L12: Classification of Microorganisms Flashcards

1
Q

taxonomy definition

A

the science of classifying organisms by degree of similarities among them

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2
Q

taxonomy nomenclature

A

provides universal names for organisms
provides reference for identifying new organisms

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3
Q

systematics/phylogeny definition

A

study of the evolutionary history of organisms

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4
Q

true or false: bacteria and archaea, the 2 prokaryotes, share many similarities

A

false; bacteria and archaea differ in biochemistry, function, and etc.

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5
Q

true or false: archaea are more similar to eukaryotes than either are similar to bacteria

A

true; see tree of life diagram

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6
Q

endosymbiotic theory

A

eukaryotes came from prokaryotes that mutated and got ingested/infected by other prokaryotes, becoming endosymbionts; first began with bacteria evolving into mitochondria and chloroplasts

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7
Q

what is the evidence for endosymbiotic theory?

A

mitochondria and chloroplasts share similarities w/ bacteria:
- contain 70S ribosomes
- have tiny circles of DNA
- divide via binary fission
- share the first amino acid (Formylmethionine)

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8
Q

phylogenetics pt. 1

A

each species retains some characteristics of its ancestor

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9
Q

phylogenetics pt. 2

A

grouping organisms by common properties implies that a group of organisms from a common ancestor

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10
Q

phylogenetics are based on…

A

anatomy
fossils
rRNA seq similarity

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11
Q

scientific nomenclature

A

is binomial: genus + specific epithet
italicized OR underlined
genus is ALWAYS capitalized
specific epithet is ALWAYS lowercase

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12
Q

taxonomic hierarchy: phylum to species

A

phylum
class
order
family
genus
species

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13
Q

classification definition

A

placing organisms in groups of related species

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14
Q

identification definition

A

matching characteristics of an “unknown” organism to lists of known organisms

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15
Q

prokaryotic species definition

A

a population of cells with similar characteristics

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16
Q

culture

A

a population of bacterial cells grown in laboratory media

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17
Q

clone

A

population of cells derived from a single cell

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18
Q

strain

A

genetically different cells within a clone in which strains are differentiated based on the 16S ribosome

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19
Q

how do strains differ from species?

A

strains are closely related enough to where they are considered the same species, but have some genetic differences

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20
Q

strain example

A

harmless lab E. coli strains vs. E. coli O157:H7

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21
Q

do bacteria have kingdoms?

A

no; bacteria and archaea are domains

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22
Q

in the domain eukarya, what are the 4 kingdoms?

A

animalia
plantae
fungi
protista

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23
Q

animalia traits

A

multicellular
NO cell walls
chemoheterotrophic

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24
Q

plantae traits

A

multicellular
cellulose cell walls
photoautotrophic (mainly)

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25
Q

fungi traits

A

multi- OR uni-cellular
chitin cell walls
develop fr. spores, hyphal fragments

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26
Q

protista traits

A

wide variety
grouped into clades by rRNA

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27
Q

what is special about protists/protozoans?

A

protista is the “miscellanous” category for eukaryotes that do NOT fit the criteria for the other kingdoms

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28
Q

eukaryotic species definition

A

a group of closely-related organisms that breed among themselves
most are diploid or polyploid; most reproduce sexually

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29
Q

eukaryotes being diploid or polyploid, and able to reproduce sexually limits interbreeding to…

A

only eukaryotic organisms that are closely related

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30
Q

viral species definition

A

population of viruses w/ similar characteristics that occupy a particular ecological niche

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31
Q

what is special about viral species?

A

viral species are hard to classify

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32
Q

what are the 3 main identification methods?

A

analyzing morphological characteristics
differential staining
biochemical tests

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33
Q

morphological characteristics

A

useful for identifying eukaryotes
somewhat useful for bacteria and viruses

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34
Q

differential staining

A

includes Gram staining, acid-fast staining
useful for identifying bacteria

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35
Q

biochemical tests

A

determines presence of bacterial enzymes

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36
Q

what are the identification methods for bacteria?

A
  1. metabolic biochemical tests
  2. immunoassays
  3. flow cytometry
  4. protein profiling by mass spectrometry
  5. fatty acid profiling
  6. bacteriophage typing
  7. DNA methods
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37
Q

metabolic biochemical tests

A

require growing bacteria in a culture from a sample

38
Q

immunoassays

A

the most common diagnostic test
uses antibodies
can identify antigens (bacteria) based on what antibodies are produced, etc.

39
Q

flow cytometry

A

uses differences in electrical conductivity between different types of cells
in some cases, are part of immunoassays

40
Q

how does flow cytometry identify microbes?

A

differential fluorescence in cells; can be produced by staining w/ fluorescent dye that stains some cells but not others
fluorescence = signifier of infection

41
Q

how is flow cytometry incorporated into immunoassays?

A

cells can also be labeled w/ an antibody that selectively binds some cells; the antibody can be attached to a fluorescent dye

42
Q

protein profiling by mass spectrometry

A

cellular proteins are profiled chemically and compared to known standards for particular bacterial stains

43
Q

fatty acid profiling

A

AKA fatty acid methyl esters
compares differences in FA profiles to standards

44
Q

bacteriophage typing

A

an older, now less-used method
set of phages (viruses) infects a bacterial strain to determine the strain identity

45
Q

phage

A

viruses that attack bacteria

46
Q

what is the mechanism of phage typing?

A

some strains of a bacterial species will be sensitive to a particular phage, and others will be resistant

47
Q

how to use phage typing?

A

know which bacteria are sensitive and which are resistant to a set of well-characterized phage so you can use the phages to identify the bacteria in an unknown sample

48
Q

clear spots signify that…

A

the strain is extremely sensitive to that phage

49
Q

partially clear spots signify that…

A

the strain is partially resistant

50
Q

opaque spots signify that…

A

the strain is completely resistant to that phage

51
Q

DNA methods

A
  • DNA fingerprinting methods
  • rDNA sequencing
  • hybridization
  • whole genome sequencing
52
Q

DNA methods: rDNA sequencing

A

identifies bacteria via the 16S rDNA gene (ribotyping); is amplified by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

53
Q

DNA methods: older methods such as ______ and ________ are being phased out

A

DNA fingerprinting
DNA base composition

54
Q

DNA methods: DNA fingerprinting

A

electrophoresis of restriction enzyme digests

55
Q

DNA methods: DNA base composition

A

measures % of G + % of C (GC%); bacteria have very low to very high ranges of GC%

56
Q

DNA methods: DNA hybridization

A

requires a “DNA probe”

57
Q

serological tests (immunoassays)

A

uses antibodies (AKA immunoglobulins)

58
Q

what are the main types of immunoassays/serological tests?

A
  1. slide agglutination test
  2. ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
59
Q

slide agglutination test

A

latex beads w/ a known antibody attached are combined on a slide w/ a sample containing the unidentified organism
various subtypes of this test can be used for specific properties (enzymes, proteins, etc.)

60
Q

slide agglutination test: if the test antibodies recognize “epitopes” in the sample…

A

large aggregates of latex + antibody bound to the recognized organism will be formed

61
Q

a positive slide agglutination test appears…

A

slightly translucent and foamy; expanded

62
Q

a negative slide agglutination test appears…

A

mostly white and opaque

63
Q

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

A

uses 2 antibodies and an enzyme substrate in a dish to identify the antigen/organism

64
Q

ELISA: general steps?

A

-known “primary” antibodies attached to dish
- a positive reaction results in the organism/antigen being captured by the antibody

65
Q

ELISA: constant region definition

A

the Y-shaped structure where the antibodies “stick”

66
Q

what are the 2 main types of ELISAs?

A

“sandwich”
direct

67
Q

what is the target in each type of ELISA?

A

sandwich = antigen
direct = antibody

68
Q

when an ELISA is used to determine if a patient has been exposed to and begun to respond to a pathogen, what type of ELISA is used?

A

antibody-capture, direct ELISA

69
Q

when an ELISA is used to determine if a patient has an active infection of a pathogen, what type of ELISA is used?

A

antigen-capture, indirect/sandwich ELISA

70
Q

when an ELISA is used to determine if a patient has been exposed to and begun to respond to a pathogen, the “bait” bound to the wells of the assay dish is…

A

antigen from the pathogen

71
Q

when an ELISA is used to determine if a patient has an active infection of a pathogen, the “bait” bound to the wells of the assay dish is…

A

prepared (primary) antibody that recognizes the pathogen

72
Q

when an ELISA is used to determine if a patient has an active infection of a pathogen, the secondary antibody used for detection in this type of assay must recognize and bind specifically to the…

A

human antibody constant region

73
Q

when an ELISA is used to determine if a patient has an active infection of a pathogen, the secondary antibody used for detection in this type of assay must recognize and bind specifically to the…

A

antigen from the pathogen

74
Q

ELISA Method A - Sandwich: step 1?

A

attach known “primary” antibody to the bottom of the dish

75
Q

ELISA Method A - Sandwich: step 2?

A

add antigen; antigen will bind to the primary antibody

76
Q

ELISA Method A - Sandwich: step 3?

A

add secondary antibody

77
Q

ELISA Method A - Sandwich: step 4?

A

if the organism/antigen has bound to the primary antibody, the secondary antibody is captured

78
Q

ELISA Method A - Sandwich: step 5?

A

secondary antibody covalently links to an enzyme

79
Q

ELISA Method A - Sandwich: step 6?

A

substrate is added, and serves as a colorimetric indicator; goes through a color change once catalyzed by enzyme

80
Q

ELISA Method B - direct: step 1?

A

attach antigen to the bottom of the dish

81
Q

ELISA Method B - direct: step 2?

A

add antibodies (patient serum)

82
Q

ELISA Method B - direct: step 3?

A

add secondary antibody that binds specifically to human antibodies

83
Q

ELISA Method B - direct: step 4?

A

secondary antibody covalently links to an enzyme

84
Q

ELISA Method B - direct: step 5?

A

add substrate; will connect to enzyme
enzyme substrate is a colorimetric indicator

85
Q

what is the difference between the sandwich and direct ELISA?

A

sandwich: antigen capture (entire or part of the antigen)
- use antibody –> capture antigen
direct: antibody capture
- use antigen –> capture antibody

86
Q

western blot

A

use of gel electrophoresis to transfer proteins to determine the presence of antigens

87
Q

modern classification is heavily dependent on…

A

nucleic acid sequence (genome, rRNA)

88
Q

nucleic acid hybridization

A

a DNA probe is hybridized to the denatured total DNA of an organism
the probe is tagged with a marker that allows it to be visualized

89
Q

in nucleic acid hybridization, how is the probe generated?

A

PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
chemical synthesis

90
Q

as new biotechnology develops and improves, older methods are…

A

being phased out and replaced by sequencing