tachycardia?

A

: a fast heart rate, over 100 bpm

113
Q

Predict the effect that each the following would have on heart rate by circling the correct answer
Subject #2
⇑ (increase)
⇓ (decrease)
⇔ (no effect)

Sympathetic (NE)
Parasympathetic (Ach)
Caffeine
Codeine
Nicotine
Anemia
Hypothyroidism

A

Sympathetic (NE) ⇑
Parasympathetic (Ach) ⇓
Caffeine ⇑
Codeine ⇓
Nicotine ⇑
Anemia ⇑
Hypothyroidism ⇓

114
Q

mean?
median?
Variability?
range?

A

mean: sum of all values / sample size

median: value above and below which half the values lie; if there are an even number of values take the mean of the 2 median values mode most frequently occurring value

Variability: is a measure of how dissimilar values are. The range of a data set is the simplest measure of variability.

range: (lowest to highest value)

115
Q

Pulse pressure?

A

the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures and reflects the amount of blood forced from the heart during systole. This represents the actual “working” pressure.

116
Q

Ranges:

normal BP?
prehypertensive stage?
1 hypertension stage?
2 hypertension?

A

normal BP = systolic < 120 and diastolic < 80

prehypertensive = systolic 120-139 or diastolic 80-89

stage 1 hypertension = systolic 140-159 or diastolic 90-99

stage 2 hypertension = systolic >160 or diastolic > 100

117
Q

What is the difference between primary hypertension (also known as essential hypertension)
and secondary hypertension?

A

The difference between primary hypertension and secondary hypertension is the causes related to each.

Primary hypertension does not have a definitive cause, while secondary hypertension has a known cause.

Both primary and secondary hypertension result in high blood pressure.

118
Q

What are 2 causes of, or contributing factors to, primary (essential) hypertension?

A

• Age (risk increases with advancing age)
• Obesity
• Family history
• Race
• Diet (high salt diet)
• Alcohol consumption (>8 drinks/week)
• Physical inactivity
• Lifestyle

119
Q

What does the Canadian Physical Activity Guidelines recommendation fro cardiovascular training?

Formula for calculating maximum HR:

A

At least 150 min of cardiovascular training per week

Cardiovascular training involves elevating the heart rate into the target heart rate zone (65 – 85% maximum heart rate).

This generally requires sustained moderate to vigorous exercise (stair climbing, swimming, cycling, rowing, running, cross-country skiing, etc.). Estimates of target heart rate can be made by calculating an individual’s maximum heart rate.

An estimate of maximum heart rate can be obtained as follows: maximum HR = 220 – age in years.

120
Q

lengthening of the P-R interval can indicate what?

A

indicates delayed conduction of the sinoatrial, or SA, nodal impulse to the ventricles and is called first-degree AV block.

121
Q

A lengthening of the Q-T interval can indicate what?

A

A prolonged QT interval is an irregular heart rhythm that can be seen on an electrocardiogram. It reflects a disturbance in how the heart’s bottom chambers (ventricles) send signals

122
Q

Explain what a cardiac stress test is

A

It measures the heart’s ability to respond to external stress in a controlled clinical environment. The stress response is induced by exercise or by intravenous pharmacological stimulation

123
Q

Explain how the 3 types of cardiac stress tests are different. (1) Exercise stress test, (2) nuclear imaging stress test and (3) pharmacologic dobutamine stress nuclear study:

A) How are they performed?

B) What does each measure?

A

1a. Walk on a treadmill or peddle on a bicycle, every 2-3 min the speed or inclination will increase gradually.

1b. Looking for heart response to physical activity, specifically changes in your mental status, BP or pattern of heart beat. (how the heart works during physical activity)

2a. A picture is taken of the heart metabolically using nuclear technology while the person is resting, and then ask them to perform activities: ride a bike, run on a treadmill, and then take a picture of the patient when they are in a metabolically active situation and compare the two.

2b. Determin how metabolically active heart is at rest compared to different activities (A nuclear stress test can diagnose coronary artery disease and show how severe the condition is.)

3a. A test using a small dose of radioactive solution to track blood flow to the heart muscle and to evaluate heart function while the drug dobutamine is injected. Dobutamine mimics the effects of exercise on your heart by increasing the rate and strength of its pumping action.

3b. Coronary artery disease and determine your risk of heart attack. Whether or not patient has significant blockages in heart arteries along with assesmnet of pumping function of heart

124
Q

What type of tissue makes up of respiratory epithelium that lines the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses and the respiratory passages

A

Simple squamous

125
Q

What are the 4 pairs of paranasal sinuses?

A

Maxillary
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Frontal

126
Q

What is the function of the paranasal sinuses?

A

mucosa-lined air cavities that lead into the nasal passages. These paranasal sinuses lighten the facial bones and act as resonance chambers for speech along with mucus to keep the nose from drying out during breathing.

127
Q

What is the function of the nasal conchae?

A

Increase surface area, warm and moisten air

128
Q

What bones form the bony part of the nasal septum?

A

perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, the vomer, and the maxillary crest

129
Q

The opening of auditory tube (also called the Eustachian or pharyngotympanic tube) connects nasopharynx to..?

A

The middle ear

130
Q

Function of the uvula?

A

prevent food and liquid from going up your nose when you swallow, along with secreting saliva to keep your mouth hydrated.

131
Q

The glottis is the entrance to the

A

Larynx

132
Q

What is the function of the epiglottis?

A

When swallowing, it folds backward to cover the entrance of the larynx so food and liquid do not enter the windpipe and lungs.

133
Q

What tissue makes up the epiglottis?

A

Elastic cartilage

134
Q

What type of cartilage makes up the thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage

A

Hyaline

135
Q

What type of cartilage forms the epiglottis?

A

Elastic

136
Q

What is the function of the vocal folds?

A

To protect the airway from choking on material in the throat. To regulate the flow of air into our lungs. The production of sounds used for speech.

137
Q

The glottis is the entrance to what?

A

Trachea

138
Q

What is broncoconstriction?

A

Narrowing of airways

139
Q

What type of tissue lines the trachea?

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue,

140
Q

What type of cartilage forms the walls of the trachea?

A

Hyaline

141
Q

Why are there only 2 lobes in the left lung?

A

To leave space for the heart

142
Q

What structures lie in the mediastinum?

A

Heart, bronchi, trachea

143
Q

What type of tissue lines the alveoli?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

144
Q

How does the lung tissue differ in these slides? (e.g. What changes in the tissue occur with emphysema?

A

Areolar destruction and enlargement w/ emphyseal

  • breakdown and loss of elastic CT that surrounds and supplies alveoli -> makes exhalation difficult as air gets trapped.
145
Q

What cartilage is present in the larynx?

A

thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, epiglottis, arytenoid cartilages, corniculate cartilages, and cuneiform cartilages

146
Q

What purpose do the tracheal cartilages serve?

A

it’s a stiff, flexible tube, it provides a reliable pathway for oxygen to enter your body

147
Q

Does the esophagus lie anterior or posterior to the trachea?

A

Posterior

148
Q
  1. Does it take energy to expand the lungs?
  2. Does it take energy to deflate the lungs?
A
  1. Muscles (diaphragm, intercostals) create negative pressure that fills the lungs
  2. No
149
Q

What is the function of the diaphragm?

A

Upon inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and flattens and the chest cavity enlarges. This contraction creates a vacuum, which pulls air into the lungs. Upon exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and returns to its domelike shape, and air is forced out of the lungs.

150
Q

What type of tissue lines the trachea?

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue

151
Q

The trachea bifurcates (divides) into what?

A

The right and left primary bronchi.

152
Q

Is cartilage present in the walls of the secondary (lobar) and tertiary (segmental) bronchi?

A

Yes

153
Q

What does the bicuspid valve separate?

A

L atria and ventricle

154
Q

What does the tricuspid valve superset?

A

R atria and ventricle

155
Q

tidal volume (VT or TV):

A

Amount of air exchange with a single breath under resting conditions

156
Q

inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

A

Additional air that can be inhaled over and above tidal volume

157
Q

What general name is given to the muscles that move the tongue?

A

Styloglossus muscle

158
Q

expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

A

Additional air that can voluntarily exhaled after a normal respiratory cycle

159
Q

residual volume (RV)

A

Amount of air remaining in the lungs following maximal exhalation

160
Q

vital capacity (VC)

A

Maximum amount of air that can be moved in and out of the lunch’s with a single respiratory cycle

161
Q

total lung capacity (TLC)

A

Total volume of the lungs

162
Q

Another important clinical measurement is the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1). What is the FEV1 a measure of?

A

Volume of air that can be exhaled in 1 second

163
Q

Do you think cardiovascular exercise increases VC significantly? Why or why not?

A

No, although the amount of air you’re currently consuming has gone up. As the lungs take in more air with each breath, the heart also increases its output, pumping more blood with each stroke

  • main determination is body size (large ppl = larger lungs)
  • exercise doesn’t = increased lung size
  • age and sex influence VC
164
Q

How do you calculate FEV1%?

A

FEV1% = FEV1/FVC

165
Q

Does maximal forced exhalation exhale all of the air in the lungs?

A

No

166
Q

What term is given to the volume of air remaining in the lungs after exhalation?

A

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

167
Q

Explain, in your own words, what dead air space (“anatomic dead space”) refers to.

A
  • A space that is not ventilated where air doesn’t circulate
  • air unavailable for gas exchange
168
Q

List some of the important factors that affect vital capacity and explain why they have that effect.

A
  • increase size = increase lung size
  • age = expansion and elastic recoil, decreases with age also muscle loss
  • sex = male tend to be larger and have bigger lungs and may have muscle difference.
169
Q

PRELAB The FEV1% of a healthy adult is 70-80%. Conditions that affect FEV1% include restrictive pulmonary diseases and obstructive pulmonary diseases. Explain these 2 terms, give examples of each and explain how each would affect FEV1%.

A

restrictive pulmonary disease: fibrosis (ex. Radiation), pneumoconiosis, infant respiratory distress syndrome, tuberculosis.
- individuals with restrictive pulmonary disease have an impaired ability to fully inhale/expand their lungs
- in restrictive lung diseases may appear normal or be increased more than 70% due to an equal reduction in FVC/FEV1 or a greater reduction in FVC

obstructive pulmonary disease: asthma, bronchiectasis, COPD, chronic bronchitis
- individuals with obstructive pulmonary disease have an impaired ability to fully exhale all of the air in their lungs
- in obstructive diseases, FEV1 reduction is due to the increased airway resistance to expiration flow.

153 - First Midterm (3 decks)

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