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Kv Flashcards

1
Q

Prior to beginning the preflight inspection the pilot conducts a Safety and Power Up checklist. Bart 1 is on and Batt 2 is selected to Auto:

What must not occur when more than displays 2 and 3 is selected to AUTO?

A

(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1 (Safety and Power Up)
The airplane must not be dispatched. p 4-01.7

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2
Q

After a successful fire test, the pilot establishes an AC power source.

If AC power is lost what is the procedure for reestablishing AC power?

A

SOPM ch 4-1

“When the source of AC power is lost, power down the airplane utilizing the Leaving the Airplane checklist then perform power up utilizing the safety and power up checklist.”
Note, p4-01.9

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3
Q

The APU has been started and the pilot begins the external walk around Its cold and the airplane has the potential for ice, frost or snow.

Prior to beginning the external inspection what must be ON to have a valid check on the Brake Wear Indicators?

A

The Emergency/Parking brake
SOPM ch4-01.14

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4
Q

Inspection of the ADSPs show Ice and snow contamination, what is the procedure?

A

ADSP Heater switch ON
Flight Control PBIT (EPBIT and HPBIT) Accomplish
SOPM p4-01.11

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5
Q

Spurious AFCS and ADS messages may be an indication of what in regard to the ADSPs?

A

The smart probes are contaminated with ice or snow, run the heater procedure and shutdown the airplane after min of 3 mins of heating. Wait one minute, power back up normally. If spurious messages still appear call maintenance.

SOPM ch4-01.13

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6
Q

The PREFLIGHT section of the SOPM uses the phrase “CLEAR OF ICE” repeatedly for each section of the airplane, What is SkyWest’s philosophy regarding ICE and contamination?

A

GDPM Ch 2.3 “The Ground Deicing Program GDP uses the clean aircraft concept, which means an aircraft must not takeoff when frost, ice, or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, and other critical surfaces of the aircraft.”

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7
Q

What is a Cold Weather Preflight Inspection?

A

1) Inspect the critical surfaces for accumulation of frozen contaminants as follows:
-Visually inspect the critical surfaces and components for frozen contaminants from the gest vantage point possible (e.g. inside the cabin over the wing area, top of stairs, jetbridge). It must be assumed the surface is contaminated if any surface features cannot be visually distinguished that would otherwise be apparent under non-icing conditions.

2) When the aircraft’s critical surfaces are not free of frozen contaminents, or it cannot be determined they are free from contaminants, the PIC notifys station that ground deicing is required.

3) When the aircraft’s critical surfaces are free of frozen contaminents after completeing the tactile and /or visual check, no further deice/anit-ice procedures are required.

GDPM ch 4.8 “Cold Weather Preflight Insection Procedure”

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7
Q

When does a Cold Wx Preflight need to be performed?

A

Cold Wx preflight must be conducted when:

-OAT is 5C or less, or
-Wing Fuel temp is 0* or less
-Atmoshpheric conditions conducive to icing exist, or
-the aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminents due to exposure to frost or precip, which could involve the entire airframe, or
- on any through flight where residual ice from the inbound flight may have accumulated on airframe surfaces or components, or
-Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area.

SOPM CH 4-01.25 “COLD WX OPERATIONS”

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8
Q

If it’s 5*C or colder, the preflight inspection must take place within what timeframe?

A

SOPM CH 4-01.25 “COLD WX OPERATIONS”

NOTE: anytime the temp is 5*C or less, preflight inspection must take place within 30 mins of pushback

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9
Q

Using the pictorial walk around- Describe the preflight action for the Nose Landing Gear:

A

Wheel Chocks…………IN
Wheels and Tires.. …..Condition +Clear of Ice

Up Lock Hook…UNLOCKED

Downlock Springs..Condition

Strut/Wheel Well/doors…
…Condition and NO LEAKS

Ground locking pin… ….removed

Landing and Taxi Lights…
…Condition+ clean and undamaged

SOPM4.1 External Inspection

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10
Q

What unique piece of electrical emergency equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Describe the SOPM external preflight of the RAT

A

a) RAT (RAM AIR TURBINE)

b( RAT safety Lock Pin…
…Removed

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11
Q

What does the Oxygen Discharge Indicator look like in its normal condition?

A

GREEN DISC

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12
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the engine inlet according to the SOPM?

A

Engine Inlet…Condition
-Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. Ensure no damage to the T2 sensor and the FADEC Cooling inlet is clear.

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13
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?

A

Fan Blades…Check
-Check for damaged fan blades and ensure fan is free to rotate.
-Check for damage on spinner

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14
Q

Are there Nacell Strakes on both sides of the engine?

A

YES

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15
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear Inspection:

A

Main Gear…Check
-Clear of Ice and unobstructed

Wheels and Tires…
…Condition

Up lock Hook….UNLOCKED

Downlock Springs…Cond

Strut/Wheel Wells…Condition and no leaks

Ground Locking Pin…Removed

Brakes Pin Indicators…Check
-2 upper and 2 lower per gear assembly

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16
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharge wicks?

Where is that document located?

A

CDL (Configuration Deviation List)

AFM Appendices<Appendix 1<CDL (p466 on Ipad)

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17
Q

CONTEXT: Flight Planning, Takeoff Performance

What is the MINTO for your flight, and what is included in MINTO?

A

Minimum Fuel for Takeoff

Includes:
-Enroute Burn
-Go-around/alternate (most distant),
-Holding
-Reserve
(BAR-H)

Dispatch Release Explanation Guide

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18
Q

When an Alternate is listed on the Release, does the Alternate fuel value include go-around fuel?

A

It does.

Dispatch Release Explanation Guide #28

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19
Q

Engine Failure Proceedures (EFP) are denoted by Abbreviations such as DT, LT,RT and Special. What is the difference between a Standard and Special EFP?

A

Standard: Climb to 1,000 ft then turn (IMC to navaid or dipicted Heading, VMC return to land visually or follow IMC procedure)

Special: provided when Standard procedure cannot be used due to obstacle requirements (simple special will turn before 1,000 feet AFE, Complex will list detailed instructions that a Simple will not cover to keep you in the protected obstacle area. )

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

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20
Q

If we follow a Special EFP and radar vectors are not available, at what altitude can the crew proceed on course?

A

Comply with the special procedure until :

IMC: 3,000 AFE at which time you can proceed on course.

VMC: 1,000 AFE

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

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21
Q

Take off in IMC (Ceiling<1000’ and <3SM) and ATC provides a radar vector, no turns shall be commenced below what ALT?

A

NO turns shall be commenced below 1,000’ AFE when takeoff wx is IMC unless:
1) a Special Departure Proceedure prescribes otherwise, or
2) the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before reaching 1,000’ AFE

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

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22
Q

Can a pilot Turn the airplane with the above conditions if an instrument or special departure procedure requires it?

A

Yes (under those specific examples.)

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23
Q

The RWY is reported as wet. what does this mean?

A

A runway is considered wet when more than 25% of the runway surface area within the length and width being used, is covered by any visible dampness or water 1/8th in (3mm) or less in depth.

PERFORMANCE HANDBOOK TAKEOFF/RUNWAY CONDITIONS

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24
Q

The RWY is report has been updated to “CONTAMINATED,” what does this mean?

A

Contaminated Runway-
A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not), within the reported length and the width being used, is covered by more than 1/8th (3mm) of standing water or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow or any depth of ice or compacted snow.

PERFORMANCE HANDBOOK, TAKEOFF, RUNWAY CONDITIONS

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25
Q

What does TALPA stand for?

A

Takeoff And Landing Perfomance Assessment…

…in the U.S. use an objective measurement of contamination type and depth, with consideration given to temperature and aircraft performance to determine expected braking capability for a given runway.

Specific Definitions:
Dry-
Wet
Slippery When Wet
Contaminated

FOM ch7 (Runway assessment)

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26
Q

TALPA uses RCAM (RCCs) to assess runway conditions, describe the difference in runway condition between and RCC of 6 and RCC of 1

A

RCC of 6 is dry, No effect on deceleration or directional control, no reported braking action. (Its the best of all conditions.)
RCC of 1 is ICE, Braking deceleration is significantly reduced for the wheel braking effort applied, or directional control is significantly reduced. Reported braking action is Poor.

FOM Chapter 7 Runway assessments

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27
Q

Where can the RCAM/ braking action table be found?

A

EFB WX tile/ RCAM Breaking action Table

FOM CH 7 (Runway Assessments)

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28
Q

What is the Maximum crosswind component for a WET runway?

A

31 for WET

EFB ERJ CROSSWIND LIMITATIONS table

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29
Q

MEL USER GUIDE (Looking at a given MEL…)
What does the bold (T) symbol communicate?

A

A bold (T) (Tracking) is a flag to the flight crew that any of the following conditions exist:
-An MEL requires a tracking (or time) restriction.
- A Repair interval Category A of one day.
-Procedures that must be performed, tested, or checked before each flight, prior to the first flight of the day, once each flight day, or at a certain number of hours, landings, cycles etc.

MEL User guide

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30
Q

What impact does the above MEL have on flight planning?

A

See MEL 32-47-1a
Yes, Landing Gear needs to remain extended 7 minutes after takeoff, and 660 lbs of fuel must be added.

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31
Q

How does the pilot know that this added fuel burn from the MEL has been applied to the flight release.

A

It would be specified in the Remarks section of the Release.

Perf Handbook states that if the MEL is listed in remarks, the entire Takeoff report is calculated with it applied.

Release/ Dispatch Release Guide/ Performance Handbook

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32
Q

Context: Originating, Before Start, Eng Start

Why is the HYD fluid temperature checked during the originating flow?

A

To verify whether or not a Hydraulic Warm-Up procedure is required. (If temps are below -18 degrees)

SOPM ch4.1 (Hyd system Warm up)

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33
Q

During an ECS on takeoff the APU will be ON or OFF?

A

Off

SOPM 4.4.4 AFTER START Expanded flow

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34
Q

If ACARs takeoff performance dictates ECS ON takeoff and the crew fails to shutdown the APU, the EICAS will generate an ENG REF ECS Disagree message. if this happens what do you do?

A
  1. Run the TEAM model
  2. Have Pilots Reference the QRH
  3. Re-enter the TO data or reconfigure the aircraft.
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35
Q

With an OAT of 4 degrees C and light rain, how will the Takeoff Data Pages be configured for anti-ice?

A

Anti ice ALL

SOPM Ch2 section 4 Limitations

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36
Q

while programming the FMS a Batt 1 Overtemp message populates on the EICAS with an associated triple chime and Master Warning Light. what do you do?

A

Associated Battery- OFF

QRC

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37
Q

What are the Starter Cranking Limits on the Ground?

A

2 attempts for 90 seconds, 10 seconds between start 1&2.
Attempts 3-5 90 on, 5 minutes off

SOPM ch2 Limitations

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38
Q

During Engine Start there is no light off with fuel flowing to the engine. what do you do?

A

Abort Start

SOPM ch4.3 (Abnormal Eng start Indications)

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39
Q

With the above Abnormal Start condition, would Dry motoring be considered?

A

Yes, there is fuel that needs to be purged prior to subsequent start attempts.

40
Q

What are the dry motoring cycle limits on the ground?

A

attempt 1 90 seconds ON, 5 min OFF
attempts 2-5 30 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF

SOPM ch2 Limitations

41
Q

What other conditions require aborting a start?

A

1) no pos oil pressure indication within 10 seconds after N1 speed starts to increas3
2) During ENG Start with a tailwind, when a pos increase of N1 is not indicated before starter cutout (50% N2). In this case reposition the aircraft prior to start to minimize tailwind effects.
3) No ITT indication within 30 seconds after initiation of fuel flow. (No light off)
4) ITT exceeds start limit (815C (Hot Start)
5) Oil pressure stabilizes below 25C
6) N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start)
7) an Intermittent electrical, pneumatic, or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement.

SOPM 4.3.14

42
Q

Context: After Start, Taxi, Before Takeoff

After second engine start what is the N1 target value tolerance?

A

Verify perameters are normal and the EICAS N1 target value is within +.5% to -0.1% of the planned N1 value.

SOPM 4.3 (Eng start Proceedure)

43
Q

When is Single Eng taxi Prohibited?

A

-Ramp/Taxiway surface contamination
-Manuevering room in the ramp/ gate area is marginal
-Taxi time to/from a runway is expected to be <5 mins
-Airport specific regulations prohibit single engine taxi
-Risk of injury to personnel of damage to equipment
-CPT’s descretion

44
Q

What is the procedure when taxing in icing conditions in excess of 30 mins or if the fan vibe is detected?

A

the engine thrust may be increased at 30 min intervals to approx 54% N1 and held at that thrust level for 30 seconds, or until the fan vibration level returns to normal. when surface conditions do not permit the ETL to be increased to 54% set an acceptable thrust level and time interval that is safe and practical.

SOPM 4.5.4 Cold WX operations

45
Q

If Deicing is required, what checklist is used after engine start in lieu of the AFTER START CHECKLIST

A

PRE DEICE/ANIT ICE CHECKLIST

46
Q

When does the Hold Over Time (HOT) begin?

A

GDP Ch 2 (Holdover Time) HOT begins when the final application of the deicing/anti-icing fluid commences and expires when the deicing/anti-icing fluid loses effectiveness, e.g., when ice or snow begins to form on or in the fluid.

47
Q

HOTs are for departure planning and must be used in conjunction with Pretakeoff Check procedures. What is a Pretakeoff Check?

A

GDPM CH2 Pre-Takeoff Check) A check of the aircraft’s representative surface for frozen contaminants. This check is conducted within the aircraft’s HOT, just prior to takeoff, and may be made by observing representative surfaces from whatever vantage point in the aircraft the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.

48
Q

Is there such a thing as an insignificant amount of ice?

A

There is no such thing. GDPM Apex A The Effects of Contamination Bullet B.

49
Q

What if MOD Freezing Rain is occurring, can you depart?

A

GDPM Appendix A (Freezing Precipitation Table) NO.

50
Q

Where are the required communication elements for Deice/Anti-Ice located? What manual?

A

GDPM Appendix D (Communications Elements Table) D12

51
Q

What is a Pretakeoff Contamination Check?

A

GDPM Ch2 (Pre Takeoff Contamination Check)

A check conducted after the HOT has been exceeded to ensure wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of all contaminants.

52
Q

The Takeoff has to occur within what timeframe after the Pretakeoff Contamination Check?

A

GDPM Ch2 (PreTakeoff Contamination Check)

This check must be completed within 5 mins prior to takeoff.

53
Q

MEM If the Nosewheel deflects partially or fully uncommanded, what is the memory item?

A

STEER DISC SWITCH………PRESS
Steer the airplane using differential braking and rudder.

54
Q

When is the use of FLEX thrust for takeoff prohibited? Name all 3 conditions

A

SOPM ch4 (Before Takeoff Checklist)

-Takeoff on a contaminated runway
-Reported or forecast windshear
-When a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff

55
Q

TAKEOFF- When taxiing onto any runway, what does the FO turn on?

A

SOPM Ch4 section 7 (Entering Runway)

FO turns on ALL exterior lights

NOTE: Strobes may be delayed until cleared for takeoff when they create a hazard to other aircraft. Logo lights may be required during daylight conditions with low visibility.

56
Q

What Lateral and vertical modes do the pilots silently verify on the fma after RWY HDG Verification?

A

SOPM ch4 section 7 (Entering Runway, Autothrottles)

After runway heading verification the captain arms the autothrottles and both pilots silently verify ROLL & TO and auto throttles (TO White) are displayed in the FMA.

57
Q

What is a Static Takeoff?

A

SOPM Ch 4 Section 8 (Static Takeoff)

Line up on the runway, apply brakes, and advance thrust to 40% N1. When the engines stabilize at 40% N1, advance thrust levers to TO/GA detent. Release the brakes when the takeoff thrust (N1 Target) is achieved.

58
Q

At what crosswind velocity are static takeoffs not recommended and why?

A

SOPM Ch4 section 8 (Static T/O)

Due to possible Compressor Stall, not recommended with a crosswind greater than 25 kts.

59
Q

How are abnormalities verbalized during the takeoff roll?

A

SOPM Ch4 section 8 (Takeoff and Thrust settings)
must be called out in a loud and clear voice.

60
Q

With all engines running the flight director commands a pitch attitude to maintain what speed?

A

SOPM Ch4 section 8 (Rotation and Liftoff)

V2+10

61
Q

With an engine failure at or after V1 on takeoff/initial climb, what speed will the flight director command?

A

SOPM Ch 4 Section 8 (Eng Failure at or after V1)

V2 to V2+10

62
Q

For one engine inoperative, the bank angle must be limited to; at V2,V2+5,V2+10?

A

SOPM ch 4 section 8 (Eng Failure at or after V1)

V2: 15 degrees
V2+5: 20 degrees
V2+10: 25 degrees

63
Q

With an engine failure after V1, how long should a climb speed of VFS be maintained?

A

Climb at VFS to a safe altitude defined during the takeoff briefing or as assigned by ATC.

SOPM ch 4 section 8 (Eng Failure at or after V1)

64
Q

Takeoff was conducted in light rain, what is the max wiper speed?

A

250 KTs (SOPM Ch 2 LIMITATIONS)

65
Q

During CLM, traffic preceding you reports moderate turbulence ahead at 5,000’, what speed would be appropriate to fly?

A

Below 10,000’= 250 kts
Above =270 or M.76 whichever is lower

66
Q

While targeting the above speed the airplane pitches up uncommanded and a trim runaway is suspected, what is the memory item?

A

AP/TRIM DISC Button………PRESS AND HOLD
PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT BUTTONS…PUSH IN

67
Q

If the Trim Runaway is not promptly dealt with the horizontal Stabilizer will overpower the Elevator’s authority, If this happens in a pitch up scenario, how can the pilots keep the airplane from pitching to an attitude that would cause an undesired state?

A

Bank to arrest the climb.

MT3 Slides

68
Q

MEM Describe a YAW trim Runaway, what is the memory item?

A

uncommanded yaw movement.

AP/ TRIM DISC BUTTOM…..PRESS & HOLD

69
Q

MEM The Roll axis is jammed, what is the memory item?

A

Jammed Control Wheel- Roll

Aileron Disconnect Handle….PULL

70
Q

MEM What if the pitch axis were jammed?

A

Jammed Control Column- Pitch

Elevator Disconnect Handle….PULL

71
Q

MEM Having resolved the above issue, the EICAS shows a “Cabin ALT HIGH” message, what do you do?

A

Oxygen Mask Don…100%
Crew Communication…Establish

72
Q

MEM What if instead of the above message you had strong FUMES in the flight deck, maybe an “electrical” smell?

A

Oxygen Mask….Don, 100%
Crew Communication…..ESTABLISH

73
Q

MEM If smoke filled the flight deck, what would you do?

A

Oxygen Mask…….DON, EMER
Crew Communications………Establish
Pressurization Dump…..PUSH IN

74
Q

When is the fuel Check conducted, and how often thereafter?

A

Beginning at the TOC and at least each hour thereafter.

SOPM Ch4 Section 10 (FUEL TREND MONITORING)

75
Q

What must the pilots ensure is not causing the imbalance Before balancing fuel, according to the SOPM?

A

ensure it is not caused by a fuel leak.

SOPM Ch4 section 10 (FUEL IMBALANCE)

76
Q

With an IDG OFF BUS EICAS message the QRH says APU as required, if you choose to start the APU at Cruise, what Altitude do you have to be below?

A

30,000 FT

SOPM ch 2 limits

77
Q

If the first APU start was unsuccessful how long would you need to wait before a second attempt to start?

A

1+2: 60 seconds off
3: 5 mins off

SOPM Ch 2 Limits

78
Q

ATC requests slowest practical speed at FL290 for spacing, could flaps be added momentarily to help comply with the request?

A

MAX ALT for FLAPS is 20,000 FT. NO

SOPM ch 2 Limits

79
Q

Icing conditions exist in flight when in visible moisture and what temperature?

A

10 C. from OAT on ground or takeoff or Total Air Temp (TAT) in flight.

80
Q

Descent. When RCC’s are not available what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

contaminant type and Braking Action reports

FOM CH 7.5 LANDING PERFORMANCE HIERACHY

81
Q

The arrival airport is reporting RCCs of 5/4/3 on the expected runway, what numeric value represents the worst braking action on the runway?

A

3.
FOM CH 7 (Runway Assessments)
EFB WX Tile (RCAM)

82
Q

In the above question which RCC value is used when performing a landing assessment?

A

3 the worst braking action value reported. FOM CH7 (Runway Assessments)

83
Q

What does a crew need to consider when landing with RCCs less than 6?

A

-Consider using Maximum performance landing techniques
-Use auto brake MED
-Make a firm touchdown
-Apply Reverse Thrust (No asymmetric)
-Apply firm and symmetrical brake pedal pressure, no pumping
-Dont apply the EMER brake
-Maintain runway centerline with rudder
-Landing on a wet, slippery or contaminated runway with tailwind NOT RECOMMENDED

SOPM ch4.13 (Landing on Wet, Slippery when wet, Contaminated runway)

84
Q

With winds straight down the runway at 6g16 what additions would you apply to the ACARS generated Vref speed to calculate Vap?

A

1/2 the headwind so 3 plus the gust factor of 10=13

SOPM CH 4.12 (Landing Speeds)

85
Q

Approach. According to the Stabilized approach criteria in the SOPM, what are the requirements by 1,500 HAT or the FAF, whichever occurs first?

A

Gear Down, Flap 3 and max speed of 180kts.

SOPM ch 4.12.6 INSTRUMENT APPROACHES

86
Q

What would the PM do if the above criteria weren’t met?

A

announce any deviations such as “speed” or “flap”

87
Q

What is the stabilized approach criteria at 1,000ft for a straight in approach?

A

-On Lateral and Vertical profile
-Airspeed within +15 and -5 kts of Vap
-Sink Rate is no greater than 1000ft/min; if an approach requires a higher sink rate, a briefing is required.
-Aircraft is fully configured for landing and the BEFORE LANDING CHECKLIST complete

88
Q

Landing. According to the SOPM Maximum performance landing, can the thrust reverse be used until the airplane comes to a complete stop?

A

SOPM CH4.13 (MAX PERFORMANCE LANDING)

Yes. but only as necessary to provide full stopping authority.

89
Q

When are thrust reversers most effective? high or low speeds?

A

High speeds are most effective.

90
Q

Some abnormal procedures require the use of the EMERGENCY/PARKING BRAKE to stop the airplane during landing. When this happens what protections are not available?

A

-Locked Wheel Protection
-Antiskid Protection
-Touchdown Protection

SOPM 4.13 EMERGENCY / PARKING BRAKE

91
Q

On a white board you will be asked to hold. (unanticipated threat) Will be given a fuel quantity;
How Long can you hold?
Assumption- ATC will release the airplane at the time the crew specifies. they will fly the approach to a missed approach (WX), and divert to the planned alternate. Crew Planning should have the goal to arrive at the alternate with reserve fuel intact.

A

Go over fuel planning options. bug out time etc.

92
Q

According to the ERJ SOPM standardized minimum/emergency fuel tables, what fuel prediction at the destination or alternate (as appropriate) would require declaring minimum fuel?

A

SOPM 5.1 (MIN/EMER FUEL)

Min Fuel : 2,250 lbs
EMER Fuel: 1,500 LBS 30 minutes of fuel

93
Q

According to the SOPM standardized Minimum/EMER Fuel Tables, how much time doe the Minimum Fuel value provide?

A

less than 45 minutes remaining based on 1,500 ft AFE/ Green Dot/ Clean

94
Q

According to the SOPM standardized Minimum/EMER fuel Tables, what fuel prediction at the destination or Alternate (as appropriate) would require declaring Emergency Fuel?

A

1,500 lbs or less

95
Q

According to the SOPM standardized Minimum/EMER fuel Tables, how much time does the Emergency Fuel Value provide?

A

30 mins remaining based on 1,500 ft AFE/ Green Dot/ Clean

96
Q

You are holding at a fix due to unforecasted WX below minimums at your destination. what tools do you have available to determine a suitable alternate, and how would you determine how much fuel you need to safely proceed to your alternate?

A

WX/Notams: Dispatcher/ACARS/ATC
Fuel: Dispatcher (Fuel burn to new ALT airport) Present Position Direct/ Secondary Flight plan/Jeppeson

97
Q

Usa the previous white board example. The destination airport is closed (no approach or missed approach) due to extreme weather and the filed alternate is traffic saturated and no longer accepting arrivals. Determine the Fuel requirements for an unplanned diversion.

A

Crew will need to develop a plan to determine a viable diversionary airport. This plan should include dispatch, and FMS calculations. the ALT has to be conservatively within the range of remaining fuel on board. In addition the alternate has to be appropriate for the ERJ, runway length and width and emergency and passenger services.

98
Q
A

Cq 24 (2 decks)

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