L1 Central Dogma of Molecular Biology and Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of nucleic acids?

A

storage (in mostly DNA, retrovirus useRNA), expression and transmission of hereditary info

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2
Q

What are nucleotides?

A

monomeric units of DNA and RNA

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3
Q

what is the structure of a nucleotide (common to all)?

A

phosphate group linked by a phosphoester bond to a pentose sugar that is linked to an organic base

Ph –[PhE bond]–pentose—base

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4
Q

where is the phosphate esterified to and how?

A

the C5’ of pentose sugar by ester bond (phosphoester bond)

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5
Q

where does the N-glycosidic bond attach?

A

to the 1’ position of the sugar in both DNA and RNA

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6
Q

if the C2’ position of the pentose sugar has a hydroxyl group, what does that mean?

A

it is a ribonucleotide – ribose was used as sugar in this example

it would be deoxyribonucleotide is there was hydroxyl group…

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7
Q

what is the structure of purines and what are examples?

A

bicyclic

adenine and guanine

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8
Q

what is the structure of pyrimidine and what are examples?

A

6 member ring

uracil, thymine, cytosine

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9
Q

what bases are found in DNA?

A

A,T,G,C

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10
Q

what bases are found in RNA?

A

A,T,U,C - uracil replaces thymine

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11
Q

what catalyzes phosphodiester bonds?

A

DNA/RNA Polymerase … also, by DNA Ligase (+ATP)

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12
Q

The 5’ ____ group of one residue becomes linked to the 3’___ group of the next.

A

CH2, OH

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13
Q

what does the directionality of the phosphodiester bond tell us?

A

that polynucleotides have one end that is a 5’ phosphate and the other end is a 3’ OH

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14
Q

are sugar phosphate backbones hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

hydrophilic (water loving) - N and O atoms on the base edges may interact with surrounding water molecules!

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15
Q

Are the faces (flat sides) of the sugar phosphate backbones hydrophillic or hydrophobic?

A

hydrophobic - they interact with one another and produce base stacks which are physically and chemically stable (no free space between) = good interactions!

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16
Q

what is the charge of the phosphate backbone at physiological pH?

A

negatively charged

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17
Q

how many hydrogen bonds does G and C have?

A

3

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18
Q

how many hydrogen bonds does A and T have?

A

2

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19
Q

what are 2 characteristics of the two right handed helical polynucleotide chains in DNA?

A

complementary and anti-parallel

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20
Q

where do the DNA strands make contact and where?

A

through H bonds formed at the hydrophillic edges of bases

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21
Q

between what base pairs does DNA hydrogen bonding occur effeciently?

A

between A and T, G and C

*the bases can only pair this way if the 2 chains that contain them are anti-parallel to eachother = complementary

22
Q

what is Chargaff;s Rule?

A

calculate the amount of bases…

35% A - then you have 35% T and 15% C and 15% G

23
Q

What is the structure of mRNA and what is the function?

A

linear, single-stranded molecule
carried codon info for translation

ribose instead of deoxyribose - you have an 2’OH group

24
Q

what does RNAse enzymes do?

A

they want to destroy RNA because its only meant to be a messenger… they shouldn’t be around for a long time
human mRNA - used and degraded within hours to day
bacterial mRNA - used and degraded within minutes

25
Q

the DNA code of an individual is relatively ___ for the lifetime of the organism

26
Q

what are the post-transcriptional modifications of mRNA in Eukaryotes?

A
  1. transcription by RNA polymerase II
  2. addition of 5’ cap
  3. Addition of 3’ poly A tail
27
Q

What are the steps involved with capping the 5’ mRNA in eukaryotes by the addition of a 7-methyl-guanosine?

A
  1. phosphatase removes 1 phosphate group from the 5’ end of the nascent RNA
  2. 5’ to 5’ triphosphate linkage (unusual to eukaryotes) - guanyl transmethyl transferase
  3. methylated
  4. methylated again
28
Q

what is the function of the 7-me G-5’ mRNA cap?

A
  1. regulates export of mRNA out of the nucleus - mature mRNA is exported in complexes that contain cap binding complex (CBC) at the 5’ end and RNA binding proteins along the rest of the sequence - no capping, no export
  2. required for the efficient translation of the mRNA into protein – the CBC facilitates recognition by the translation initiation machinery
  3. CAP and the CAP binding protein slows 5’ degradation of the mRNA–blockage of the de-capping enzymes to the cap increased half life of mRNA
29
Q

what are the functions of the 3’ mRNA poly A tail?

A
  1. increases the half life of the mRNA by protecting it from enzymatic degradation in the cytoplasm - poly A binding protein (PABP) binds to poly A tracts, aids in transcription termination, protects mRNAs from ribonuclease attack.
  2. PABP interacts with stuff at the 7-Me-G CAP - aids in export of the mRNA from nucleus, promotes the circularization of eukaryotic mRNAs which stimulates translation
30
Q

protein coding sequences (exons) of eukaryotic genes are interrupted by what?

A

non-coding sequences (introns)

*note both introns and exons are transcribed, but introns are spliced out…

31
Q

how large can introns be?

A

10 - 100,000 bp

32
Q

when does most mRNA splicing take place?

A

transcription

33
Q

where does mRNA splicing take place?

A

splice junctions located on the 5’ and 3’ end of the intron

34
Q

what is a consensus sequence?

A

6-8 conserved nucleotides of the splice site

35
Q

what does the 5’ splice donor sequence always have?

A

GU sequence

36
Q

what does the 3’ splice acceptor always have?

A

AG sequence

37
Q

how many introns does each splicing event remove?

A

1 intron per splicing event

38
Q

how does intron removal begin?

A

cleavage at the 1st intron/exon junction (5’) = lariat structure

39
Q

how does the lariat structure form?

A

the 5’ splice donor links to the invariant A within the intron

40
Q

what holds everything together during intron removal/lariat structure etc.?

A

spliceosomes!

41
Q

what percent of human genes are spliced in alternative ways? What does this allow?

A

60%
production of a different set of mRNAs - different proteins to be produced from the same gene!
- altered function, tissue-specific isoforms, alt. intracellular localization, membrane-bound and soluble isoforms

-1 gene, many proteins = alt. splicing!

42
Q

what is RNA editing?

A

when a codon within mRNA can be edited — Change C to U etc.
Example - Apo-B100 (CAA -glutamine) and Apo-B48 (UAA - termination codon=shorter)

43
Q

what does RNA Polymerase I do?

A
  • rRNA genes (nucleoli)
  • most abundant RNA in cells
  • protein synthesis machinery
44
Q

what does RNA Polymerase II do?

A
  • mRNA from all protein-coding genes and some snRNAs

- inhibited by alpha-amanatin (poison deathcap mushroom)

45
Q

what does RNA polymerase III do?

A
  • tRNA genes and some snRNAs
  • 2nd most abundant RNA in cells
  • tRNA is the adaptor molecule between nucleic acids and peptide
46
Q

what are the eukaryotic promoters?

A
  • CAAT
  • TATA (most common)
  • GC Box
  • they bind to transcription factors, not to RNA polymerase II directly…
47
Q

what does eukaryotic RNA polymerase require?

A

transcription factors

- cannot bind DNA alone

48
Q

what are enhancer sequences?

A

can also affect transcription - proteins bind to them

may be very far away but they can function by DNA looping

49
Q

when are most TF released?

A

prior to transcription initiation

50
Q

what are the roles of enhancers in increases basal levels of transcription?

A
  • cis-acting DNA sequences on the same chromosome
  • increase rate of transcription by RNA pol II
  • bind to a type of TF called an activator using its sequences called ‘response elements’
  • by bending/looping, the DNA activators can interact with both the enhancer sequence and TFs and RNA pol II at promoters and stim. transcription
  • sequences far away can help regulate a gene
51
Q

how is mature mRNA exported to the cytoplasms from the nucleus?

A

via nuclear pore – to be translated into a protein