KV Study Guide 2019 Flashcards
1
Q
Why is important that only displays 2 and 3 are showing on initial power-up?
A
DC power only simulates an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY. During this condition with no assistance from
the RAT, the batteries will supply essential loads for 10 minutes. If more than displays 2 & 3 are
showing during initial power up, then the electrical load is increased thus decreasing the amount of time
the batteries will supply power during an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY.
2
Q
Why must battery voltage be checked before applying AC power?
A
Battery voltage must be checked before applying AC power to receive an accurate display of the
battery voltage. Once AC power has been applied, the voltage displayed on the MFD is the voltage of
the AC source (GPU/APU).
3
Q
If Battery 1 is showing 22.5 volts and Battery 2 indicates 21.4 volts, what action must the pilots
take?
A
Voltage less than 22.5v and greater than 21.0v: Recharge the batteries prior to takeoff through any AC
source, including the engines during taxi. (SOPM 4-1.8)
4
Q
What is the purpose of charging the batteries prior to takeoff?
A
To ensure the batteries will supply essential loads for at least 10 minutes during an ELECTRICAL
EMERGENCY.
5
Q
What should the pilot check prior to conducting a fire panel test? Why?
A
Verify there are no fire protection fail messages displayed on the EICAS after power up. (SOPM 4-1.9)
(SOPM 4-1.32) If there are active fire protection faults, an effective test of the fire detection and
protection system is not possible.
6
Q
Describe the items associated with a successful fire test on the overhead panel.
A
Overhead Panel: Fire Handles illuminated, Cargo Smoke FWD & AFT buttons illuminated, APU button
illuminated, Upper half of the APU Emergency Stop Button illuminated. (SOPM 4-1.9)(AOM V2
14-07-30)
7
Q
How do you determine if the AC power supplied by the GPU is within proper limits?
A
AC GPU icon on Electric Synoptic page is green. If any output is invalid or out of range, the digits are
replaced by three amber dashes. (AOM V2 14-05-05.9) GPU button on overhead panel illuminates
AVAIL when AC power quality requirements are satisfied. (AOM V2 14-05-10.3)
8
Q
Upon establishing AC power on the aircraft, what test should automatically start?
A
Electric PBIT. (SOPM 4-1.12)
9
Q
Is the electrical PBIT required to complete every flight?
A
No
10
Q
When do the amber IDG lights illuminate?
A
“HOTLOP” – Hot Oil Temperature / Low Oil Pressure. When the IDG oil pressure drops below 140 psi ±
25 psi, or the oil temperature reaches 335°F ± 10°F (168°C ± 5°C), the EICAS message IDG 1(2) OIL is
displayed and an amber LED illuminates near the IDG selector knob on the overhead panel. (AOM V2
14-05-05.8)
11
Q
With the GPU switch pushed in and reading “AVAIL,” what buses are being powered?
A
All BUSES. The AC GPU can supply power to all AC BUSES. (AOM V2 14-05-10.1) The DC BUSSES
are also powered through the use of TRUs. (Schematic AOM V2 14-05-40.6)
12
Q
The IDG’s are capable of supplying how much power (to the electrical system)?
A
Both IDGs are rated at 40 kVA, 115 VAC, 400 Hz, three-phase. (AOM V2 14-05-10.1)
13
Q
Why is the switch position for Battery 2 labeled “AUTO” instead of “ON?”
A
During the APU starting cycle, BATT 2 is isolated from the network, powering the APU START BUS
exclusively. (AOM V2 14-05-10.2)
14
Q
If Battery 2 is inoperative, is there any way to start the APU?
A
Yes. The DC GPU is used to start the APU when the #2 battery is no longer available or the battery
temperature is below -20°C. The DC GPU supplies between 24 VDC – 32VDC. (AOM V2 14-05-15.3)
15
Q
What kind of batteries are installed on the ERJ?
A
Two NiCd 22.8 VDC, 27 A. (AOM V2 14-05-15.2)
16
Q
What is the total fuel capacity on the ERJ?
A
20,935 lbs. 3,094 US Gallons. (AFM 2-36.1)(SOPM 2-4.3)
17
Q
Is the usable fuel quantity any different if the aircraft is gravity refueled?
A
No. The wing fuel tanks may be partially or completely refueled using the gravity fuel port located on
top of each wing. (AOM 14-10-10.11)
18
Q
Can the aircraft be refueled without AC power?
A
Yes. Pressurized refueling is performed with the airplane energized either by AC or battery power.
(AOM V2 14-10-10.11)
19
Q
What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump?
A
One DC fuel is installed only in the right wing tank. It provides pressurized fuel for normal APU
operation and engine start, when AC power or the AC fuel pump is not available. (AOM V2 14-10-10.5)
20
Q
What is the maximum fuel imbalance? When does the EICAS message appear for an imbalance?
A
Maximum Fuel Imbalance 794 lbs. (SOPM 2-4.3) The EICAS CAUTION message FUEL IMBALANCE
appears when fuel imbalance reaches 800 lbs. (AOM V2 14-10-10.8)
21
Q
What happens when you move the crossfeed switch to the LOW 1(2) position?
A
LOW 1: Crossfeed valve opens, and AC PUMP 2 activates feeding both engines from wing tank 2.
LOW 2: Crossfeed valve opens, and AC PUMP 1 activates feeding both engines from wing tank 1.
(AOM V2 14-10-10.6)
22
Q
During single engine operations, how would the pilot correct a fuel imbalance situation?
A
The same as two engine operations, by selecting LOW 1 or LOW 2 with the crossfeed selector knob.
(AOM V2 14-10-10.6)
23
Q
When should you declare minimum fuel? Emergency fuel?
A
Declare minimum fuel when the estimated fuel remaining on touchdown, at the airport of intended
landing, is less than 45 minutes of fuel endurance (2,250 lbs). Declare emergency fuel when the
estimated fuel remaining on touchdown, at the airport of intended landing is less than 30 minutes of
endurance (1,500 lbs). (SOPM 5-1.2 & 5-1.3)
24
Q
When will the FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS message extinguish?
A
The EICAS CAUTION FUEL IMBALANCE will extinguish once the imbalance is reduced to 100 lbs.
(AOM V2 14-10-15.1)
25
If the engines burn fuel evenly, what is the most likely way of getting into a fuel imbalance
condition?
Running the APU is the most likely way of getting into a fuel imbalance condition.
26
Why do we use the term crossfeed and not crossflow?
Crossfeed permits fuel supply to both engines from one tank to correct and avoid a fuel imbalance
condition. Crossflow permits fuel to flow between fuel tanks. ERJ aircraft do to posses crossflow
capability.
27
Is it possible to get the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL warning message and not be in a low fuel
condition?
Yes. Each wing tank has a dedicated Fuel Low Level sensor located in the wing collector box that is
independent of the fuel quantity indication system. Whenever the fuel level in the collector box is below
the sensor level (660 lbs in normal conditions), it triggers the FUEL LO LEVEL WARNING EICAS
message. This message can occur spuriously when flying with high pitch and/or bank angles.
If any scavenge pumps stop transferring fuel to the collector box (engine failure, loss of motive flow or
scavenge pump failure/blockage), the fuel contained in the collector box flows out so that the fuel inside
the collector box and the rest of the tank reaches the same level. If there is up to ~3970 lbs of fuel in
that tank it is possible that the level equivalent to the low level warning activation point will be reached
triggering the EICAS warning. Monitor fuel quantity through EICAS or MFD Fuel Synoptic page. Engine
flameout due to fuel starvation may occur if the airplane is subject to attitudes greater than 15° nose up
or down, uncoordinated maneuvers or negative G’s. (AOM V2 14-10-10.10)
28
When do the emergency lights come on automatically?
In ARMED mode (cockpit switch), the emergency lights are activated automatically when the airplane
loses its normal electrical power. (AOM V2 14-10-40.10)
29
How long do they remain illuminated?
The charge of the batteries is sufficient to supply all emergency lights for approx. 10 minutes. (AOM V2
14-01-40.10)(SOPM 5-1.17)
30
How are the emergency lights charged?
The Emergency Lights Power Units (ELPUs) are charged from DC BUS 1. (AOM V2 14-01-40.10)
31
How do you initiate a hydraulic PBIT?
The hydraulic PBIT is initiated by pressurizing all 3 hydraulic systems. (AOM V1 3-05.3)(SOPM 4-1.13)
32
List the ways in which a hydraulic PBIT can be interrupted?
The hydraulic PBIT is interrupted by moving any flight control surface. (AOM V1 3-05.3)(SOPM 4-1.12)
33
What temperature will inhibit the hydraulic PBIT? Why?
Hydraulic reservoir temperature must be greater than +10°C (50°F) or the hydraulic PBIT may be
inhibited. This inhibition is removed if the hydraulic PBIT is expired. (SOPM 4-1.12)(AOM V2
14-08-10.8) The temperature inhibition is in place due to increased hydraulic fluid viscosity observed at
lower temperatures which has the potential to damage flight control components.
34
When is a hydraulic warm up test required?
Hydraulic Systems Warm-Up must be accomplished before starting the engines when the reservoir
temperatures are below -18°C (0°F). (SOPM 4-1.14)
35
What is the purpose of the PTU?
The PTU assists in landing gear retraction or extension, should a right engine or right EDP failure
occur. (AOM V2 14-11-10.5)
36
What is the EICAS message associated with a hydraulic PBIT?
FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG status message is displayed while hydraulic PBIT is in progress. (AOM V1
3-05.3) FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED message is displayed when the last successful PBIT was more than
50 hours old. (SOPM 4-1.12) This message is inhibited while airborne.
37
When will the engine driven hydraulic pump shutoff valves automatically close?
```
If the fluid temperature reaches 125°C, the shutoff valve will automatically actuate, thus isolating the
EDP 1(2) from the respective hydraulic flow line. (AOM V2 14-11-10.1)
```
38
How is normal hydraulic pressure, temperature and quantity determined during the Originating
Checklist?
Verify hydraulic pressure, temperature and quantity by observing the Hydraulic Synoptic Page on the
MFD and turning on HYDRAULIC SYS 1, 2, and 3A ON. (SOPM 4-1.35)
39
When must a hydraulic PBIT be completed without interruption?
Hydraulic PBIT must be completed without interruption if the hydraulic PBIT is expired (+50 hrs since
last successful PBIT), or if it is believed the PBIT will expire prior to becoming airborne.
40
How is landing elevation set?
Landing field elevation is retrieved from the FMS database after the input of a destination on the active
flight plan. (AOM V2 14-02-20.3)
41
How many outflow valves are installed on the aircraft?
One cabin outflow valve is installed on the aircraft (AOM V2 14-02-20.1)
42
What are the negative and positive pressurization limits?
Negative Pressure Limit: -0.5 psi ; Positive Pressure Limit: 8.77 psi. (SOPM 2-4.4)
43
Give a reason why you would be required to push the DUMP button without QRH guidance?
Smoke Evacuation (QRC – SOPM 2-1.3)
44
What is the memory item for Smoke Evacuation? Smoke/Fire/Fumes?
Smoke Evacuation:
1. O2 Masks ------------------- Don, EMER
2. Crew Communication ---- Establish
3. Pressurization Dump ----- Push In
Smoke/Fire/Fumes:
1. O2 Masks ------------------- Don, 100%
2. Crew Communication ---- Establish
(QRC - SOPM 2-1.3)
45
What happens when you press the DUMP button?
1. Turns Packs Off
2. Recirculation Fans Off
3. Opens outflow valve to maintain 2,000 FPM climb up to 12,400 ft
4. When the cabin reaches 12,400 ft, the outflow valve closes. The cabin altitude may rise due to
natural leak. (AOM V2 14-02-20.5)
46
What is the maximum altitude for single pack operations?
31,000 ft. (SOPM 2-3.1)
47
What do the amber indications on the bleed pushbuttons indicate?
A leak has been detected. (AOM V2 14-02-05.3)
48
Are we permitted to use high pressure external air and the APU simultaneously?
No. (SOPM 2-4.3)
49
When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
The masks are automatically deployed when the cabin altitude is between 14,000 – 14,750 ft. (AOM V2
14-14-15.1)
50
How many minutes of oxygen will the masks provide?
Standard masks will supply oxygen for approximately 12 minutes. Optional masks that supply oxygen
for 14 or 22 minutes are also available. (AOM V2 14-14-15.1)
51
What conditions would require the ADS probe heater switch be pressed during the preflight?
On the first flight of the day if the temperature is below -18°C (0°F), or when the temperature is below
freezing and water, ice or snow is present or suspected. (SOPM 4-1.14) (SOPM 4-1.41)
52
When does the probe heat come on automatically?
ADSP heat turns on automatically whenever an engine is running or the airplane is airborne. (AOM V2
14-12-10.11)
53
What MCDU selection should be made with regard to anti-ice if the OAT is 3 C and 010
overcast?
The TO DATASET MENU must be set to ALL. (SOPM 2-4.5)
54
If the MCDU is programmed REF A/I ALL, when will the engine anti- ice valves automatically
open? Wing anti-ice valves?
When the MCDU is programmed REF A/I ALL, the engine anti-ice valves automatically open after the
completion of engine start. The wing anti-ice valves are commanded open with wheel speed above 40
kts. (AOM V2 14-12-10.7)
55
If the flight crew selected REF A/I OFF and the aircraft encountered icing conditions immediately
after takeoff, when would the anti-ice turn on automatically?
The anti-ice system resumes normal system logic at 1700 ft AGL or 2 minutes after liftoff, whichever
occurs first. (AOM V2 14-12-10)
56
What are the considerations associated with a ground crew exceeding 5 knots during the
pushback?
When the pushback speed exceeds 5 kts and either hydraulic system 1 or hydraulic system 2 is
depressurization, the auto brake automatically disarms and EICAS messages BRK LH (RH) FAULT or
FAIL will display. This occurs until either the wheel speed is less than 5 kts, or the hydraulic systems
are pressurized. (SOPM 4-3.2)
57
What is required to generate a green light during pushback?
A Green Light is generated when:
1. Steering disengaged (External Switch)
2. Parking Brake not applied
3. Main brake not applied (AOM V2 14-13-05.18)
58
What will FADEC automatically abort for during engine starts on the ground?
FADEC automatically aborts engine starts on the ground for hung starts, hot starts, and no light-off.
(AOM V2 14-06-30.9)
59
What is the memory item associated for an engine abnormal start?
Affected Engine:
| 1. Start / Stop Selector ------ STOP (QRC - SOPM 02-01.3)
60
What are the starter duty cycles on the ground?
Start #1-2: 90 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF
| Start #3-5: 90 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF (2-4.2)
61
What conditions would justify dry motoring an engine?
No light-off. Excess fuel in combustion chamber.
| Starting an engine at an airport where volcanic ash has fallen. (AOM V1 3-75.32)
62
Provide at least two considerations with respect to cold weather engine starts.
```
Ramp contamination (consider delaying start until pushback complete), Freedom of N1 rotation, Rapid
increase in oil pressure, IDGs may be slow to produce steady power. (SOPM 4-3.8)
```
63
Which engine do we normally start if we plan a single engine taxi? Why?
Engine 1 is normally started first and utilized for single engine taxi. (SOPM 4-3.4) This is due to
hydraulic pump 2 AUTO logic. Inboard brakes and nose wheel steering on hydraulic system 2. (AOM
V2 14-11-10.3)
64
What is the minimum pressure required for a cross-bleed engine start? Where can this pressure
be referenced?
40-45 PSI. Pressure can be referenced on MFD STATUS synoptic page prior to engine start. (SOPM
4-3.7) The minimum recommended bleed duct pressure prior to start is 40 PSI minus 0.5 PSI for every
1000 ft above sea level. (AOM V1 3-70.1)
(DEN/COS ~ 37 PSI)
65
How close does the actual N1 have to be to the calculated value after engine start?
Actual N1 is not below and no more than 0.5% to the calculated value after second engine start.
(SOPM 4-3.5)
66
Does the FADEC provide start malfunction protection in flight?
No. During inflight starts, FADEC has no protection for hot starts, hung starts or failure to light off. (AOM
V2 14-06-20.2)
67
What is the ITT start limitation?
815°C (SOPM 2-4.2)
68
What thrust value would be set by FADEC if an engine failed at V1?
TO-X RSV. “X” indicates TO mode used (TO-1 RSV, TO-2 RSV). (SOPM 4-7.18)(AOM V2 14-06-30.3)
69
When are FLEX takeoffs prohibited?
```
Reduced thrust (FLEX) takeoffs are prohibited on contaminated runways, reported or forecasted wind
shear, or when a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff. (SOPM 4-7.3)
```
70
With the left engine and APU running, what powers the electrical system?
Following electrical power priority Onside, Inside, Outside, Cross-side; both IDG 1 and APU are
supplying power to the electrical system.
71
What conditions would preclude a single engine taxi?
Ramp/taxiway contamination, maneuvering room in the ramp/gate area is marginal, taxi time to runway
is expected to be < 5 minutes, Airport specific regulations prohibit single-engine taxi, or there is risk of
injury to personnel or damage to equipment. (SOPM 4-5.3)
Also, consider airplane weight, uphill slopes, time to warm-up engines, and time to the active runway.
72
During a single engine taxi with the left engine running, which hydraulic pumps are running?
EDP 1, ACMP 2, ACMP 3A. Assuming 1 & 2 Electric pumps are set to AUTO and 3A turned ON.
73
With the right engine running on a single engine taxi, which hydraulic pumps are on?
ACMP 1, EDP 2, ACMP 3A. Assuming Electric pump 1 is turned ON and 3A turned ON.
74
What is the maximum taxi speed on a dry surface while taxiing straight ahead?
30 kts. (SOPM 4-5.3)
75
What is the maximum taxi speed in a turn on a contaminated surface?
5 kts. (SOPM 4-5.3)
76
If Hydraulic Pump 3A fails on the taxi out, what is the system logic for Pump 3B?
Nothing. Hydraulic pump 3B will only turn on when 3A fails in flight.
77
Assuming a single engine taxi with the APU off, will you have windshield heat?
No. The windshield heat system only operates if there are at least two AC electrical sources. (AOM V2
14-12-10.10)
78
What part of the Airplane is normally used as the representative surface?
Normally, the left wing leading edge and upper surface is used as the representative surface for all
SkyWest aircraft. (GDPM 02.11)
79
What is the difference between a Pretakeoff check and a Pretakeoff contamination check?
A pretakeoff check is a check of the aircraft’s representative surface for frozen contaminants. This
check is conducted within the HOT, just prior to takeoff.
A pretakeoff contamination check is conducted after the HOT has been exceeded to ensure wings,
control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants. This check must be
completed within five minutes prior to takeoff. (GDPM SP2800 02.11)
80
Can we depart if our holdover time has expired?
Yes. If a pretakeoff contamination check has been conducted within five minutes of takeoff and it is
found that the wings, control surfaces and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants.
81
What does the deice checklist tell ERJ crews to do with the elevator trim prior to deice?
ELEVATOR TRIM – FULL NOSE DOWN. (GDPM SP2800 D.6/D.7)
82
What normal checklist is delayed if deicing is planned?
AFTER START CHECKLIST
83
When are the flaps extended on the ERJ after Deicing?
During the BEFORE TAKEOFF CHECKLIST. (GDPM SP2800 D.6/D.7)
84
What items does the Takeoff Configuration Test Button check to ensure the aircraft is properly
configured for takeoff?
Flap position disagreement, parking brake applied, trim out of green range, or any spoiler panel
deployed. (AOM V2 14-15-20.1)
85
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind on a runway with compacted snow?
20 kts. (SOPM 2-3.4)
86
What must the PM verify prior to calling, “Thrust Checked?”
Verify N1 has reached the target N1, ATTCS is green, and all engine parameters are normal. (SOPM
4-7.7)
87
If the “F-BUG” disappears before total slat/flap retraction, what information can the pilot use to
determine a minimum speed to retract the remaining slats/flaps?
Retract flaps following Green Dot + 10 kts. (SOPM 4-7.4)
88
If a close-in turn is required immediately after takeoff, what is the minimum speed that can be
flown? What bank protection does the pilot have with this speed?
The minimum speed flown is V2 + 10kts. (SOPM 4-7.12) Bank should be limited to 25° in case of
engine failure during the turn.
89
Should an engine fail at V2 + 5 kts during takeoff, what speed will the dual cue FD command the
pilot to fly?
Engine failure between V2 and V2+10 kts, pitch for the present speed. (SOPM 4-7.15) If the engine
fails at V2 + 5 kts, the FD will command the pilot to fly that speed.
90
Does RTO provide the same deceleration rate as maximum manual braking?
Yes. (AOM V2 14-13-20.5)
91
During the climb you suspect a pitch trim runaway, what would you do?
1. A/P DISC BUTTON ---------------------------------------------- PRESS AND HOLD
2. PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT BUTTONS ------------ PUSH IN (QRC - SOPM 02-01.3)
92
Give three examples of information supplied to the PFD by the Air Data System.
Airspeed, Altitude, VSI. (AOM V2 14-09-10.1)
93
Provide at least two higher-level functions associated with the flight controls.
AOA Limiting, Rudder airspeed gain scheduling (Stroke Limiting). (AOM V2 14-08-10.3)
94
Why is FLCH the preferred mode to use during climb out?
FLCH will provide a maximum performance climb for a given airspeed while mitigating the possibility of
encountering a low speed event during the climb out.
95
What temperature information inside the flight deck would be used to determine icing
conditions in flight?
Total Air Temperature (TAT). (SOPM 2-4.5)
96
Give three practical uses of Green Dot information on the airspeed tape.
Flap retraction in the absence of “F-BUG”, Driftdown speed, Landing speeds during an immediate
return to field scenario with no time to calculate landing speeds.
97
What is the memory item for a Battery Over-Temperature?
ASSOCIATED BATTERY ----------------------- OFF (QRC – SOPM 02-01.3)
98
When are crews required to monitor flight time and fuel burn?
Fuel trend monitoring takes place for all flights beginning at TOC and at least once each hour
thereafter. (SOPM 4-9.3)
99
Before attempting to balance fuel, what does the SOPM require the pilot to check first? What is
the reason behind this procedure?
The SOPM requires pilots to compare fuel quantity indications on the EICAS with fuel remaining
information indication on the FMS Fuel Management page before attempting a crossfeed. This is done
to ensure no fuel leak exists. (SOPM 4-9.4)
100
What is the pressurization schedule for FL360? FL380?
Maximum Differential Pressure:
Up to 37,000 ft – 7.8 PSI
Above 37,000 ft – 8.34 PSI (SOPM 2-4.4)
101
If ATC asks you if you are able FL 410, are you able to accept?
Yes, if performance allows.
102
Inflight at your cruise altitude, you receive an ENG 1 FAIL caution message. Describe the
required actions and callouts?
1. The pilot first noticing the condition or malfunction announces the malfunction
2. Verify AT advances thrust levers to TOGA
3. Disengage AT and verify “CON”
4. Select appropriate lower altitude
5. Bug drift-down speed (green dot)
6. Press FLCH reaching the DD speed
7. Notify ATC & turn seat belt sign ON
8. Call for checklist procedure (SOPM 4-9.9)
103
What generates an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS message?
In flight, AC main buses are de-energized. (AOM V2 14-05-45.1)
104
What would cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?
Whenever AC power sources are not powering AC buses, the RAT is automatically deployed in flight.
(AOM V214-05-10.3)
105
How long will the RAT take to deploy and latch to the AC Essential Bus?
8 seconds. (AOM V2 14-05-10.3)
106
What is available in the flight deck to pilots during an electrical emergency?
Dome light, Screens 2 & 3, IESS, Compass Backlight, Guidance Panel, Clock, CCD 1, MCDU 2, Audio
Panels 1 & 2.
107
During an electrical emergency, how can you determine if the batteries are being charged?
BATT DISCHARGING message has extinguished.
108
Does the RAT charge the batteries 1 and/or 2? What about the ELPUs?
Once deployed, the RAT will charge batteries 1 & 2. The ELPUs are connected to DC BUS 1 and
therefore, will not be charged. The emergency lights will be activated anytime the airplane loses its
normal electrical power.
109
What is the maximum altitude the APU can be started?
30,000 ft. (SOPM 2-4.4)
110
What is the maximum altitude the APU is operational?
33,000 ft. (SOPM 2-4.4)
111
Will the APU automatically shut-down for a fire inflight?
No. The APU will only automatically shut down for a fire while on the ground. (AOM V2 14-04-10.3)
112
What causes the CABIN ALTITUDE HI EICAS message?
Cabin altitude is 9,700 ft or higher. (AOM V2 14-02-25.1)
113
What is the memory item associated with a CABIN ALTITUDE HI?
1. O2 MASKS --------------------------- DON, 100%
2. CREW COMMUNICATION ------ ESTABLISH
(QRC SOPM 2-1.3)
114
Give two practical uses of the Descend Now feature in the MCDU.
Within 50NM of TOD and ATC issues a “Descend Now” clearance. Begin a descent early to avoid
weather/turbulence.
115
When will the speed brakes automatically retract?
Speed brakes will automatically retract upon selection of slat/flap greater than 1, airspeed decreases
below 180 kts, or TLA greater than 70°. (AOM V2 14-08-35.4)
116
On descent, the control column appears to be jammed, what should you do?
JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN – PITCH
| 1. ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE ----------------- PULL (QRC SOPM 2-1.3)
117
Give at least three requirements of a stabilized approach.
1,500 ft AGL RA/ FAF, whichever occurs later:
• Landing gear down
• Airspeed no greater than 180 kts.
1,000 ft AGL RA:
• Final landing configuration
• BEFORE LANDING CHECKLIST complete
• Airspeed within +15 and -5 kts of target speed
• On lateral profile
• On vertical profile or correcting with minor bracketing manuevers
500 ft AGL RA:
• Airspeed within speed bug
• Thrust setting above idle (SOPM 4-11.7)!
118
On a two-engine approach with Flaps 1, how many hydraulic pumps are running?
Five hydraulic pumps are running. EDP 1 & 2, ACMP 1B & 2B, ACMP 3A. (AOM V2 14-11-10.2)
119
What is the single engine approach and landing flap configuration?
Flaps 5. (QRH NAP 1-34) (SOPM 4-11.34)
120
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 3?
200 kts. (SOPM 2-3.3)
121
On an RNAV approach, what is the minimum autopilot altitude?
Minimum autopilot use height on all Non-precision Approaches is MDA. (SOPM 2-4.6)
122
When will the pilot receive windshear escape guidance on the PFD?
Windshear escape guidance is available upon:
• Windshear warning or caution is detected and TOGA is pressed
• Windshear warning is detected and thrust lever set to TO/GA position
• Automatically when windshear warning is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA (AOM V2
14-03-10.22)
123
What are the PM callouts during a windshear escape maneuver?
During a windshear escape maneuver, the PM states “CLIMBING” or “DESCENDING” based upon VSI
indication. When the RA indicates less than 1,000 ft AGL and the airplane is descending, the PM calls
“DESCENDING (___)” based upon the RA value observed. (SOPM 4-7.14)
124
Should the PF reference the aircraft symbol or FD during windshear escape guidance?
PF should follow flight director guidance. (SOPM 4-7.14)
125
During a windshear escape maneuver, what configuration changes should we make?
Do not change flaps or landing gear configuration until out of the windshear condition, at least 1,500 ft
AGL and terrain clearance is assured. (SOPM 4-7.14)
126
The windshear vertical mode can be a threat in itself once clear of windshear, why?
The windshear escape guidance mode does not automatically revert to any other flight guidance mode.
The pilot must manually select another mode in order to exit windshear escape guidance. (SOPM
4-7.14)
127
When does the airplane have to be fully configured and on speed for landing?
Fully configured by 1,000 ft AGL RA and Airspeed within the confines of the speed bug by 500 ft AGL
RA. (SOPM 4-11.8)
128
When would we use Stall Protect Ice Speeds for landing?
STALL PROTECT ICE SPEEDS advisory message displayed or CATII approach.
129
What is the difference between Stall Protect Ice speeds and CATII approach speeds.
Nothing
130
How do we ensure all required equipment is functioning for a CATII approach?
Complete CATII APPROACH checklist. (SOPM 4-11.20)
131
When does the APPR 2 logic first try to activate?
1,500 ft. RA
132
What factors affect APPR 2 logic?
* No valid RA displayed
* Flaps greater than 5 below 800 ft
* EICAS message SLAT-FLAP LEVER DISAG displayed
* Either minimums selected readout change from RA to BARO
* LOC frequency or inbound course mismatch (SOPM 4-11.20)
133
What are the lowest minimums for a CAT II Approach (SkyWest)?
RVR TDZ 1200ft./ RVR MID 600 ft./ RVR Rollout 300ft. (OpsSpec C059-2)
134
Is the approach lighting system a required part of a CAT II approach?
Yes. Either an ALSF-1 or ALSF-2 is required to conduct a CATII approach. The sequenced flashing
lights may be inoperative. (OpsSpec C059-2)
135
What is the maximum cross-wind for a CATII approach?
15 kts or the crosswind limitation of the landing runway (ex: runway with ice – 12 kts), whichever is
more restrictive. (OpsSpec C059-3)(SOPM 2-3.4)
136
What type of brakes are installed on the ERJ?
Carbon.
137
How do carbon brakes work most effectively?
Carbon brakes work most effectively by using shorter application intervals with higher pressure on the
pedals. (SOPM 4-5.3)
Steel brake wear is directly proportional to the kinetic energy absorbed by the brakes. Carbon brake
wear is primarily dependent on the total number of brake applications – one firm brake application
causes less wear than several light applications. (Boeing Research – Aero Magazine)
138
When will the auto throttles automatically retard upon landing? When will they not?
The Retard Mode reduces thrust levers to the idle position during flare at or below 30 ft on landing
under the following conditions:
• A/T engaged
• Valid RA information
• RA below 150 ft AGL
• Slat/flap lever position at 5 or FULL and landing gear down (AOM V2 14-03-20.5)
139
How should you configure the aircraft if landing on a contaminated runway?
Flaps FULL, Autobrake MED, Maximum reverse thrust (SOPM 4-12.8)
140
If you had a failure of both hydraulic system 1 and 2, how would you bring the aircraft to a stop
upon landing?
Use of the Emergency/Parking brake (SOPM 4-12.7)
141
What additional threats do you have when attempting to stop the aircraft using only the
emergency brake?
The following Higher-level brake functions are not available:
• Locked wheel protection
• Anti skid protection
• Touchdown protection (SOPM 4-12.7)
142
What is the maximum tire speed? In what scenario may this limitation be exceeded?
195 kts. (SOPM 2-3.3) Flap fail condition will require much higher approach speeds. Flap/Slat fail at 0°
at max landing weight could require Vap nearing 190 kts. (QRH EAP8-4)(QRH PD30-3)
143
How would you configure the aircraft for engine anti-ice on after touchdown?
After landing, the Ice Protection System should be activated if icing conditions exist. (AOM V2
14-12-10.9)
144
How long are you required to wait before shutting an engine down after landing?
Two minutes. (4-13.3)
145
Does this change if thrust reversers were used?
No. Engines must be ran at IDLE thrust for two minutes to allow for thermal stabilization before shutting
down an engine. (SOPM 4-13.3) If reversers are used, two minutes of elapsed time has to occur after
the thrust levers are returned to IDLE before an engine can be shut down.
146
With engine one running at the gate and external AC connected to the aircraft, what is powering
the electrical system?
Power priority: Onside, inside, outside, cross-side. According to source priority order, the running
engine is powering it’s respective side and the external AC power is powering the other side of the AC
architecture. (AOM V2 14-05-40.2)
147
With external ground power connected to the aircraft and after shutting down one engine, the
GPU switch-light indicates “AVAIL.” Why and what should be done?
GPU button on overhead panel illuminates “AVAIL” when AC power quality requirements are satisfied.
(AOM V2 14-05-10.3) This indicates AC power is readily available. The GPU button should be pressed
in. Once AC power begins powering the other side of the AC system, “IN USE” is displayed and the
running engine can be shut down.
148
When are ground crews required to drain and purge the potable water system on the ERJ?
Ground crews are required to drain and purge the potable water system when temperatures were 0°C/
32°F or lower during a RON. (FOIB112116-1 pg. 2)
149
If the system is not drained properly, what cables routed through the center fuselage might be
frozen and rendered inoperative?
Aileron control cables. (FOIB112116-1 pg. 1)
150
Who do we contact to verify whether or not the temperature dropped below 0 C during the
overnight?
Dispatch. (FOIB112116-1)
151
Is there any paperwork associated with draining the potable water on the ERJ?
Yes. There is an “ERJ 170/175 Potable Water Draining/Purging Verification Form”.
(FOIB112116-1 pg.2)
152
Does a fault light in the galley associated with the potable water warrant a call to MX?
Yes. If a Fault light is illuminated on the flight attendant panel, an entry in the AML and a call to
Maintenance control is required. (FOIB112116-1 pg. 4)
