L2. Immunopathology: Allergy and Hypersensitivity Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of immune hypersensitivities. Describe each one briefly

A
  1. Immediate hypersensitivity mediated by mast cells and IgE causing ALLERGY to exogenous antigens (anaphylaxis) <30 minutes
  2. Antibody (cytotoxic) mediated hypersensitivity caused by IgM and IgG raised against cell bound or extracellular antigens to target and kill the cells. 5-12 hours
  3. Immune complex hypersensitivity: IgM and IgG and their antigens form complexes that get deposited leading to damaging inflammation. 3-8 hours.
  4. Delayed type immune hypersensitivity: CD4 (T cell) mediated sensitivity to kill the target cells
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2
Q

What are the two types of hypersensitivities that cause allergy?

A

Types I and Types IV

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3
Q

Define allergy

A

An immune mediated inflammatory response raised against common environmental antigens that are otherwise harmless.

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4
Q

What is atopy? And what is the major consequence of IgE?

A

Atopy is a genetic predisposition to produce abnormally high levels of IgE. IgE mediates inflammatory responses by increasing eosinophil production (parasitic infections). Eosinophils release toxic granules that are the effector cells of allergy and harm the host. These secrete factors like IL-4 which prime for the TH2 response.

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5
Q

Hypersensitivities have two major phases. What are they?

A
Sensitisation phase where the immune response is primed against the antigen
Response phase  (which often have immediate and delayed stages) which is what mediates the inflammation
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6
Q

What are some common characteristics of allergens? Give some examples. What is the significance of these characteristics?

A

They are often common to the environment (repeated exposure). They are usually inhaled or ingested allergens and are slowly degraded molecules (persist). They are often soluble so can cross mucosal barriers and often introduced at small doses leading to a ‘tickling’ or priming of the immune response. Eg. pollen, dust mites, food. These characteristics are common to parasitic infections - TH2 response.

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7
Q

Describe the sensitisation phase of Type 1 Hypersensitivity

A

The antigen is taken up by dendritic cells which matures and processes the antigen while migrating to the lymph node. It presents it to immature T cells which leads to the production of Th2 helper cells (skewed by the microenvironment of IL-4).
Th2 helper cells produce high amounts of IL4,5, 13
Activated Th2 helper cells interact with B cells to enable their activation and proliferation
IL-4 induces isotype switching to IgE and IgE secretion

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8
Q

What is the significance to IL-4 secretion in the Th2 response in type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

It promotes eosinophil and mast cell activation

It promotes isotype switching to IgE

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9
Q

What is the major source of IL-4 in the Th2 response? Knowing that DCs are unable to produce IL-4.

A

IL-4 is critical to shaping the response to Th2. The major source of IL-4 is from basophil which are also directly activated by the allergens leading to secretion of IL-4. (Basophils may also act as APCs).
DCs secrete high numbers of IL-33 which binds to IL-33 receptors on Basophils and this binding acts as a signal 3 in T-cell differentiation.

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10
Q

Describe the Response (effector) phase of type 1 hypersensitivity

A

This is the activation of mast cells and eosinophils.
Mast cells degranulate leading to multiple effects through different time periods (see lecture 1) and local inflammation.
Eosinophil activation (late response) produces toxic proteins and free radicals responsible for tissue damage and remodelling.

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11
Q

What is the normal eosinophilic response and production?

A

Eosinophis are found in the mucosal lining and play a protective role against parasites. They are normally under tight regulation but this is lost in allergy.
They are produced in the bone marrow and released into the circulation. Production and survival is increased by IL-5 and chemokines attract them to the tissues. In allergy, they have increased FcER1 expression (so have a decreased threshold for activation)

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12
Q

Describe some symptomatic treatments for type 1 hypersensitivity allergies [4]

A

Adrenaline is used for anaphylaxis and asthma which reforms the tight junctions in the mucosal layers and reverses permeability as well as relaxing the smooth muscle.
Inhaled beta-adrenoreceptor agonists act as bronchodilators and are important in asthma
Antihistamines bind and block histamine receptors
Corticosteroids: have a broad immunosuppressive action:

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13
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of corticosteroid use?

A

Corticosteroids suppress chronic inflammation and tissue damage (blocks gene transcription) but is non-specific and has multiple side effects: demineralisation, skin thinning, weight gain and tolerance over time.

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14
Q

Describe immunotherapy/desensitisation methods for type 1 hypersensitivity

A

This involves administration of increasing doses of the allergen to achieve a tolerance. It isn’t widely known how this occurs but may be due to decreased allergen proliferation (anergy of cells), diverting cytokines from Th2, stimulation of apoptosis, production of Treg cells and TGFb and IL-10.

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15
Q

Describe the delayed type hypersensitivity response (type IV)

A

This is cell mediated with a heavy involvement of T cells and macrophages. (Th1r response with release of IFN gamma) - sometimes involves CD8 and cytotoxicity. s,

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16
Q

What are the three major types of cell-mediated inflammations in type IV hypersensitivity

A

Hypersensitivity is often a result of persistent antigen exposure

  1. Contact sensitivity to strong antigens
  2. Persistant infection
  3. Consistent exposure to antigens
17
Q

Describe the sensitisation phase of type IV hypersensitivity

A

This is the priming of the adaptive immune response. Which occurs in the same process as normal (ie. Antigen uptake, presentation and Th1 priming).
The PERSISTENCE of the antigen to cause multiple rounds results in the accumulation of macrophages and T cells, high levels of TNF alpha and IFN gamma and increased tissue damage and inflammation. These lead to production of memory cells.

18
Q

Not all allergens are protein based. How does the body mount an adaptive immune response to these allergens?

A

The small allergens HAPSONATE (somehow attaches to a protein) and enables it to be presented as a peptide antigen to be a target to the immune cells.

19
Q

Describe the effector phases of contact sensitivity. Give some examples

A

Re-exposure to the allergen results in re-activation of effector memory T cells that leads to increased production of IFN-gamma due to the Th1 response.
IFN-gamma increases the activation and recruitment of macrophages (which increases IFN-gamma)
Macrophages lead to excessive immune responses and inflammation.
EXAMPLES: poison ivy causing dermatitis,

20
Q

Describe the effector phases of the hypersensitivity in persistent infections (TB)

A

An inability to clear the organism leads to persistent activation of the immune response. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a facultative intracellular bacterium that survives and replicates inside macrophages. Infection stimulates production of Th1 cells and the production of more macrophages and IFN-gamma.
High macrophages means high macrophage mediated release of factors like IL-8, IL-1, TNF alpha al leading to endothelial activation, phagocyte and lymphocyte migration, fever, weight loss, GRANULOMA FORMATION (TNF-alpha).
The granuloma in an important response to protect the body from the hypersensitivity

21
Q

Describe the effector phase of the type IV hypersensitivity occurring in continued exposure to the allergen. Eg. Coealic disease

A

Coealic disease is caused by constant exposure to wheat products causing a Th1 dependent immunopathology on the intestinal wall.
The allergen: gluten (gliadins) in wheat, rye and barely
The gliadins cause the sensitisation phases as normal leading to expression of the antigen on MHCII proteins to TH1 cells .
Thus activation of memory cells to exposure to gluten leads to cytotoxic inflammatory effects on the small intestine: hyperplasia, villi dysfunction (poor absorption of nutrients) and diarrhoea.

22
Q

What is the significance of the DQ2 HLA for MHC II for coealic disease sufferers?

A

> 90% of the sufferers have the DQ2 positive MHCII HLA haplotype which means they create autoantibodies to the gliadins.
Gliadins are rich in glutamine (positive charge) while the MHC II of DQ2 preferes negative chains.
The immune system targets the antigen swithcing it by an enzyme tissue called TRANSGLUTAMINASE 2 which is widely distributed in the intestinal lamina propria which deaminates it and causes glutaminde (negative charge).