Knowledge Validation Flashcards
The PFDs, MFDs, and the EICAS are classified as what?
Display units (DUs)
To access drop down menus and other on screen items on the MFD you would use what?
Control cursor device (CCD)
The maximum operating altitude for the APU is ______.
33,000 ft
The cockpit controls for the engines are located where?
Control pedestal
What panel allows the pilot to select modes for lateral and vertical flight paths and to select airspeeds?
Guidance panel
Can the pilots control the fire extinguishing for the lavatories?
No
Where are the indications for the cabin pressure displayed?
EICAS
In what tank is the DC pump located?
Right wing tank
How is the water temperature changed for the lavatory faucets?
Rotating the faucet cap
Where is the pressure for the water system normally supplied from?
Engines
What color are the Latch Indications when the door is closed and the main handle is in the down position?
green
(T/F) - When the door is opened from the outside the escape slide automatically disarms?
True
How many seconds after the Emerg Call pushbutton is pressed does the cockpit door unlock, if the INHIB button is not pressed.
30 seconds
What color are Status Messages?
White
What device is used to Scroll through EICAS messages?
CCD (Cursor Control Device)
How many MAU are installed on the EMB-175?
3
What color is the symbol for a Traffic Advisory on the TCAS?
Amber
If your aircraft begins a descent after Takeoff the warning _____ will sound
Don’t sink
Can the APU provide bleed air in-flight?
Yes
What EICAS Message displays when one of the AMS controller channels has failed and the AMS is still in control?
AMS control fault
The pneumatic system indications are displayed on the ______.
Environmental control system synoptic page
(T/F) - When the engine is running the engine bleed valve is normally open.
True
Where are the controls for the air conditioning located?
Overhead panel
How many recirculation fans is the ECS equipped with?
2
What E-bay is not cooled by fans?
Aft equipment bay
(Aft e bay)
What indications are there for the Emergency Ram Air Check Valve?
There are none
How hot does it have to be for the Gasper Shutoff Valve to open?
35 degrees C
When a Pack switch is pushed out, the respective Pack control valve is _____.
Closed
When the FCV has failed the icon is displayed as what?
Amber cross over icon
What color is the icon of the packs when they are off?
White
When the recirculating fans are on, the Icon Indication is displayed gray with what color of windmill?
Green
What is the normal position for the Recirculation Button?
In
How many automatic channels does the CPC have?
2
The _____ is used to protect against cabin overpressure.
positive pressure relief valve
When holding the Cabin Altitude Selector Knob in the down position, the cabin descends at what rate?
50 FPM
What CPCS Mode is not possible if the Cruise Mode is active?
Abort
(T/F) - The flight directors are automatically activated upon autopilot activation.
True
Where is the Guidance Panel located?
center of glare shield
When the Autopilot fails how long does the FMA indication flash?
5 seconds
How many channels does the Autopilot have?
2
If the climb or descent rate is more than the available thrust the FMA will show ____.
LIM
(T/F) - You can turn the TLA mode off and on by using TRS page on the MCDU
True
The Autothrottle System is a part of what larger system?
Thrust management system
When the necessary requirements for the CAT 2 ILS Approach have not been met, what EICAS message is displayed?
Appr 2 not available
At what altitude does the system freeze at the highest capability available, not allowing approach upgrades anymore.
800 ft
The TO mode is selected by pressing the TOGA button when the plane is
On the ground
What is the low bank angle limit
17 degrees
What color does the airspeed tape turn to when the aircraft speed goes above VMO/MMO?
Red
When changing the vertical speed of the aircraft over 1000 feet one click of the thumbwheel is worth how many feet?
100
What is the pitch minimum limit when operating in the TO mode?
8 degrees
What is the pitch commanded by the flight director at Flaps 2?
10 degrees
There are ____ ICCs contained in an EMB 175 electrical system.
4
The Electrical System Control Panel is located on the _____.
Overhead panel
What is the normal source of DC Power?
Transformer rectifier units (TRU’s)
What speed should be maintained in order for the RAT to power all of the Essential Buses.
130kts
The APU GEN button normally remains in the ____ at all times.
On (Pressed)
During normal flight conditions the ____ provide the power.
Integrated drive generators (IDG’s)
What is the minimum battery #2 temperature for APU starting
-20 degrees C
The ____ are the primary power sources for the DC electrical system.
Transformer rectifier units (TRU’s)
The DC ESS BUS 3 is powered by which TRU?
Tru ess
If the temperature of a battery reaches ____ for 2 seconds the EICAS Warning Message BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP is displayed.
70 degrees C
Electrical BUS Icons are what color(s) when the information given is invalid
Amber dashed
If the battery Voltage is less than ____ the BATT icon will display in white.
18
What type of circuit breaker can be reset by the flight crew.
Electronic
The ____ circuit breakers are located on the cockpit sidewall panels and inside the ICCs in the electronics bays.
Thermal
There are ____ detectors in the forward cargo compartment and ____ in the aft cargo compartment.
3,2
The fire protection for the APU consists of ___ extinguishing bottle(s)
1
(T/F) - The fire protection for the engines is manually controlled by rotation of the fire handle by the pilot.
True
Rotating the fire handle to the left discharges bottle ____.
A
The fire zone for an engine is in what compartment?
Core compartment
The fire detection normally runs in the ____ loop mode.
two
On the ground, the APU will automatically shutdown after _________ if APU fire is detected.
10 seconds
The APU fire extinguishing is provided by _____ extinguishing bottle(s)
One
How many smoke detectors in the aft cargo compartment have to detect smoke before the flight deck is notified?
1
Where are the two cargo fire extinguishers located?
Center electronics bay
The forward cargo compartment has ____ smoke detectors and the aft cargo compartment has ____.
3,2
(T/F) - The lavatory smoke detectors use the Ionization principle to detect smoke.
True
(T/F) - In the normal mode the signal is sent from the controls straight to the flight control surface.
False
(T/F) - Autopilot sends a digital signal to the FCM
True
What does ACE stand for
Actuator controls electronics
All flight controls except the _____ are computer controlled.
Ailerons
(T/F) - The active actuators are automatically alternated by the P-ACE upon powerup each flight.
True
What mode would the elevator control system be in if the FCM was bypassed?
Direct
If the elevator is in the Direct mode the display would show what for that elevator?
White box with amber dashes
The elevator command is limited to plus or minus how many degrees for the Elevator Thrust Compensation
5 degrees
To permanently cancel the trim, the pilot would push the _____.
Button on the trim control panel
(T/F) - If the stick shaker is active the HS-ACE will not respond to any pitch commands.
False
What channel of the HS-ACE is powered during an electrical emergency?
Channel 2
Pushing the Rudder Button in on the Flight Control Mode Panel commands both rudder channels to the _____ mode.
Direct
If a jam occurs in the Captain’s rudder pedal assembly, the rudder can still be actuated by _____.
High lever function
What is the hydraulic pressure when the rudder system is operating in the direct mode?
930psi
When the plane is powered only by the RAT, what position are the Slats and Flaps Limited to?
Three
The tic marks at the end of the white slat scale indicate the positions of ______, and the tic marks at the end of the white flap scale indicate the positions of _____.
0 and 25, 0 and 35
Lever Position four is used for ______ and position five is used for _____.
Takeoff, go around, landing
Roll Control is provided by what?
Ailerons, multifunction spoilers
The AFU is installed on what side of the Cable Controls?
Left
Can a disconnect be reset in flight?
no
To what degree do the Ground Spoilers Extend after touchdown?
60 degrees
What function of the Multifunction Spoilers uses both the Normal and the Direct Mode?
Roll spoilers
(T/F) - The guarded spoiler switch is normally in the pushed OUT position.
true
Fuel pressure to the engines and APU is normally provided by one _____ pump in each tank and alternately provided by one _____ pump in each tank.
Ejector, ac powered
(T/F) - The collector tank holds the fuel pumps.
True
The left wing tank normally feeds the ____ engine.
Left
(T/F) - The ejector pump has no moving parts and cannot be turned on or off by the pilot.
True
AC pump 1 is powered by _____ and AC pump 2 is powered by _____.
Ac bus 1, ac ess bus
Three scavenge jet pumps continuously deliver fuel to the _____.
Collector tank
The fuel LO LEVEL warning displays if the fuel in the associated tank reaches to ___ or less.
660 LBS / 300 KGS
The maximum maneuvering pitch with FUEL 1 (2) LOW LEVEL showing is?
+/- 15 degrees
The hydraulic system parameters and indications are displayed on the _____.
Mfd hydraulic synoptic page
The control panel for the hydraulics is located on the _____ side of the overhead panel.
right
When AUTO is selected the electric pump comes on when the flaps are more than what during takeoff and landing?
0
Hydraulic System 1 is driven by the Accessory gearbox of what engine?
Engine 1
The ______ stores hydraulic pressure to help maintain constant system pressure during periods of high pump demands.
Accumulator
System 3 provides power to _____ flight controls.
Primary
(T/F) - In the return line, all fluid is filtered and routed directly back to the reservoir.
True
Systems 2 electric pump is driven by AC BUS _____.
1
The _____ is a mechanical pump, which is driven by system 1 pressure, and uses hydraulic fluid from system 2 to generate pressure for system 2.
PTU
When a pump has failed a(n) _____ will appear on the pump symbol.
Amber cross
If the quantity information is invalid or if the value is out of the displayable range the quantity digital readout displays ______.
Amber dashed
Where is the ice protection control panel?
Overhead panel
The Ice protection system provides hot air to anti ice the ____ and wings.
Engine
In what position is the wing ice protection button normally in?
Pushed in
If a wing anti-ice bleed valve has failed to open and maintenance is required, what EICAS message is displayed?
A/I wing no dispatch
The APU icon on the anti-ice synoptic page -
Only displays on the ground
In flight, the engine and wing anti-ice systems operate _____ in case of ice encounter when the ICE PROTECTION Mode Selector is in _____.
Automatically auto
Will the wipers operate when the windshield is dry?
No
The WHCU operates according to the _______.
Load shedding logic
How long do the Photoluminescent Strips last when fully charged?
7 hours
(T/F) - The Taxi Nose light does NOT move with the nose gear strut.
False
All emergency Lights are illuminated if DC Buses lose electrical power or if airplane electrical power is turned off, as long as the Emergency Light Selector Knob is in the _____ position.
Armed
The controls for the cockpit flood lights are located where?
Glareshield
What color rainbow light illuminates when a passenger in the cabin calls the attendant?
Cyan
(T/F) - The return to seat light comes on when the fasten seat belt sign is turned on.
true
(T/F) - The ADSP measures pitot, static, and angle of attack.
True
What panel is used to switch from one screen to another?
Revisionary panel
(T/F) - When the EICAS is de-cluttered the flap display remains.
False
The _____ are used to control items on the screen and to select various formats.
Menu soft keys
(T/F) - The maintenance page is available only on the right MFD and on the ground.
False
What color does the reference box on the slip/skid indicator turn when the aircraft exceeds a defined value?
Amber
What is the most utilized instrument used for flying the airplane?
Pfd
The radar altimeter provides low altitude awareness up to ____ feet AGL.
2500AGL
(T/F) - During an electrical emergency the PFD display moves over to the MFD.
True
Can the EICAS be displayed on the MFD display?
yes
The selection of any other _____ mode will disengage the TRACK mode.
Lateral
The small green pointer in the middle of the FMA will point in which direction?
Either left or right depending on selected AFCS source
How many degrees do the bold markers on the compass card represent?
30 degrees
(T/F) - When a microphone button is selected on the Audio panel it allows you to transmit in the active VHF.
True
What has the highest priority in the PA system?
Pilots
What is the primary way of tuning radio frequencies?
MCDU
When a VNAV altitude constraint is at or below the constraint, a bar is displayed _____ the constraint value.
Above
If one Radar Altimeter has failed the color of the Radar Altitude Indication is what color?
amber
(T/F) - When the IESS is aligning you should not move the airplane
True
If the Vertical Speed Exceeds 9999 FPM then the digital readout would be _____.
Removed
What color is the Vertical Speed Bug if it is set manually?
Cyan
What happens to the chronometer readout on the PFD when the CHRONOMETER BUTTON on the control wheel has been pushed three times?
Resets
What direction would the pilot need to turn the DATE/SET knob in order to increase the selected number?
Clockwise
The available pressure in the crew oxygen cylinder is displayed on the
MFD Status synoptic page
There are _____ oxygen supply systems for the EMB-175.
2
The oxygen supply control knob on the flight crew’s mask is normally set to what mode for dispatch?
100%
When testing the oxygen mask with the TEST/RESET button, the yellow light ______.
Blinks showing the flow of oxygen
There are three masks on the _____ PSU because infants must be with adults on the ______.
Right side, Right side
(T/F) - If the manual release tool is used the ON light will not illuminate.
True
Where is the APU located?
In the Tail cone area
What is the maximum APU operating altitude?
33,000
Where are the APU indications displayed?
EICAS
Can the APU receive fuel from either fuel tank?
Yes
Can the DC GPU supply DC power to more than the APU Start?
No
The starter cutout occurs approximately at ____ %.
50%
The APU normally receives fuel from which tank?
Tank 2
What are the Engine indications and alerts displayed on?
EICAS
When using maximum power for takeoff the engines produce how many pounds of thrust?
13000
Where is the oil pressure display at?
EICAS
The oil quantity is displayed in _____.
Quarts
The Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger is used for what?
Heating fuel/cooling oil
The FMU meters the fuel in response to what inputs?
FADEC
What controls the ignitors?
FADEC
(T/F) - During a windmill start the Engine Driven Pump solenoid is energized to reduce the drag on the core rotor.
TRUE
The Redline on the ITT represents what?
Max allowable temperature reached
Fuel Flow is measured in ______.
PPH
(T/F) - Inflight the off position of the ignition selector knob is ignored.
TRUE
Only one igniter is used when the plane is ____.
On ground
In degrees, what is the full travel of the thrust levers?
85
The detent for the TO/GA is at what degree of the Thrust Lever?
75
The Fire handles are located on what panel?
Overhead panel
What Additional indication appears when the ATTCS is activated?
(RSV) Reserve
The ATTCS is armed when the Thrust lever is _____ during takeoff or during a go-around.
At the TO/GA position
In order for the Thrust Reverse Triggers to be lifted the Thrust Lever has to be at what position?
Idle
The Thrust Reversers reverse what air?
Fan air
Where is the steering disengage switch for the captain?
Back of the control wheel
When the speed is less than 10kts, what is the max steering angle.
+/- 76
When the landing gear is in transit the EICAS indication displays as ______.
Amber dashes in an amber box
When the Landing gear is up and locked the EICAS indication displays as ____.
The word up in a white box
The first alternative gear extension mode is the _____ and the second alternative gear extension mode is the _____.
Extension override, alternate gear extension
When the landing gear is down and locked the EICAS indication displays as _____.
The word down with a green circle
The maximum allowed steering angle when using rudder pedal steering is _____.
7 degrees
(T/F) - When the handwheel is pushed down it deactivates the rudder pedal steering.
True
Is anti-skid active when using the Emergency/Parking Brake?
No
(T/F) - The Emergency/Parking Brake can use pressure from Hydraulic systems 1, or 2, or the accumulators on the respective systems.
True
What does the digital pressure display as when the pressure is invalid?
Amber dashes
A stabilized approach begins with a thorough approach briefing and is completed ____.
Prior to the top-of-descent (TOD)
Studies have shown that crews make on average ___ errors per flight.
Multiple
Which of the following statements is true of mode 1 excessive descent rate?
Both Visual and aural alert
When is mode 2b excessive terrain closure rate active?
Only active with flaps in the landing configuration
When is mode 3 altitude loss after takeoff active?
With altitude loss after takeoff or go around
Which mode supersedes all other modes
Mode 7 windshear
Which egpws alerts can be inhibited
All the above
How many frequencies must a crew be able to monitor to conduct a prm procedure
2
(T/F) - A crew can conduct an ILS PRM procedure using KSFO ILS R28L
False
(T/F) - A pilot may use the autopilot to execute a breakout maneuver
False
(T/F) - A pilot may transmit on the monitor frequency
False
Besides full interface with an intruder aircraft using mode S TCAS, what other aircraft configurations may display limited data on your tcas display
All of these
A preventative RA requires what?
The crew to maintain a current vertical speed
What tcas term and symbol represent an intruder within 6nm and within 1200 ft?
A white filled diamond
What data is included in the terrain database?
Terrain, airports, obstacles, and modulation data
The terrain clearance floor provides protection for what areas?
Worldwide terrain
A terrain caution provides what kind of alert?
“Caution, terrain” aural, amber “terrain” message and solid yellow map terrain
The ground proximity panel terr inhibit switch will:
Prevent terrain alerts for any phase of flight
What color is the fms data displayed on the pfd
Magenta
How many MCDUs are installed on the EMB-175
2
How many lines are available on the MCDU display?
14
On the MCDU display, what color is the TO waypoint
Magenta
What annunciator flashes when a message is displayed in the scratchpad?
Message (MSG)
What do elements displayed in CYAN represent?
All the above
After the FMS is initially powered, which page would you expect to see in the MCDU?
Radio
After takeoff, when can you expect to see the arrival prompt at 6R on the active flight plane page?
With 200NM of the destination
Which MCDU page allows modification of performance mode and climb, cruise or descent modes?
Performance INIT
Which MCDU page offers the most concise time and fuel report?
Perf Data
On what MCDU page may the active database be verified?
Nav ident
What do elements displayed in green represent?
Lateral data and modes
What statement does NOT describe the estimated position uncertainty?
EPU may be modified by the crew
Which statement is true about RNP?
Entry of delete clears the manual override RNP value
Which statement is true of the DEL key?
Entry of delete to an Isk cancels a pilot entry at that Isk
Which statement about the direct to function is false?
Active prompt will enter a route discontinuity after the first to waypoint
Which statement about FMS defaults for holding patterns is incorrect?
The default speed is the FMS-computed best endurance speed
When entering the identifier or coordinates of a reference waypoint, which of the following does not occur?
The FMS position jumps to the updated position
Which of the following procedural turn data fields is not changeable?
Boundary distance
Which MCDU page will allow viewing your time “crossing 90 west”
Cross Lat-Ion
Which of the following steps would you perform last if atc requests time “abeam den”
Enter den at 1L
When viewing the mod flt plan page, what option does not apply
Insert
Identify the correct procedure for accomplishing an approach to land in extremely cold temperatures
Select temp comp at 6r, then insert at 6r, then activate at 6r
When not using full perf mode, which of the following are not available?
All of the above
Here the cruise performance is based on long range cruise. How can that speed be determined?
It may be viewed on the long range cruise 1/1 page
On descent, when the fms predicts the aircraft will pass at or above constraint, what does the fms do?
The FMS changes to VASEL/VALT mode and levels off at the intermediate constraint
(T/F) - The FMS must be selected as the navigation source and LNAV must be engaged, to see the annunciations shown here.
True
If cleared to a lower than planned altitude and advised by ATC the altitude clearance will be the final altitude, what must the pilot do in order to reprogram the FMS for better fuel predictions?
Delete the current cruise altitude in the FMS CRUISE page 1/1 prior to inserting a new altitude
Which of the following steps are necessary to descend in VFLCH with the FMS commanding the descent? Select all that apply
-When already engaged in VNAV mode push flch
-Before TOD, dial down the altitude preselector to the ATC cleared altitude
-When not already engaged in VNAV mode, psh VNAV
Which statement is true if ATC delays descent beyond the FMS-predicted TOD point?
PSA must be set to the cleared altitude and the FLCH button pushed
What do the colors red and amber signify?
Amber signifies a condition requiring attention and red signifies an abnormal condition
What should a pilot do when an alert message displays on the scratchpad? Place in correct order
1) View message
2) Act on message
3) Clear message
Appr annunciations display only under specific conditions. From the conditions listed below, select one that is not universally required
GPS navigation mode must be valid
What does a WPT annunciator displaying on the PFD advise the pilot
The aircraft will sequence past the active waypoint in 30 seconds
Which statement about the DR annunciator is false?
It occurs after the loss of ADS broadcasting for more than 2 minutes
(T/F) - When landing in winter conditions the use of auto brakes is recommended
True
Icing conditions exist with visible moisture and temperatures below
10 degrees
Ice, snow or frost, disrupts the air flow over the lift and control surfaces and may cause
Severe lift loss and impaired maneuverability
(T/F) - De icing and anti icing can be done in one step
true
Standard temperature and pressure is defined as
59 F or 15 C and 29.92 inches
What are basic Cat 1 minimums
200 ft ceiling 4000 RVR
What are the lowest operating minimums for a Cat 1 approach
200 ft DH, 1800 RVR
Before operating below 2400 RVR what type of lights must you have?
high intensity touchdown zone and runway centerline lighting.
T/F Cat 2 approaches must have more than one RVR reporting system
True
What are the lowest approach minimums for a Cat II approach?
100 feet DH, 1000ft RVR
What is the lowest published visibility minimum for Cat III B approach?
300 RVR
What is the lowest published visibility minimum for a Cat III A approach?
600 RVR
What type or approach has a minimum decision height of 100 ft and a minimum RVR of 1200 ft?
Cat II
