Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MICROPARA LEC And LAB FINALS > Lab > Flashcards

Lab Flashcards

1
Q

The study of disease, but they involve different aspects of disease.

A

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Studies the factors that determine the frequency, distribution and determinants of diseases in human populations.

A

Epidemiologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

British physician, designed and conducted an epidemiologic investigation of a cholera outbreak in London.

A

John Snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The infectious disease is transmissible from one human to another (person to person).

A

Communicable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A communicable disease that is easily transmitted from one person to another.

A

Contagious Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Example of Contagious Disease

A

Influenza, can be transmitted through sneezing, talking and coughing (air droplets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The human acquires from animal sources.

A

Zoonotic disease (zoonosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The number of new cases of that disease in a defined population during a specific time period

A

Incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Expressed as a number of new cases of a particular disease that occurred during a specified time period per a specifically defined population. (usually per 1000, 10,000 or 100,000 population)

A

Morbidity Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

proportion of a population who have a specific characteristic

A

Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 Types of Prevalence

A

Preiod Prevalence

Point Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The number of cases of the disease existing in a given population during a specific time period

A

Period Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The number of cases of the disease existing in a given population at a particular moment in time

A

Point Prevalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  • Refers to death

* Also, known as death rate

A

Mortality Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The ratio of the number of people who died of a particular disease during a specified time period per a specified population

A

Mortality Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Levels of Disease

A

Sporadic Disease
Endemic Disease
Epidemic Disease (outbreak)
Pandemic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Occurs only occasionally within the population of a particular geographic area

A

Sporadic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

refers to a disease that occurs infrequently and irregularly

A

Sporadic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

It is always present within the population of a particular geographic area

A

Endemic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

refers to the constant presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease or infectious agent in a population within a geographic area

A

Endemic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Greater than usual number of cases of disease in particular region usually occurring within a relatively short period of time.

A

Epidemic Disease (outbreak)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

• Refers to an increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in that population in that area

A

Epidemic Disease (outbreak)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

occur when an agent and susceptible hosts are present in adequate numbers, and the agent can be effectively conveyed from a source to the susceptible hosts.

A

Epidemic Disease (outbreak)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Epidemic may result from:

A

 A recent increase in amount or virulence of the agent,
 The recent introduction of the agent into a setting where it has not been before,
 An enhanced mode of transmission so that more susceptible persons are exposed,
 A change in the susceptibility of the host response to the agent, and/or
 Factors that increase host exposure or involve introduction through new portals of entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A disease that is occurring in epidemic proportion in many countries simultaneously-sometimes worldwide.

A

Pandemic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

• refers to an epidemic that has spread over several countries or continents, usually affecting a large number of people.

A

Pandemic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Factors occurs in infectious disease

A

FACTORS PERTAINING TO THE PATHOGEN
FACTORS PERTAINING TO THE HOST
FACTORS PERTAINING TO THE ENVIRONMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  • Virulence of pathogens
  • Way for pathogen to enter the body
  • Number of organism that enter the body
A

Factors pertaining to the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  • Health status
  • Nutritional status
  • Other factors pertaining to the susceptibility of the host
A

Factors pertaining to the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  • Physical factors su8ch as geographical location, climate, heat cold humidity and season of the year.
  • Availability of appropriate reservoir
  • Sanitary and housing condition, adequate waste disposal
  • Availability of potable (drinkable) water
A

Factors pertaining to the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

6 components of Chain Infection

A 
Infectious Agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission 
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The sources of microorganism that cause infectious disease

A

Reservoir of Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

• Any site where the pathogen can multiply or merely survive until it is transferred to a host.

A

Reservoir of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

• May be a living host or inanimate objects

A

Reservoir of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Includes human, household pets, farm animals, wild animals, certain insects, and certain arachnids (ticks or mites)

A

LIVING RESERVOIRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most important reservoir of human infectious disease is other human- people with infectious

A

Human Carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A person who is colonized with a particular pathogen.

A

Carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

SEVERAL TYPES OF CARRIER

A
  1. Passive carrier
  2. Incubatory carrier
  3. Convalescent carrier
  4. Active carrier
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

• Carry the pathogen without ever having had the disease.

A

Passive carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

• A person who is capable of transmitting a pathogen during incubation period of particular infectious disease.

A

Incubatory carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

• Harbor and can transmitted a particular pathogen while recovering from an infectious disease

A

Convalescent carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

• Have completely recovered from the disease, but continue to harbor the pathogen indefinitely

A

Active carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

• Infectious disease that human acquires from animals’ sources called …

A

zoonotic disease or zoonoses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

• Acquired by direct contact with animal, by inhalation or ingestion of the pathogen or by injection of pathogen by arthropod.

A

Animal carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

• Caused by Toxoplasmosis gondii, can be contracted by ingesting oocytes from cat feces that are present in litter boxes or sand boxes as well as ingesting cysts that are present in infected raw or undercooked meats.

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

• May cause brain damage or death

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

• Serve as reservoir of infections including insects and arachnids

A

Arthropods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

• These arthropods are referred to as …

A

Vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

• Inanimate reservoir of infection includes air, soil, dust, food, milk, water and fomites

A

Nonliving reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

• Inanimate objects capable of transmitting disease

A

Fomites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

• Found within health care setting includes patients gown, bedding, towels, eating and drinking utensils and hospital equipment.

A

Fomites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

5 principal MODES OF TRANSMISSION OF PATHOGENS

A
  1. AIRBORNE
  2. DIRECT CONTACT AND INDIRECT CONTACT
  3. DROPLET
  4. VEHICULAR
  5. VECTORS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

• Involves contaminated inanimate objects such as foods, water, dust, and fomites.

A

Vehicular transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

• Are various types of biting insects and arachnids.

A

Vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Communicable disease –infectious disease that are transmitted from person to person are follows:

A
  1. Direct skin to skin contact
  2. Direct mucous membrane to mucous membrane
  3. Indirectly by airborne droplets of respiratory secretions.
  4. Indirectly by contamination of food and water by fecal material
  5. Indirectly by arthropod vectors
  6. Indirectly by fomites
  7. Indirectly by transfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

• Its mission is to promote technical cooperation for health among nations, carry out programs to control and eradicate diseases and improve the quality of human life.

A

WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  • Which assist the states and local health departments in the application of all aspects of epidemiology.
  • The overall mission is to promote health and quality of life by preventing and controlling disease, injury, and disability.
A

Center for disease control and prevention (CDC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

• Pathogenic microorganisms sometimes wind up in the hands of mentally deranged people who want to use them to cause harm to others. And the microbes are biological warfare agents

A

Biological warfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

• The member of terrorist or radical hate groups might use pathogens to create fear, chaos, illness, and death.

A

BIOTERRORISM agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Four pathogens most often use:

A
  1. Bacillus anthracis
  2. Clostridium botulinum
  3. Smallpox virus (variola major)
  4. Yersenia pestis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sources of water contamination

A
  1. Rainwater falling over the large areas collects in lakes and rivers that is subjected to contaminate by the soil microorganism and raw fecal material
  2. Groundwater from wells also can become contaminated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

this are E. coli and other lactose fermenting members of family enterobacter and kleibsiella spp.

A

Coliforms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

3 Sewage Treatment

A

Primary ST
Secondary ST
Tertiary ST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

• The sewage disposal plant, large debris is first filtered out called screening. Skimmers remove floating greases and oil and floating debris is shredded or ground

A

Primary sewage treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

• Flocculating substance can be added to cause other solids to settle out.

A

Primary sewage treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The material that accumulates at the bottom of the tank.

A

Primary sludge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Large debris is filtered out called?

A

Screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  • The liquid called the primary effluent) then undergoes secondary treatment, which includes aeration or trickling filtration.
  • The remaining liquid is filtered and disinfected usually chlorination so that the effluent water can be returned to rivers or oceans.
A

Secondary ST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  • Where water in the short supply, the effluent water from the sewage disposal plant is further treated so that it can be returned directly to the drinking water system. This is very expensive process.
  • Involves the addition of chemical, filtration, chlorination and distillation.
A

Tertiary ST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

• Any activity designed to study and or improve patient care outcomes in any type of healthcare institution or setting

A

Healthcare Epidemiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  • ACQUIRED within the hospital or other health care facilities
  • Hospital acquired infection
A

NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

• Acquired outside healthcare facilities

A

Community acquired infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

PATHOGENS MOST OFTEN INVOLVED IN NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION:

SEVEN BACTERIA OR GROUPS OF BACTERIA

A 
A. gram positive cocci= caused 34% of Nosocomial infections in US
1)	Staphylococcus aureus
2)	Coagulase-negative staphylococci
3)	Enterococcus spp.
B. Gram-negative bacilli
1)	Escherichia coli
2)	Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3)	Enterobacter spp
4)	Klebsiella spp.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

caused 34% of Nosocomial infections in US

A

Gram possitive cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

• Hard to treat as are infections caused by multidrug-resistant

A

Pseudomonas Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q 
MDRTB), vancomycin-resistant 
enterococcucos spp. 
•	(VRE) and methicillin-resistant 
•	Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
•	Staphylococcus epidermidis (MRSE)
A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

MOST COMMON TYPES OF NOSOCOMIAL INFECTIONS

A
  1. Urinary tract infection
  2. Surgical Wound infection (also referred as Postsurgical wound infections
  3. Lower respiratory tract infection (primary Pneumonia)
  4. Bloodstream infection (septicemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Other nosocomial infection

A

Gastrointestinal disease caused by Clostridium difficile (referred to as Clostridium difficile-associated disease.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

a common member of the indigenous microflora of the colon where it exists in relatively small numbers.

A

Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

two types of toxin ng clostridium difficile

A
  1. ENTEROTOXIN

2. CYTOTOXIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

• Causes disease known as antibiotic –associated diarrhea (AAD)

A

ENTEROTOXIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  • Causes a disease known as pseudomembranous colitis (PMC)

* Which section of the lining of the colon slough off, resulting in bloody stools

A

CYTOTOXIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

• Both AAD and PMC are common in hospitalized patients.

`MOST VULN

A

CYTOTOXIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

MOST VULNERABLE PATIENTS IN HOSPITAL SETTINGS

A
  1. Elderly patient
  2. Women in labor and delivery
  3. Premature infants and newborn
  4. Surgical and burn patients
  5. Diabetic and cancer patient
  6. Patient receiving treatment such as steroid, anticancer drug, antihymolytic serum and radiation
  7. Patient who are paralyzed
  8. Immunosuppressed patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

MAJOR FACTORS CONTRIBUTING TO NOSOCOMIAL INFECTIONS

A
  1. An ever-increasing number of drug-resistant pathogens
  2. the failure of healthcare personnel to follow infection control guideline
  3. An increased number of immunocompromised patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

• Support or monitor basic body function contribute greatly to the success of modern medical treatment

A

MEDICAL DEVICES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

• The single most important measure to reduce risk of transmitting pathogens from one patient to another or from one anatomic site to another on the same patients.

A

Handwashing

88
Q
  • Pertains to the numerous measures that are taken to prevent infections from occurring in healthcare setting.
  • These preventive measures include actions taken to eliminate or contain reservoirs of infection, interrupt the transmission of pathogens and protect persons (patients, employees, and visitors) from becoming infected –in short, they are ways to break various links in the chain of infection.
A

INFECTION CONTROL

89
Q
  • Father of handwashing
  • Father of hand disinfection
  • Father of hospital epidemiolog
A

IGNAZ PHILIPP SEMMELWEIS

90
Q

• British surgeon, made significant contribution in the areas of antisepsis against infection and asepsis without infection

A

JOSEPH LISTER

91
Q

• Without infection includes any action taken to prevent infection or break the chain of infection

A

ASEPSIS

92
Q

2 types of Asepsis

A

Medical Asepsis

Surgical Asepsis

93
Q
  • CLEAN TECHNIQUE,
  • INVOLVES AND PRACTICES THAT REDUCE THE number and transmission of pathogens.
  • Includes all the precautionary measures necessary to prevent direct transfer of pathogens from person to person and indirect transfer of pathogens through the air or on instrument, beddings, equipment and other inanimate objects(fomites)
  • The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude pathogens
  • Handwashing: personal grooming, proper cleaning of supplies and equipment
A

Medical Asepsis

94
Q
  • Practices used to render and keep objects and areas sterile
  • Sterile Technique
  • Goal is to exclude all microorganism
  • Practiced in operating room, labor and delivery room, certain areas of the hospital
  • Includes scrubbing hands and fingernails before entering the operating room, using sterile gloves masks, gowns and shoe covers using sterile solutions and dressing, using sterile drapes and creating a sterile field and using heat-sterilized surgical instrument.
A

Surgical Asepsis

95
Q
  • Used for the care of all hospitalized patients, regardless of their diagnosis or presumed infection status
  • Incorporate the major features of universal precaution and body substance of isolation
  • Designed to reduce the risk of transmission of blood borne and other pathogens in hospitals and apply to blood: all body fluids, secretions, and excretion except sweat, regardless of whether they contain visible blood: nonintact skin: and mucous membrane
A

STANDARD PRECAUTION

96
Q

• The most important and most basic technique in preventing and controlling infections and preventing the transmission of pathogens

A

Handwashing

97
Q
  • Used for routine handwashing, but an antimicrobial or antiseptic agent should be used in certain circumstances
  • Lathering hands should be rubbed briskly for at least 10-15 seconds
A

PLAIN SOAP (NONANTIMICROBIAL)

98
Q

• Worn when touching blood, body fluids, secretion, excretion, and contaminated items as well as just before touching mucous membrane or nonintact skin.

A

Gloves

99
Q

• Protects the wearer from large particles droplets that are transmitted by close contact and travel short distance

A

MASK, EYE PROTECTION, FACE SHIELD AND GOWNS

100
Q

has become soiled with blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretion must be handled in a manner that prevents contaminating yourself or your clothing and prevent transfer of microorganism to other patients and areas

A

PATIENT CARE EQUIPMENT

101
Q

• The hospital must have and employees must comply with adequate procedures for the routine care, cleaning and disinfection of environmental surfaces, beds, bed rails, bedside equipment and other frequently touched surfaces

A

ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL

102
Q

that have become soiled with blood, body fluids, secretion or excretion must be handled, transported and processed in a manner that prevents contaminating yourself or clothing and prevents transfer of microorganism to other patient and areas.

A

LINENS

103
Q

• Needlestick injury and injuries resulting from broken glass and other sharps are the primary manner in which healthcare professional become infected with pathogens such as HIV and HBV

A

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND BLOODBORNE PATHOGENS

104
Q

5 main routes of transmission of pathogens

A

Airborne
Droplet
Direct Contact
Indirect Contact

105
Q
  • Involves either airborne droplet nuclei or dust particles containing a p[pathogen.
  • Small –particle residues (5um or less in diameter)
A

Airborne Precautions

106
Q
  • A form of contact transmission.
  • The mechanism of transfer is quite different than either direct or indirect contact transmission
  • Produced primarily as a result of coughing, sneezing and talking as well as during hospital procedures such as suctioning and bronchoscopy.
  • Droplets larger than 5 um in diameter
A

Droplet Precautions

107
Q

• The most important and frequent mode of transmission of nosocomial infections.

A

CONTACT PRECAUTIONS

108
Q

2 groups ng contact precautions

A

Direct contact transmission

Indirect contact transmission

109
Q

• Transfer of microorganism by a body surface-t0-body surface contact

A

direct – contact transmission

110
Q

• Transfer of microorganism by a contaminated intermediate object such as instruments, needles and dressings.

A

indirect –contact transmission

111
Q

separates sick people with a contagious disease from people who are not sick. Quarantine separates and restricts the movement of people who were exposed to a contagious disease to see if they become sick

A

ISOLATION

112
Q
  • When patients with tuberculosis or other contagious diseases are placed into isolation to protect other people from becoming infected, it is known as sources isolation.
  • These isolation room are usually under negative pressure to prevent room air from entering the hallway when the door is opened and the air that is evacuated from such rooms passes through HEPA filters to remove pathogens
A

Sources of Isolation

113
Q

• Among them are patients with severe burns, those who have leukemia, patients who have received a transplant ,immunosuppressed person, those receiving radiation treatment and luekopenic patients

A

PROTECTIVE ISOLATION

114
Q
  • INCLUDES A PRIVATE ROOM IN WHICH vented air entering when the door is opened
  • The room must be thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before the patient is admitted.
  • All items coming from the patients must be disinfected or sterilized
A

TOTAL PROTECTED ENVIRONMENT (tpe)

115
Q

HANDLING FOODS AND EATING UTENSILS

A
  • using high-quality fresh food
  • Properly refrigerating and storing food
  • Properly disposing of uneaten food.
  • Properly washing, preparing and cooking food
  • Thoroughly washing hands and fingernails before handling food and after visiting restroom
  • Proper disposal of nasal and oral secretions in tissues and then thoroughly washing hands and fingernails
  • Covering hair and wearing clean clothes and aprons
  • Providing anyone with a respiratory or gastrointestinal disease from handling food or eating utensils
  • Keeping all cutting boards and other surfaces scrupulously clean
  • Rinsing and then washing cooking and eating utensils in a dishwasher in which the water temperature is greater than 80 degree Celsius.
116
Q

The following rules for handling fomites:

A
  • Use disposable equipment and supplies wherever possible
  • Disinfect or sterilize equipment as soon as possible after use
  • Use individual equipment for each patient
  • Use electronic or glass thermometer fitted with one-time use, disposable covers or use disposable, single use thermometer
  • Empty bedpans and urinals, wash them in hot water and store them in a clean cabinet between uses
  • Place bed line and soiled line clothing in bags to be sent to the laundry
117
Q

• Needles shall not be resheathed, purposely bent or broken by hand from disposable syringes or otherwise manipulated by hand

A

disposal of SHARPS

118
Q

• Composed of representatives from most of the hospital department including medical and surgical services pathology nursing hospital administration, risk management, pharmacy, housekeeping, food service and central supply`

A

ICC or Epidemiology Service

119
Q

CLINICAL MICROBIOLOGY LABORATOPRY (cml)

3 majors WAYS:

A
  • By monitoring the types and numbers of pathogens isolated from hospitalized patients
  • By notifying the appropriate ICP should an unusual pathogen or an unusually high number of isolates of a pathogen be detected
  • By processing environmental samples including samples from hospital employees that have been collected from within the affected wards.
120
Q

FOUR PERIOD OR PHASES IN THE COURSE OF AN INFECTIOUS DISEASES (IPPC)

A

Incubation Period
Prodromal Period
Period of illness
Convalescent period

121
Q
  • The time that elapses between arrival of the pathogen and the onset of symptoms.
  • The length of the incubation period is influenced by many factors, including the overall health and nutritional status of the host, the immune status of the host whether the host is immunocompetent or immunosuppressed, the virulence of the pathogen and the number of pathogens that enter the body
A
  1. THE INCUBATION
122
Q
  • The time during which the patient feels “out of sorts” but is not yet experiencing actual symptoms of the disease.
  • Patients may feel like they are coming down with something but are not yet sure what it is.
A

Prodromal Period

123
Q
  • THE time during which the patient experiences the typical symptoms associated with that particular disease. Ex: sore throat, headache, sinus congestion)
  • Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted during this third period
A
  1. THE PERIOD OF ILLNESS
124
Q
  • The time during which the patient’s recovers
  • For certain infectious diseases, especially viral respiratory diseases, the convalescent period can be quite long.
  • For example: brain damage may follow encephalitis or meningitis, paralysis may follow poliomyelitis and deafness may follow ear infections.
A

CONVALESCENT PERIOD

125
Q
  • The pathogens are not contained at the original site of infection, they may be carried to other parts of the body by way of lymph, blood or in some cases, phagocytes
  • The disease may remain localized to one site it may spread. Pimples, boils, and abscesses
A

LOCALIZED INFECTIONS

126
Q
  • When the infection has spread throughout the body
  • Generalized infection. For example; the bacterium that causes tuberculosis- Tuberculosis –may spread to many internal organs, a condition known as military tuberculosis.
A

SYSTEMATIC INFECTION

127
Q

• Has a rapid onset, usually followed by a relatively rapid recovery, measles, mumps and influenza are examples

A

ACUTE DISEASE

128
Q
  • An insidious (slow) onset and lasts a long time; examples are tuberculosis, leprosy (Hansen disease) and syphilis
  • Sometimes the diseases having a sudden onset can develop into a long lasting disease
A

CHRONIC DISEASE

129
Q

• Some disease, such as bacterial endocarditis, come on more suddenly than a chronic disease, but less suddenly than an acute disease

A

SUBACUTE DISEASE

130
Q

SYMPTOMS OF A DISEASE

A
  • Some evidence of a disease that is experienced or perceived by the patient; something that is subjective
  • Examples of symptoms include any type of ache or pain, a ringing in the ears (tinnitus) ) blurred vision, nausea ,dizziness ,itching and chills.
  • Disease including infectious diseases may either ASYMPTOMATIC AND SYMPTOMATIC
131
Q

• Clinical disease, disease in which the patient is experiencing the symptoms

A

SYMPTOMATIC DISEASE

132
Q

• Subclinical disease, a disease that the patient is unaware of because he or she is not experiencing any symptoms

A

Asymptomatic disease

133
Q
  • Some type of objective evidence of a disease. For example: while palpating a patient, a physician might discover a lump or an enlarged liver (hepatomegaly) or spleen(splenomegaly)
  • It includes abnormal heat or breath sound, blood pressure, pulse rate and laboratory results as well as abnormalities that appear on radiographs, ultrasound studies or computed tomography.
A

SIGN OF DISEASE

134
Q
  • An infectious disease may go from being symptomatic to asymptomatic and then some time later, go back to being symptomatic
  • For ex. Herpes virus infection such as colds sores (fever cluster), GENITAL HERPES INFECTION and shingles
A

LATENT INFECTIONS

135
Q

• One infectious disease may commonly follow another m in which case the first disease.

A

Primary infection

136
Q

second disease

A

Secondary infection

137
Q

STEPS IN THE PATHOGENESIS OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES

A

ENTRY of the pathogen into the body

ATTACHMENT OF THE PATRHOGEN TO SOME TISSUES WITHIN THE BODY

MULTIPLICATION OF THE PATHOGEN

INVASION OR SPREAD OF THE PATHOGEN

EVASION OF HOST DEFENSE

DAMAGE TO HOST TISSUES

138
Q
  • Pathogenic

* Sometimes used to express a measures or degree of pathogenicity

A

Virulence

139
Q
  • Capable of causing disease

* Ex: Corynebacterium diphtheria= strains that produce diphtheria toxin

A

Virulent strains

140
Q
  • Not of capable of causing disease

* Nontoxigenic strains are not

A

AVIRULENT STRAINS

141
Q
  • THESE STRAINS ARE CONSIDERED MORE VIRULENT THAN THE STRAINS OD S. PYOGENS THAT DO NOT PRODUCE ERYTHROGENIC TOXIN
  • The cause of scarlet fever
A

ERYTHROGENIC TOXIN

142
Q
  • The physical attributes or properties of pathogens that enable them to escape various host defense mechanisms and cause disease
  • Are phenotypic characteristics that like all phenotypic characteristics are dictated by the organism genotype.
  • Toxins are virulence factors.
A

VIRULENCE FACTORS

143
Q

• Are Integrin, are used to describe the molecule on the surface of a host cell that a particular pathogen is able to recognize and attach to.

A

Receptors

144
Q
  • And Ligand, used to described the molecule bon the surface of a pathogen that is able to recognize and bind to particular receptor.
  • Example; the adhesion on the envelope of HIV that recognize and binds to the CD4 receptor, a glycoprotein molecule designated gp120
A

Adhesin

145
Q
  • Long, thin, hair like, flexible projections composed primarily of an array of proteins called pilin.
  • Fimbriae are considered to be virulence factors because they enable bacteria to attach to surfaces, including various tissues within the human body.
A

BACTERIAL FIMBRAIE (PILI)

146
Q
  • Certain pathogen must live within host cells to survive and multiply
  • Ex; Rickettsia and Chlamydia
  • Also known as obligate intracellular parasites
A

OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR PATHOGENS

147
Q

invade and live within endothelial cells and vascular smooth muscle cells.
Capable of synthesizing proteins, nucleic acids and adenosine triphosphate (ATP), but are thought to require an intracellular environment because they possess an unusual membrane transport system; they are said to have leaky membranes.,

A

Rickettsia

148
Q

• Ehrlichia Spp. Live within the monocytes, causing a dsease known as human monocytic ehrlichosis (HME).

A

INTRALEUKOCYTIC PATHOGENS

149
Q
  • APHAGOCYTOPHILUM lives within granulocytes, causing a condition known as human anaplasmosis (formerly called human granulocytic ehrlichiolosis or (HGE).
  • They live within erythrocytes
A

INTRAERYTHROCYTIC PATHOGENS

150
Q
  • Facultative intracellular parasites
  • Capable of both an intracellular and extracellular existence
  • Can be grown i9n the laboratory on art6ificial culture media
  • Able to survive within phagocytes
A

FACULTATIVE INTRACELLULLAR PATHOGENS

151
Q
  • Consider to be the virulence factors because they serve an and phagocytic function.
  • They protect encapsulated bacteriua from being phagocytized by phagocytic white blood cells
  • Ex: Klebsiella pneumonia, H. Influenza and N. Meningitides, yeast, Cryptococcus neoformans.
A

Capsules

152
Q
  • Considered virulence factors because flagella enable flagellated (motile) bacteria to invade aqueous areas of the body that nonflagellated (nonmotile) bacteria are unable to reach
  • Also enable bacteria to avoid phagocytosis –it is more difficult for phagocytes to catch a moving target
A

Flagella

153
Q
  • Major mechanism by which pathogens cause disease
  • Toxins that they produce
  • Ex. S. pyogens = produce exoenzymes and toxins
  • Includes necrotizing enzymes, coagulase, kinase, hyaluronidase, collagebase, hemolysis and lecithin’s.
A

Exoenzymes

154
Q
  • Pathogens produce exoenzymes that destroy tissues.
  • Examples; notorious = are the flesh-eating strains of S. pyogens which produce protease and other enzymes that cause very rapid destruction pf soft tissues, leading to a disease called necrotizing fasciitis.
  • Clostridium species that cause gas gangrene (myonecrosis) produce a variety of necrotizing enzymes, including protease and lipase.
A

NECROTIZING Enzymes

155
Q
  • An important identifying feature od S. aureus in the laboratory is its ability to produce a protein
  • Binds to prothrombin, forming a complex called staphylothrombin
  • May able the S. aureus to clot plasma and thereby to form a sticky coat of fibrin around themselves for protection from phagocytes, antibodies and other host defense mechanism.
A

COAGULASE

156
Q
  • Also, known as Fibrinolysis
  • Have the opposite effect of coagulase.
  • Sometimes the host will cause a fibrin clot to form around pathogens in an attempt to wall them off and prevent them from invading deeper into body tissues.
A

Kinases

157
Q
  • The name of kinase produced by streptococci

* It has been used to treat patients with coronary thrombosis

A

Streptokinase

158
Q

• Name of kinase produced by staphylococci

A

Staphylokinase

159
Q
  • THE SPREADING FACTOR
  • Sometimes called enables pathogens to spread through connective tissue by breaking down hyalunoric acid.
  • The polysaccharides cement that holds tissue cells together
A

HYALURONIDASE

160
Q

• Secreted by several pathogenic species of Staphylococcus. streptococcus, and clostridium.

A

HYALURONIDASE

161
Q
  • Produced by certain pathogens breaks down collagen

* This enables the pathogens to invade tissues

A

COLLAGENASE

162
Q

• Enzymes that cause damage to the hosts red blood cells. (erythrocytes)

A

HEMOLYSIS

163
Q
  • Breakdowns phospholipids called the lecithin
  • Ex. C. perfringens produced this enzyme
  • This enzyme is destructive to cell membranes or red blood cells and other tissues.
A

LECITHINASE

164
Q

• The ability of the pathogens to damage host tissues and cause disease may depend on the production and release of various type of poisonous substances

A

Toxins

165
Q

TWO MAJOR CATEGORIES of Toxins

A

ENDOTOXINS

EXOTOXINS

166
Q

• Are integral parts of the cell walls of Gram-negative bacteria, can cause a number of adverse physiologic effects.

A

Endotoxins

167
Q

referred to as sepsis, very serious disease consisting of chills, fever, prostration (extreme exhaustion) and the presence of bacteria or their toxins in blood stream cause by gram-negative bacteria

A

Septicemia

168
Q

substance that cause fever

A

Pyogen

169
Q

a life –threatening condition resulting from very low blood pressure and an inadequate blood supply to body tissues and organs especially the kidneys and the brain.

A

Shock

170
Q

the type of shock that results from Gram- negative sepsis. Symptoms include reduced mental alertness, confusion, rapid breathing, chills, fever, and warm flushed skin.

A

Septic shock

171
Q
  • Toxins that are produced within cells and then released from the cells
  • Poisonous protein that are secreted by a variety of pathogens; they are often named for the target organs that they affect.
A

Exotoxin

172
Q

AFFECT THE central nervous system.

A

Neurotoxins

173
Q
  • Toxins that affect the gastrointestinal tract, often causing diarrhea and sometimes vomiting
  • Example: Bacillus cereus, E. coli, Clostridium defficile C. perfrigens, salmonella, shigella .V cholera and S. aureaus.
A

ENTEROTOXINS

174
Q
  • Epidermolytic toxin

* Causes the epidermal layers of the skin to slough away, leading to a disease known as sclded skin syndrome

A

EXFOLIATIVE Toxins

175
Q
  • Toxin that destroy white blood cells (leukocytes)
  • Produced by some staphylococcus, streptococcus and clostridia.
  • Cause destruction of the very cells that the body sends to the site of infection to ingest and destroy pathogens
A

LEUKOCIDINS

176
Q
  • Collected from patients and used to diagnose or follow the progress of infectious diseases
  • Sent to the clinical microbiology laboratory (CML)
A

Clinical Specimen

177
Q

Types of Specimens

A 
Blood
Urine
Cerebrospinal fluid 
Sputum
Throat swab
Wound specimens
GC cultures
Fecal Specimens
178
Q

Usually sterile

A

Blood

179
Q

refer to the bloodstreams, the presence of something in bloodstream

A

Emias

180
Q

presence of bacteria in bloodstream

A

Bacteremia

181
Q

a serious disease characterized by chills, fever, prostration and the presence if bacteria or their toxins in the bloodstream

A

Septicemia

182
Q

refers to the presence of toxins in bloodstream

A

Toxemia

183
Q

presence of fungi

A

Fungemia

184
Q

presence of virus

A

Viremia

185
Q

presence of parasites

A

Parasitemia

186
Q

a specific type of septicemia in which in the bloodstreams contains Neisseria meningitides

A

Meningococcemia

187
Q

proliferation of abnormal white blood cells. known causes by viruses.

A

Leukemia

188
Q

• Sterile while in the urinary bladder, during urination it becomes contaminated by microflora of the distal urethra.

A

Urine

189
Q

refers to the fact that the area around the external opening of the urethra is cleansed by washing with soap and rinsing with water before urinating.

A

Clean catch

190
Q

refers to the fact that the initial portion of the urine stream is directed into a toilet or bedpan and then the urine stream is directed into a sterile container.

A

MIDSTREAM

191
Q

bacteriologic loop that has been manufactured so that it contains a precise volume of urine.

A

Calibrated loop

192
Q

3 parts of urine culture

A

Colony count
Isolation and Identification of pathogen
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing

193
Q

way of estimating the number of viable bacteria that are present in the urine specimen

A

Colony count

194
Q

presence of bacteria in urine

A

Bacteriuria

195
Q
  • Referred to as spinal fluid

* Perform by the physician

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

196
Q

inflammation or infection of membranes (meninges) that surrounds the brain and spinal column

A

Meningitis

197
Q

inflammation or infection of the brain

A

Encephalitis

198
Q

inflammation or infection of both

A

Meningoencephalitis

199
Q

• Pus that accumulate deep within the lungs of a patient with pneumonia, tuberculosis, or other lower respiratory infection.

A

Sputum

200
Q

• Collected to determine whether a patient has strep throat.

A

Throat swab

201
Q

• Aspirate a pus that has been collected using a small needle and syringe assembly rather than a swab specimen

A

Wound specimen

202
Q

• Gonococci culture, like N. gonorrhea = a fastidious bacterium that is microaerophilic and capnophilic

A

GC cultures

203
Q

a fastidious bacterium that is microaerophilic and capnophilic

A

Gonorrhea

204
Q
  • Stool specimen
  • Collected at the laboratory and processed immediately to prevent a decrease in temperature which allows the Ph to drop ,causing the death of many
A

Fecal specimen

205
Q

physician who has had extensive, specialized training in pathology

A

Phatologist

206
Q

study of the structural and functional manifestation of the disease.

A

Phatology

207
Q

Types of Pathology

A

Anatomical pathology

Clinical pathology

208
Q

• They perform autopsies in the morgue and examine diseases organs, stained tissues sections, and cytology specimens

A

Anatomical pathology

209
Q

• This are the clinical microbiology laboratory

A

Clinical pathology

210
Q

specialized scientist such as chemist and microbiologist who have graduated degrees in their specialty areas

A

Clinical pathologist

211
Q

Medical technologist, who have 4 years baccalaureate degrees

A

Clinical laboratory scientist

212
Q

have 2 years associate degrees

A

Clinical laboratory technicians

213
Q

• CML is to assist clinicians in the diagnosis of bacterial diseases

A

BACTERIOLOGY SECTIONS

214
Q

• ASSIST CLINICIAN in the diagnosis of fungal infection

A

MYCOLOGY SECTION

215
Q

• Assist clinician in the diagnosis of parasitic disease

A

Parasitology section

216
Q

• Primary responsibility of diagnosing the tuberculosis and all the mycobacterium spp.

A

Microbacteriology Section

217
Q

• Assist clinician in the diagnosis of viral disease

A

Virology section

MICROPARA LEC And LAB FINALS (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions