L7 MHD: Gram + Rods Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key characteristics of Bacillus?

  • Spore forming?
  • Gram negative or Positive?
  • Shape?
  • Aerobic or anaerobic?
  • Motility?
A
  • Spore forming gram positive rod that is widespread in nature
  • Prefers aerobic conditions
  • Motile except for B. anthracis
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2
Q

Bacillus anthracis is a ___________ biothreat agent. What disease does it cause?

What are three ways to get this disease? (three I’s)

A

-Category A biothreat agent that causes Anthrax

Disease is caused by:

  • Inoculation- 95%- contaminated soil or infected animal products
  • Ingestion
  • Inhalation- Wool Sorter’s Disease, processing goat hair, biological weapons (damn terrorists)
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3
Q

_________________ are organisms/biological agents that pose highest risk to national security and public health beacause they can be easily disseminated or transmitted from person to person, result in high mortality rates and have potential for major health impact, might cause public panic and social disruption, and require special action for public health preparedness.

A

Category A Pathogens

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4
Q

Describe cutaneous anthrax infection in humans.

  • ___________ papule
  • ___________ surrounded by vesicles
  • ___________ Eschar
  • _______% mortality
A

Painless papule, ulcer surrounded by vesicles, necrotic eschar, 20% mortality

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5
Q

GI Anthrax

  • Where does upper GI anthrax present? Lower GI?
  • What are the symptoms of lower GI anthrax infection?
  • What is the mortality rate?
A
  • Upper GI anthrax infection: ulcers in the mouth & espophagus
  • Lower GI: terminal ileum most commonly affected, nausea/vomiting, malaise, bloody diarrhea
  • 100% mortality
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6
Q

Inhalation Anthrax

  • What are the initial symptoms?
  • What happens in the second stage?
  • What disease is a rare consequence of inhalation anthrax? What symptoms occur in 50% of patients?
  • What occurs within 3 days unless treatment is initiated immediately?
A

There is a prolonged latent period (2 months or more) and the initial symptoms are non-specific
-Fever, SOB, cough, HA, vomiting, chills, chest & abdominal pain

Second stage: rapid worsening fever, edema, and enlargement of mediastinal lymph nodes (responsible for the widened mediastinum observed on chest X-Ray)

  • Pulmonary disease is rare, meningeal symptoms occur in 50% of patients
  • Shock & death occurs within 3 days unless treatment is initiated immediately
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7
Q

Widened mediastinum is observed on a chest X- ray. What do you suspect is the causative agent?

A

Inhalation anthrax

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8
Q

How do the following contribute to anthrax’s pathogenesis?

  • Capsule?
  • Edema toxin?
  • Lethal toxin?
  • Protective AG?
A
  • Capsule: inhibits phagocytosis of replicating cells
  • Edema toxin: fluid accumulation
  • Lethal toxin: stimulates macrophages to release tumor necrosis factor and IL-1Beta
  • Protective AG: binds specific cell surface receptors that enable ET & LT to enter the cell
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9
Q

Following a gram stain, that showed gram + box car shaped bacilli, you get the results of a biochemical test that are as follows:

  • Motility- negative
  • Non-hemolytic
  • PCN susceptible
  • What bacterium do you suspect?
A

Anthrax

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10
Q

What 4 sites can you get culture from for anthrax diagnosis?

A

Skin, blood, sputum, CSF

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11
Q

What is the preferred treatment for anthrax? What do you use when anthrax is of possible terrorist origin because of manipulated resistance?

-How long does prophylaxis for inhaled anthrax occur?

A

Preferred treatment: PCN

  • Use ciprofloxacin or doxycycline if you suspect manipulated PCN resistance
  • Prophylaxis for inhalation- 60 days
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12
Q

What are 4 ways of getting a Bacillus Cereus infection? How is it diagnosed?

A

4 ways of getting bacillus cerrus are:

  1. food poisoning (caused by exotoxins- there’s an emetic and diarrheal form)
  2. ocular infections
  3. central line infections (contaminated lines must be removed)
  4. opportunistic infections

-Bacillus cereus is diagnosed with a culture from the eye, wound, or implicated food product

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13
Q
Key Characteristics of Listeria
Spore forming?
Gram positive or negative?
Shape?
Habitat?
A
  • Non-spore forming gram-positive rod

- Habitat: animals, environment, refrigerated foods

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14
Q

This bacteria is found in soil, stream water, and sewage. It’s part of the fecal flora of many animals. Plants, meats and dairy can be contaminated via the water or animal feces and patients may get sick due to consumption of undercooked and unpasteurized foods. There’s a small % of asymptomatic human fecal carriage. This describes the epidemiology of what bacteria?

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

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15
Q

What bacteria can infect patients from “ready to eat” foods and smoked seafoods? What other foods can be contaminated?

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

-Soft cheese, veggies, and cold cuts at the deli counter can also be infected

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16
Q

What is the Pathogenesis of Listeria Monocytogenes?

  • Invade what cells?
  • What does bacteria to produce to escape phagosomes?
  • What gene causes host cell actin to be utilized to move bacteria into adjacent cells without exposure to the immune system?
A
  • Bacteria invades epithelial cells, M Cells, and macrophages by internalin protein
  • Bacteria are engulfed in vacuole
  • Bacteria produce listeriolysin and phospholipases that allow it to escape from the phagosome
  • Encoded by ActA gene, which causes host cell actin to move bacteria into adjacent cells without exposure to the immune system
17
Q

How important is humoral immunity for listeria pathogenesis? What type of patients are particularly susceptible to severe infections?

A
  • Humoral immunity is relatively unimportant because bacteria move within cells, thus avoiding antibody-mediated clearance
  • Patients with defects in cellular immunity but not humoral immunity are particularly susceptible to severe infections
18
Q

How are early-onset listeria infections acquired in neonates?

  • How are late-onset listeria infections acquired in neonates?
  • How does the disease present in the elderly?
  • Pregnant women/patients with cell-mediated immune defects?
A
  • Early onset in neonates: acquired transplacentally in utero, characterized by disseminated abscesses and granulomas in multiple organs
  • Late onset in neonates: acquired at or shortly after birth presents as meningitis with septicemia
  • Elderly: typically influenza-like illness with or without gastroenteritis
  • Pregnant women/pts with cell-mediated immune defects: primary bacteremia or disseminated disease with hypotension/meningitis
19
Q

. Listeria Diagnosis:
Culture comes from: ________, ______, _________
-grows ____ days
-________ hemolytic, similar to Group B strep

Gram stain?

Biochemical tests:

  • Catalase?
  • Motility? What temp is it non-motile at? What type of motility does it demonstrate?
A

Culture from blood, CSF & fluids

  • Grows 1-2 days
  • Beta hemolytic

Gram positive rods

Catalase positive- one way to differentiate it from Streptococcus
Tumbling motility- motile at RT
Non-Motile at 37 C
Demonstrates umbrella motility

20
Q

What do you treat Listeria with? What antibiotic is it resistant to? High risk patients should avoid what?

A
  • Treat with PCN or ampicillin +/- gentamicin
  • Resistant to ALL cephalosporins
  • High risk patients should avoid eating raw, partially cooked foods of animal origin, soft cheese, and unwashed raw vegetables and fruits (cantaloupe)
21
Q

What are the key characteristics of Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae?

  • _________ gram positive ___ that form long filaments (hairlike)
  • Oxygen consumption?
  • Fast or slow growth? How many days for incubation?
  • Hemolysis?
  • What do colonies look like?
  • Catalase test?
  • Motility?
  • Produces what on triple sugar iron agar (TSI)?
A
  • Pleomorphic gram positive rods that form long filaments
  • Microaerophilic or facultative anaerobe, weakly fermentive
  • Slow growth, requires 2-3 days incubation
  • Alpha hemolytic
  • Small gray colonies
  • Catalase negative
  • Non-motile
  • Produces H2S on triple sugar iron agar
22
Q

E. rhusiopathiae is found ubiquitously where?

  • What is more common- animal disease or human disease?
  • Where is the disease recovered from in mammals, birds and fish?
  • Colonization is high in what two animals?
  • How are human infections typically acquired?
A
  • Found ubiquitously in soil & groundwater worldwide
  • Animal disease is widely recognized, human disease is uncommon
  • Recovered from tonsils & digestive tract of mammals, fish, and birds
  • Colonization is high in swine and turkey
  • Human infection acquired from animals, primarily occupational: butchers, meat processors, farmers, poultry workers, fish handlers, and veterinarians.
23
Q

Erysipeloids & a less common septicemic form are indicative of what disease? Where do these symptoms present?

A

E. Rhusiopathiae

  • Cutaneous infections typically develop after the organism is inoculated subcutaneously
  • Two forms of human infection: Erysipeloid & Septicemia
  • Erysipeloid: localized skin infection, on fingers or hands and appears violaceous with a raised edge. Slowly spreads peripherally as discoloration fades. Suppuration is uncommon (separates this from streptococcal erysipelas)
  • Septicemic form: uncommon, when present frequently associated with endocarditis
  • Penicillin is the abx of choice
24
Q

What pleomorphic gram positive rods resemble Chinese letters?

A

Corynebacterium

25
Q
Key Characteristics of Cornebacterium:
Aerobic or anaerobic?
Colony appearance?
Hemolytic properties?
Commonly called what?

What are the two important species?

A
  • Grows aerobic or facultatively anaerobic
  • Small white non-hemolytic colonies
  • Commonly called diptheroids

Two important species: Corynebacterium Diptheriae & Corynebacterium Jeikeium

26
Q

Corynebacterium is ubiquitous in what? Where in humans does it colonize?

A
  • Ubiquitous in plants and animals

- Colonizes in skin, upper respiratory tract, GI tract, urogenital tract

27
Q

Key Characteristics of C. diphtheria

  • How is the infection transmitted?
  • Etiologic agent of what?
  • How prevalent is it in the US?
  • A potent exotoxin causes the disease. What do its 2 subunits do?
  • How is the toxin gene carried?
A

-Infection transmitted by respiratory droplets or direct contact with cutaneous infection
-Etiologic agent of diphtheria
-Rare disease in U.S. due to immunization
– Ab produced against toxin in natural infection
– Vaccinate with toxoid = formalin treated toxin
– Re-vaccinated every 10 years

-Disease caused by potent exotoxin&raquo_space; inhibits protein synthesis of eukaryotic cells
-Two subunits of toxin
– A = shuts off protein synthesis
– B = binds to cell receptor
-Toxin gene carried in bacteriophage

28
Q

Pharyngitis with patchy exudates on tonsils, uvula, and soft palate are clinical manifestations of what disease? Where else can this infection spread to?

A

Clinical manifestation of C. diphtheria

  • Pharyngitis with patchy exudates on tonsils, uvula, soft palate
  • Tough gray pseudomembrane consists of fibrin, white cells, bacteria, debris&raquo_space; respiratory obstruction and suffocation
  • Toxin circulates to heart&raquo_space; injury
  • Toxin circulates to CNS&raquo_space; reversible paralysis
29
Q

How is C. diphtheria diagnosed and treated?

A

-Diagnosed by clinical evaluation. There’s no rapid lab test.

-Must notify lab to look at throat cultures for diphtheria
→Grow organism on selective agar
→Prove presence of toxin

Treat with antitoxin and penicillin/erythromycin

30
Q

Key Characteristics of C. jeikeium
-What kinds of patients does it affect?
Isolated from where?
Organisms are resistant to most antibiotics except which one?

A
  • Infects immunocompromised patients
  • Isolated from blood cultures, catheter lines, skin
  • Colonies are slow to grow on agar media
  • Organisms are resistant to most antibiotics, except VANCOMYCIN
31
Q

Key Characteristics of Arcanobacterium Hemolyticum

  • Spore forming? Shape?
  • Catalase test?
  • ________-Hemolytic, colonies appear similar to what group?
  • Isolated mostly from _________________ presenting with what?
A
  • Non-spore forming Gram-Positive rod producing irregular, club-shaped, curved or V formation.
  • Catalase negative
  • Beta hemolytic- colonies appear similar to beta hemolytic group A Strep on blood agar
  • Isolated mostly from ** young adults** 15-25 years old, presenting with symptomatic pharyngitis, fever, occ. Cutaneous rash, some with pseudomembranes pharynx/tonsils, and submandibular lymphadenopathy
  • May also be isolated from wound, abscesses, and blood of patients with septicemia and endocarditis
32
Q

Key Characteristics of Lactobacillus

  • Spore forming? Shape?
  • Normally found where?
  • Preferred growth environment?
  • ________________ pathogen
A
  • Non-spore forming Gram positive rod
  • Normal flora of oral cavity, vaginal tract
  • Found in food products (yogurt)
  • Prefers carbon dioxide or anaerobic atmosphere
  • Opportunistic pathogen (sepsis, endocarditis)
33
Q

Key Characteristics of Aerobic Actinomycetes

Aerobic, gram-________, catalase-__________ rods that can colonize animals and humans and are commonly found in soil and decaying vegetation.

What diseases are associated with the following Actinomycetes:
Nocardia?
Rhodococcus?
Tropheryma?

A
  • Gram positive, catalase positive
  • Nocardia: pulmonary disease, 1o or 2o cutaneous infections; 2o CNS infections (common)
  • Rhodococcus: Pulmonary diseases, opportunistic infect. (e.g., wound infect., peritonitis, traumatic endophthalmitis (uncommon diseases)
  • Tropheryma: Whipple’s Disease (common)
34
Q

What are the key characteristics of Nocardia? How many species?

Gram-_________, partially _____-_______ rods; cell wall with ________ acid

-Strict ___________, will grow on most __________ agars, prolonged ____________ (7 days or more may be required)

A
  • 11 species
  • Gram-positive, partially acid-fast rods; cell wall with mycolic acid
  • Strict aerobe, will grow on most nonselective agars, prolonged incubation (7 days or more may be required)
35
Q

Nocardia- Epidemiology

  • Where is it distributed worldwide?
  • How are exogenous infections acquired?
  • Disease is most common in what patient subtype?
  • What 3 disease are associated with Nocardia?
  • What is the primary treatment for Nocardia infections?
A
  • Distributed in the soil worldwide
  • Exogenous infections are acquired by inhalation (pulmonary) or traumatic introduction (cutaneous)
  • Disease most common in immunocompetent patients with chronic pulmonary disease or immunocompromised patients with T-cell deficiencies
  • 3 Diseases: bronchopulmonary disease, primary/secondary cutaneous infections, secondary CNS infections (brain, abscesses)
  • Infections are treated with abx therapy (usually sulfonamides) and proper wound care