L4 - IS-LM Model Flashcards
What are the 3 ways if expressing equilibrium in Keynesian cross?
•The first way: Output = aggregate demand:
Y=C+I+G
•The second way: Output = national income, hence:
C+S+T=Y=C+I+G
S+T=I+G
•The third way: Output = national product, hence:
C+Ir+G=Y=C+I+G
Ir(real)=I(desired)
What does the Keynesian Model of Aggregate Expenditure and Model of Savings look like?
MPC +MPS = Y –> when there is no government
MPC+MPS = YD –> when there is government
How can we derive the Aggregate Expenditure Equilibrium mathematically?
Y=C+I+G
C=a+bYd=a+b(Y-T)
Where: T denotes lump-sum taxes. Therefore:
Y=a+bY-bT+I+G
or
Y=1/(1-b)∗(a-bT+I+G)
Where 1/1-b is the expenditure multiplier
Multiplier for government consumption: ∆Y/∆G=1/(1-b) and for taxes ∆Y/∆T=-b/(1-b)
Implication: balanced-budget multiplier
∆Y/∆G+∆Y/∆T=1/(1-b)+(– b/(1-b))=1
as the government wants taxes (revenue) and their expenditure to be equal, this multiplier demostrates that if they were to increase their taxes my £1 this will lead to an increase in expenditure by £1 leading to an increase in output by £1
What does Mario Draghi say about the effect of Uncertainty and Monetary Stimulus on Aggregate Expenditure Equilibruim?
Mario Draghi –> President of the European Union
- Uncertainty –> US v China Trade War, Turkey and Syria War, Brexit - this is leading to uncertainty not only in the domestic country, but globally too –> this is causing people to save and investment fall as consumer and business confidence is falling causes a reduction in Aggregate Demand and Output
- Also if confidence is low, even if government introduce monetary and fiscal policies, their potency will be greatly effected by expectations (not stimulate AD)
- This is causing the economy to slow down especially in manufacturing where investment is needed the most right now
- Monetary Stimulus –> QE - increase liquidity in the economy, by buying securities from commerical banks so they have excess cash to provide low credit to consumers and business to spend more this can also be done via, lowering interest rates
How can you derive the IS curve without government ?
Using S+T=I+G
- Assume we have no government - so no taxes or government spending so S=I
- When Keynes started creating the Investment-Savings model he believe that the money market/money supply has an effect on income, this is done via the interest rate –> he wanted to see how interest rates effected income and aggregate demand in the goods market
Investment Schedule:
- Investment is negatively related to interest rates –> as interest rates rise the cost of investment rises
Savings Schedule:
- We have a upwards savings function as savings increases with income, as investment is equal to savings, if investment has fallen there will be fall in savings due to an increase in interest rates –> thus income also falls
IS curve:
- by plotting the corresponding interest rates and income equilibrium points you will be able to connect the points and derive the negative gradient IS curve
What factors affect the slope of the IS Curve without the government?
- When the Investment schedule is steep (interest elasticity of investment is low) –> investment has a low senstivity to interest rates meaning that a change in interest rate causes only a small change in investment spending
- This means that with a fall in interest rates we will only see a slight increase in savings and in turn, only a small increase in income
- This means that any form of monetary policy will have only a small impact of AD
- In turn monetary policy will have a larger impact if investment is more senstive to interest
How do you derive the IS curve with the government?
Including the government now, we see equilibrium in the market occur at I + G = S + T
- We still derive the same result but adding the government sector shift the relative position of each curve –> the Investment Schedule shifts out because of the additional spending from the Goverment sector
- The savings function no longer depends on income as we have included taxes it is based on disposable income, as disposable income is less than normal due to taxes we save less for each level of interest thus the Savings Schedule moves in
What causes a shift in the IS schedule?
- Any of the Autonomous factors
- Any changes in exogenous consumption (a), Taxes (T), Government Spending (G), Investment (I)
- A shift in G and I doesnt cause a shift in the Savings Function just movement up it –> just require more income based on the formula because we have increase a component of AD
- If Taxes increase there will be no shift in the Investment Schedule as there is no tax component –> as taxes take away from income however there will be a shift inwards of the Savings Schedule
How can you derive the IS schedule algrebraically?
I+G=S+T
Saving function:
S=-a+(1-b) Yd=-a+(1-b)(Y-T)
•Investment function:
I=I(bar)-i1r
•where i1>0.
I(bar)-i1r+G=-a+(1-b)(Y-T)+T
•Rearranging the equation we get:
Y=1/(1-b)(a+I(bar)+G-bT-i1 r)
What is the LM Curve?
Wh=B+M
- Keynes argued that you can hold your assets in either money assets or non-money assets ( for a simplification we just say bonds)
- Money assets are liquid e.g. currency, government securities and gives no interest
- non-money assets e.g. bonds, they are risky but earn interest
- Liquidity preference – Keyne’s term for the demand for money relative to bonds.
- if we have equilibrium in the bond market we will have equilibrium in the money market and vice versa –> you are getting your desired amount of both money and bonds, if for example you want to hold more money assets, this means there isnt enough money supply for you thus the money market isnt in equilibrium and the bond market isnt in equilibrium because you are demand more money so more bonds are being supplied than demanded
- Two ways of presenting the equilibrium. Walras Law – equilibrium in one market implies an equilibrium in another so we just look at one. We look at only one in the money.
- Equilibrium occurs when money supply equals money demand
- money supply is fixed by the policy maker so is vertical
- money demand is downwards slowly as it has a negative relationship with interest rates
What are the Motives for demanding money?
Money demand (holding money):
- Transaction Demand
- Precautionary Demand
- Speculative Demand
What is Transaction Demand?
- This is the money held by people to buy goods and services
- It is said to be positively related to income as the more income we have the more transactions we are likely to make
- however when your receipt of money and expenditure of money are synchronised, ( you are receiving and spending money on the same day) –> their will be less incentive to hold money, thus less transactionary demand
- However if you hold it and gradually spend over the month till you get you next paycheck their is more need to hold money
- However their is an opportunity cost of holding money which is the interest rate, as you could be investing it –> so their is a negatively relationship between the interest rate and transactionary demand, thus as interest rises people want to hold less money
What is Precautionary Demand?
- As we cannot predict all of our transaction, we hold money for these unforeseen events and emergencies
- their is a great similarity between transaction demand, one is known the other is not.
- this also means that it is postively related to income and negatively related to interest rates
What is Speculative Demand?
- Because of the relationship between bond prices and the rate of interest
- in this model you can either hold money assets or bonds, as the rate of interest increases the price of decreases leading more people to hold them over money, thus if you are holding a bond and the interest rate falls you can make a captial gain –> it is this capital gain/loss on assets where the speculative part comes in
- in order for individual to determine whether bond prices will go up or down, people with have a notion of what they think the interest rate should be, thus if they think it will rise they will hold money, if it will fall they will hold bonds
What does Speculative Demand look like on a graph?
Looking at an the individual graph first:
- above rin (what people consider the normal rate of interest), people will hold bonds as people believe the interest rate will fall leading to a capital gain –> no speculative demand for money
- still will hold bonds between rin and ric (critical rate of interest where any change in price is offset by a change in interest) as even if interest rates rise they known their price of bond will fall, but as they are so close to rin they believe the increase in interest rates will outway any capital loses
- Any point at or below ric people believe interest will rise so everyone hold hold money
When combining all these points for every individual and plotting them on a graph we get the Aggregative Speculative demand for Money:
- At very low rates of interest we run into a liquidity trap –> people want to hold money as interest rates are well below ric and everyone expects the interest rate to rise
- here the demand for money is very responsive to a change in interest rate, as any increase in interest will always lead to a greater capital losee
- but their is enough money supply for everyone to do so
How can Total Demand be wrote mathematically?
Mi=Mi1+Mi2
(transaction demand + speculative demand)
Whi=Mi+Bi
Total demand for money:
Md=L(Y,r)
Md= c0+c1Y-c2r,
c1,c2>0
How do you derive the LM schedule?
- Money supply is fixed (usually by the central bank) thus is vertical
- at r0 the money demand is Md(Y0) and their is equilibrium in the market when M0s=Md(Y0)
- When incomes rise money demand increases because we have a positive relationship between money demand and income, this causes the interest rate to rise
- as money supply is fixed, when money demand rises it is greater than money supply, to equilibriate this in the market interest rates must rise to lower the demand ( as transactionary and precautionary demand is negatively related to income) so we get a shift up Md(Y1) to the equilibrium point at B
- By plotting the the equilibrium points at various level of income and connecting them we get the LM schedule
- c1/c2 –> slope of the LM curve (rate of change)
How does interest elasticity of money demand affect the slope of the LM curve?
- The slope of the LM curve depends of c1
- at higher levels of c1 money demand reacts greatly to a change in income this means their need to be an small shift in interest rates to equilibriate the market, this causes the money demand and the LM curve to be very flat as interest rates are sensitive to a change in demand
- at lower level of c1 money demand isnt effected as greatly by an increase in income so the change in interest rate to accommodate any changes is very large as money is not sensitive to a change in interest rate, causing the money demand and LM curve to be alot steeper
- in the graphs below this occurs with the same change in income
What are two extreme cases that effect the slpope of the LM curve?
When c2 is 0:
- If c2 is 0 the value of -c2r = 0 giving the equation for money supply to be c0 +c1 Y –> we have no interest
- this means that money demand is not responsive to interest rates at all (only depends on income), meaning we only have one level of money demanded in the market
- This is because if income rose, there isnt nothing to equilibriate the market, thus their is only one level of money demand which is equal to money supply
- This gives us a vertical value fo LM
When c2 is very high (c2 –> ∞):
- Their is now a curve in the money demand curve
- This has a similar explanation to speculative demand, in that at low level of interest rates more money is demanded –> at low levels of income when income rises, only a small increase in interest is needed to equilibriate the market (money demand is very responsive to changes in interest rates) , but at at higher levels a larger change in interest rates are needed
- This curves a curved LM curve