Lab Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Changes in the CBC

A

Anemia
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia

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2
Q

What is the term for a combination of anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia?

A

Pancytopenia

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3
Q

GI Reasons for Anemia

A

Alcoholism
GI blood loss
Nutritional deficiency (B12 & folate)
Alcohol as a direct toxin

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4
Q

What type of anemia is due to B12, folate, or myelodisplastic syndrome?

A

Macrocytic

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5
Q

Why does GI issues cause neutropenia?

A

Sequestering of WBC’s in the spleen because of portal hypertension

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6
Q

What is the etiology of portal HTN?

A

Cirrhosis of the liver

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7
Q

Why do GI issues cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Sequestering in the spleen secondary to portal hypertension

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8
Q

Applications of LFT’s

A

Screen for the presence of liver disease
Measure efficacy of treatments for liver disease
Monitor progression of liver disease
Reflect the severity of liver disease

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9
Q

Cons of LFT’s

A

Do not accurately reflect how well the liver is functioning
Abnormal values can be caused by disease unrelated to the liver
May be normal in advanced liver disease

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10
Q

When are enzymes released in the blood stream?

A

When hepatocytes are injured

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11
Q

What are the aminotransferases in the serum?

A
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
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12
Q

What is AST produced in?

A
Hepatocyte injuries
Cardiac muscle
Skeletal muscle
Kidney
Brain 
Pancreas
Lungs
Erythrocytes
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13
Q

Where are the highest elevations of the serum aminotransferases?

A

Viral hepatitis
Ischemic hepatitis
Toxicity

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14
Q

What can a rapid decline in serum aminotransferases a sign of?

A

Recovery

Massive destruction of viable hepatocytes signaling acute liver failure

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15
Q

Define Alkaline Phosphatase

A

Group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of organic phosphate esters at an alkaline pH

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16
Q

Where is alkaline phosphatase produced?

A

Liver
Bone
Intestinal tract (sometimes)

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17
Q

Where else can alkaline phosphates be produced?

A

Placenta in the 3rd trimester
Growing children’s bones
Metastatic bone CA
MM

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18
Q

Where is 5’-nucleotidase found?

A
Liver
Intestine
Brain
Heart
Blood vessels
Endocrine pancreas
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19
Q

What is suggested when there are elevated AP & 5’ nucleotidase levels?

A

Obstructive liver disease

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20
Q

What does Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) play a role in?

A

Amino acid transport

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21
Q

What does an elevated GGT & AP level indicate?

A

Liver disease

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22
Q

When can GGT be elevated?

A

Acute liver toxicity

Alcohol binge

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23
Q

What is elevated bilirubin due to?

A

Overproduction of bilirubin
Impaired uptake of bilirubin
Impaired conjugation or excretion of bilirubin
Backward leaking from damaged hepatocytes or bile ducts

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24
Q

What is bilirubin made from?

A

Heme metabolism

Other heme proteins

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25
Q

What does conjugated bilirubin relate to?

A

Hepatobiliary disease

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26
Q

Why does unconjugated bilirubin not get filtered by the kidneys?

A

It adheres to the albumin

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27
Q

Normal urobilinogen result on a UA

28
Q

What is the cycle of increased ammonia?

A

Catabolism of colonic bacteria in the GI tract
Enters circulation via portal vein
Intact liver clears ammonia

29
Q

What can an increased ammonia concentration lead to?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

30
Q

Define Hepatic Encephalopathy

A

Reversible impairment of neuropsychiatric function associated with impaired hepatic function

31
Q

What kind of a draw can you get an ammonia level off of?

A

Arterial draw

32
Q

What factors can result in inaccurate results?

A

Fist clenching
Use of a tourniquet
Whether sample was placed on ice or not

33
Q

What is the most important serum plasma protein?

34
Q

What does the albumin serum level reflect?

A

Rate of synthesis
Rate of degradation
Volume of distribution

35
Q

What other disorders can hypoalbuminemia reflect?

A

Systemic inflammation
Malnutrition
Chronic liver disease

36
Q

Why is the PT level measured?

A

So we don’t have to measure each of the clotting factors

37
Q

As liver disease progresses the PT should?

38
Q

What else is usually measured alongside PT?

39
Q

What is important to obtain amylase & lipase levels?

A

Correlate elevations of these enzymes with the history and clinical exam of the patient as well as with other studies

40
Q

Main Source of Amylase

A

Pancreas
Salivary glands
Kidneys
Reticuloendothelial system

41
Q

What is the function of amylase?

A

Cleave starch into smaller polysaccharides

42
Q

What inhibits the activity of lipases?

A

Bile acids

43
Q

What prevents the bile salts from degrading lipase?

44
Q

What is the function of lipase?

A

Hydrolyze triglycerides into glycerol and FFA

45
Q

What does a stool examination include?

A
Microscopic exam: RBC's, epithelial cells, WBC's, fat globules
Stool culture
Ova & Parasites x3
Clostridium difficile toxin
Testing for occult blood in the stool
46
Q

General Stool Analysis

A
Bulk
Color
pH
Osmolality
Microscopic
47
Q

What can a positive RBC level indicate?

A

CA
Infection
IBS

48
Q

What can a positive epithelial cells level indicate?

A

Irritated GI tract

49
Q

What can a positive WBC level indicate?

A

Infection

IBS

50
Q

How can you detect fecal fat in a stool analysis?

A

Sudan stain

51
Q

Increased amounts of fecal fat can indicate what?

A

Malabsorption

Pancreatitis

52
Q

Normal Microscopic Stool Analysis

A

RBCs- none
Epithelial cells- present
Charcot-Leyden crystals- parasitic infections
Neutral fat globules- 0-2+

53
Q

Color of a Stool Analysis

A
Brown- normal
Clay color- biliary obstruction
Tarry- >100 mL blood upper GI tract
Red- blood in large intestine, or undigested beets or tomatoes
Black- blood
54
Q

What are we looking for when a fecal analysis is positive for occult blood and WBC’s?

A

Bacterial etiology

55
Q

Infectious Diarrhea Etiologies

A

Viruses
Bacteria (fever)
Parasites

56
Q

When should we obtain stool cultures?

A

Immunocompromised patients
Patients with comorbidities
Patients with IBD
Patients with Severe inflammatory diarrhea

57
Q

When are routine stool cultures test for?

A

Shigella
Salmonella
Campylobacter

58
Q

When does C. difficile colitis develop?

A

Patients treated with antibiotics or hospitalized patients

59
Q

What is C. difficile also known as?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

60
Q

Treatment of C. difficile

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Oral vancomycin

61
Q

Why use oral vancomycin?

A

So it can be used by the gut

IV Vanco will not work

62
Q

When should you send a stool sample for ova and parasites?

A

Persistent diarrhea
Persistent diarrhea following travel to countries with endemic parasites such as Russia, Nepal, or mountainous regions
Persistent diarrhea with exposure to infants in daycare centers
Bloody diarrhea with few or no focal leukocytes

63
Q

H. pylori Tests

A

Endoscopic biopsy
Serologic tests
Antigen in stools
Urease breath tests

64
Q

Antigen in stools represents what

A

Active infection

65
Q

What is the urease breathe test based upon?

A

Hydrolysis of urea by H. pylori to CO2 & ammonia

66
Q

Use of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

A

Monitoring for persistent, metastatic or recurrent adenocarcinoma of colon after surgery
Determination ofprognosis for patients with colon cancer

67
Q

What is a CEA level not useful for?

A

Local recurrence or screening