Knowledge Validation Flashcards
The PFDs, MFDs, and the EICAS are classified as what?
Display units (DUs)
To access drop down menus and other on screen items on the MFD you would use what?
Control cursor device (CCD)
The maximum operating altitude for the APU is ______.
33,000 ft
The cockpit controls for the engines are located where?
Control pedestal
What panel allows the pilot to select modes for lateral and vertical flight paths and to select airspeeds?
Guidance panel
Can the pilots control the fire extinguishing for the lavatories?
No
Where are the indications for the cabin pressure displayed?
EICAS
In what tank is the DC pump located?
Right wing tank
How is the water temperature changed for the lavatory faucets?
Rotating the faucet cap
Where is the pressure for the water system normally supplied from?
Engines
What color are the Latch Indications when the door is closed and the main handle is in the down position?
green
(T/F) - When the door is opened from the outside the escape slide automatically disarms?
True
How many seconds after the Emerg Call pushbutton is pressed does the cockpit door unlock, if the INHIB button is not pressed.
30 seconds
What color are Status Messages?
White
What device is used to Scroll through EICAS messages?
CCD (Cursor Control Device)
How many MAU are installed on the EMB-175?
3
What color is the symbol for a Traffic Advisory on the TCAS?
Amber
If your aircraft begins a descent after Takeoff the warning _____ will sound
Don’t sink
Can the APU provide bleed air in-flight?
Yes
What EICAS Message displays when one of the AMS controller channels has failed and the AMS is still in control?
AMS control fault
The pneumatic system indications are displayed on the ______.
Environmental control system synoptic page
(T/F) - When the engine is running the engine bleed valve is normally open.
True
Where are the controls for the air conditioning located?
Overhead panel
How many recirculation fans is the ECS equipped with?
2
What E-bay is not cooled by fans?
Aft equipment bay
(Aft e bay)
What indications are there for the Emergency Ram Air Check Valve?
There are none
How hot does it have to be for the Gasper Shutoff Valve to open?
35 degrees C
When a Pack switch is pushed out, the respective Pack control valve is _____.
Closed
When the FCV has failed the icon is displayed as what?
Amber cross over icon
What color is the icon of the packs when they are off?
White
When the recirculating fans are on, the Icon Indication is displayed gray with what color of windmill?
Green
What is the normal position for the Recirculation Button?
In
How many automatic channels does the CPC have?
2
The _____ is used to protect against cabin overpressure.
positive pressure relief valve
When holding the Cabin Altitude Selector Knob in the down position, the cabin descends at what rate?
50 FPM
What CPCS Mode is not possible if the Cruise Mode is active?
Abort
(T/F) - The flight directors are automatically activated upon autopilot activation.
True
Where is the Guidance Panel located?
center of glare shield
When the Autopilot fails how long does the FMA indication flash?
5 seconds
How many channels does the Autopilot have?
2
If the climb or descent rate is more than the available thrust the FMA will show ____.
LIM
(T/F) - You can turn the TLA mode off and on by using TRS page on the MCDU
True
The Autothrottle System is a part of what larger system?
Thrust management system
When the necessary requirements for the CAT 2 ILS Approach have not been met, what EICAS message is displayed?
Appr 2 not available
At what altitude does the system freeze at the highest capability available, not allowing approach upgrades anymore.
800 ft
The TO mode is selected by pressing the TOGA button when the plane is
On the ground
What is the low bank angle limit
17 degrees
What color does the airspeed tape turn to when the aircraft speed goes above VMO/MMO?
Red
When changing the vertical speed of the aircraft over 1000 feet one click of the thumbwheel is worth how many feet?
100
What is the pitch minimum limit when operating in the TO mode?
8 degrees
What is the pitch commanded by the flight director at Flaps 2?
10 degrees
There are ____ ICCs contained in an EMB 175 electrical system.
4
The Electrical System Control Panel is located on the _____.
Overhead panel
What is the normal source of DC Power?
Transformer rectifier units (TRU’s)
What speed should be maintained in order for the RAT to power all of the Essential Buses.
130kts
The APU GEN button normally remains in the ____ at all times.
On (Pressed)
During normal flight conditions the ____ provide the power.
Integrated drive generators (IDG’s)
What is the minimum battery #2 temperature for APU starting
-20 degrees C
The ____ are the primary power sources for the DC electrical system.
Transformer rectifier units (TRU’s)
The DC ESS BUS 3 is powered by which TRU?
Tru ess
If the temperature of a battery reaches ____ for 2 seconds the EICAS Warning Message BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP is displayed.
70 degrees C
Electrical BUS Icons are what color(s) when the information given is invalid
Amber dashed
If the battery Voltage is less than ____ the BATT icon will display in white.
18
What type of circuit breaker can be reset by the flight crew.
Electronic
The ____ circuit breakers are located on the cockpit sidewall panels and inside the ICCs in the electronics bays.
Thermal
There are ____ detectors in the forward cargo compartment and ____ in the aft cargo compartment.
3,2
The fire protection for the APU consists of ___ extinguishing bottle(s)
1
(T/F) - The fire protection for the engines is manually controlled by rotation of the fire handle by the pilot.
True
Rotating the fire handle to the left discharges bottle ____.
A
The fire zone for an engine is in what compartment?
Core compartment
The fire detection normally runs in the ____ loop mode.
two
On the ground, the APU will automatically shutdown after _________ if APU fire is detected.
10 seconds
The APU fire extinguishing is provided by _____ extinguishing bottle(s)
One
How many smoke detectors in the aft cargo compartment have to detect smoke before the flight deck is notified?
1
Where are the two cargo fire extinguishers located?
Center electronics bay
The forward cargo compartment has ____ smoke detectors and the aft cargo compartment has ____.
3,2
(T/F) - The lavatory smoke detectors use the Ionization principle to detect smoke.
True
(T/F) - In the normal mode the signal is sent from the controls straight to the flight control surface.
False
(T/F) - Autopilot sends a digital signal to the FCM
True
What does ACE stand for
Actuator controls electronics
All flight controls except the _____ are computer controlled.
Ailerons
(T/F) - The active actuators are automatically alternated by the P-ACE upon powerup each flight.
True
What mode would the elevator control system be in if the FCM was bypassed?
Direct
If the elevator is in the Direct mode the display would show what for that elevator?
White box with amber dashes
The elevator command is limited to plus or minus how many degrees for the Elevator Thrust Compensation
5 degrees
To permanently cancel the trim, the pilot would push the _____.
Button on the trim control panel
(T/F) - If the stick shaker is active the HS-ACE will not respond to any pitch commands.
False
What channel of the HS-ACE is powered during an electrical emergency?
Channel 2
Pushing the Rudder Button in on the Flight Control Mode Panel commands both rudder channels to the _____ mode.
Direct
If a jam occurs in the Captain’s rudder pedal assembly, the rudder can still be actuated by _____.
High lever function
What is the hydraulic pressure when the rudder system is operating in the direct mode?
930psi
When the plane is powered only by the RAT, what position are the Slats and Flaps Limited to?
Three
The tic marks at the end of the white slat scale indicate the positions of ______, and the tic marks at the end of the white flap scale indicate the positions of _____.
0 and 25, 0 and 35
Lever Position four is used for ______ and position five is used for _____.
Takeoff, go around, landing
Roll Control is provided by what?
Ailerons, multifunction spoilers
The AFU is installed on what side of the Cable Controls?
Left
Can a disconnect be reset in flight?
no
To what degree do the Ground Spoilers Extend after touchdown?
60 degrees
What function of the Multifunction Spoilers uses both the Normal and the Direct Mode?
Roll spoilers
(T/F) - The guarded spoiler switch is normally in the pushed OUT position.
true
Fuel pressure to the engines and APU is normally provided by one _____ pump in each tank and alternately provided by one _____ pump in each tank.
Ejector, ac powered
(T/F) - The collector tank holds the fuel pumps.
True
The left wing tank normally feeds the ____ engine.
Left
(T/F) - The ejector pump has no moving parts and cannot be turned on or off by the pilot.
True
AC pump 1 is powered by _____ and AC pump 2 is powered by _____.
Ac bus 1, ac ess bus
Three scavenge jet pumps continuously deliver fuel to the _____.
Collector tank
The fuel LO LEVEL warning displays if the fuel in the associated tank reaches to ___ or less.
660 LBS / 300 KGS
The maximum maneuvering pitch with FUEL 1 (2) LOW LEVEL showing is?
+/- 15 degrees
The hydraulic system parameters and indications are displayed on the _____.
Mfd hydraulic synoptic page
The control panel for the hydraulics is located on the _____ side of the overhead panel.
right
When AUTO is selected the electric pump comes on when the flaps are more than what during takeoff and landing?
0
Hydraulic System 1 is driven by the Accessory gearbox of what engine?
Engine 1
The ______ stores hydraulic pressure to help maintain constant system pressure during periods of high pump demands.
Accumulator
System 3 provides power to _____ flight controls.
Primary
(T/F) - In the return line, all fluid is filtered and routed directly back to the reservoir.
True
Systems 2 electric pump is driven by AC BUS _____.
1
The _____ is a mechanical pump, which is driven by system 1 pressure, and uses hydraulic fluid from system 2 to generate pressure for system 2.
PTU
When a pump has failed a(n) _____ will appear on the pump symbol.
Amber cross
If the quantity information is invalid or if the value is out of the displayable range the quantity digital readout displays ______.
Amber dashed
Where is the ice protection control panel?
Overhead panel
The Ice protection system provides hot air to anti ice the ____ and wings.
Engine
In what position is the wing ice protection button normally in?
Pushed in
If a wing anti-ice bleed valve has failed to open and maintenance is required, what EICAS message is displayed?
A/I wing no dispatch
The APU icon on the anti-ice synoptic page -
Only displays on the ground
In flight, the engine and wing anti-ice systems operate _____ in case of ice encounter when the ICE PROTECTION Mode Selector is in _____.
Automatically auto
Will the wipers operate when the windshield is dry?
No
The WHCU operates according to the _______.
Load shedding logic
How long do the Photoluminescent Strips last when fully charged?
7 hours
(T/F) - The Taxi Nose light does NOT move with the nose gear strut.
False
All emergency Lights are illuminated if DC Buses lose electrical power or if airplane electrical power is turned off, as long as the Emergency Light Selector Knob is in the _____ position.
Armed
The controls for the cockpit flood lights are located where?
Glareshield
What color rainbow light illuminates when a passenger in the cabin calls the attendant?
Cyan
(T/F) - The return to seat light comes on when the fasten seat belt sign is turned on.
true
(T/F) - The ADSP measures pitot, static, and angle of attack.
True
What panel is used to switch from one screen to another?
Revisionary panel
(T/F) - When the EICAS is de-cluttered the flap display remains.
False
The _____ are used to control items on the screen and to select various formats.
Menu soft keys
(T/F) - The maintenance page is available only on the right MFD and on the ground.
False
What color does the reference box on the slip/skid indicator turn when the aircraft exceeds a defined value?
Amber
What is the most utilized instrument used for flying the airplane?
Pfd
The radar altimeter provides low altitude awareness up to ____ feet AGL.
2500AGL
(T/F) - During an electrical emergency the PFD display moves over to the MFD.
True
Can the EICAS be displayed on the MFD display?
yes
The selection of any other _____ mode will disengage the TRACK mode.
Lateral
The small green pointer in the middle of the FMA will point in which direction?
Either left or right depending on selected AFCS source
How many degrees do the bold markers on the compass card represent?
30 degrees
(T/F) - When a microphone button is selected on the Audio panel it allows you to transmit in the active VHF.
True
What has the highest priority in the PA system?
Pilots
What is the primary way of tuning radio frequencies?
MCDU
When a VNAV altitude constraint is at or below the constraint, a bar is displayed _____ the constraint value.
Above
If one Radar Altimeter has failed the color of the Radar Altitude Indication is what color?
amber
(T/F) - When the IESS is aligning you should not move the airplane
True
If the Vertical Speed Exceeds 9999 FPM then the digital readout would be _____.
Removed
What color is the Vertical Speed Bug if it is set manually?
Cyan
What happens to the chronometer readout on the PFD when the CHRONOMETER BUTTON on the control wheel has been pushed three times?
Resets
What direction would the pilot need to turn the DATE/SET knob in order to increase the selected number?
Clockwise
The available pressure in the crew oxygen cylinder is displayed on the
MFD Status synoptic page
There are _____ oxygen supply systems for the EMB-175.
2
The oxygen supply control knob on the flight crew’s mask is normally set to what mode for dispatch?
100%
When testing the oxygen mask with the TEST/RESET button, the yellow light ______.
Blinks showing the flow of oxygen
There are three masks on the _____ PSU because infants must be with adults on the ______.
Right side, Right side
(T/F) - If the manual release tool is used the ON light will not illuminate.
True
Where is the APU located?
In the Tail cone area
What is the maximum APU operating altitude?
33,000
Where are the APU indications displayed?
EICAS
Can the APU receive fuel from either fuel tank?
Yes
Can the DC GPU supply DC power to more than the APU Start?
No
The starter cutout occurs approximately at ____ %.
50%
The APU normally receives fuel from which tank?
Tank 2
What are the Engine indications and alerts displayed on?
EICAS
When using maximum power for takeoff the engines produce how many pounds of thrust?
13000
Where is the oil pressure display at?
EICAS
The oil quantity is displayed in _____.
Quarts
The Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger is used for what?
Heating fuel/cooling oil
The FMU meters the fuel in response to what inputs?
FADEC
What controls the ignitors?
FADEC
(T/F) - During a windmill start the Engine Driven Pump solenoid is energized to reduce the drag on the core rotor.
TRUE
The Redline on the ITT represents what?
Max allowable temperature reached
Fuel Flow is measured in ______.
PPH
(T/F) - Inflight the off position of the ignition selector knob is ignored.
TRUE
Only one igniter is used when the plane is ____.
On ground
In degrees, what is the full travel of the thrust levers?
85
The detent for the TO/GA is at what degree of the Thrust Lever?
75
The Fire handles are located on what panel?
Overhead panel
What Additional indication appears when the ATTCS is activated?
(RSV) Reserve
The ATTCS is armed when the Thrust lever is _____ during takeoff or during a go-around.
At the TO/GA position
In order for the Thrust Reverse Triggers to be lifted the Thrust Lever has to be at what position?
Idle
The Thrust Reversers reverse what air?
Fan air
Where is the steering disengage switch for the captain?
Back of the control wheel
When the speed is less than 10kts, what is the max steering angle.
+/- 76
When the landing gear is in transit the EICAS indication displays as ______.
Amber dashes in an amber box
When the Landing gear is up and locked the EICAS indication displays as ____.
The word up in a white box
The first alternative gear extension mode is the _____ and the second alternative gear extension mode is the _____.
Extension override, alternate gear extension
When the landing gear is down and locked the EICAS indication displays as _____.
The word down with a green circle
The maximum allowed steering angle when using rudder pedal steering is _____.
7 degrees
(T/F) - When the handwheel is pushed down it deactivates the rudder pedal steering.
True
Is anti-skid active when using the Emergency/Parking Brake?
No
(T/F) - The Emergency/Parking Brake can use pressure from Hydraulic systems 1, or 2, or the accumulators on the respective systems.
True
What does the digital pressure display as when the pressure is invalid?
Amber dashes
A stabilized approach begins with a thorough approach briefing and is completed ____.
Prior to the top-of-descent (TOD)
Studies have shown that crews make on average ___ errors per flight.
Multiple
Which of the following statements is true of mode 1 excessive descent rate?
Both Visual and aural alert
When is mode 2b excessive terrain closure rate active?
Only active with flaps in the landing configuration
When is mode 3 altitude loss after takeoff active?
With altitude loss after takeoff or go around
Which mode supersedes all other modes
Mode 7 windshear
Which egpws alerts can be inhibited
All the above
How many frequencies must a crew be able to monitor to conduct a prm procedure
2
(T/F) - A crew can conduct an ILS PRM procedure using KSFO ILS R28L
False
(T/F) - A pilot may use the autopilot to execute a breakout maneuver
False
(T/F) - A pilot may transmit on the monitor frequency
False
Besides full interface with an intruder aircraft using mode S TCAS, what other aircraft configurations may display limited data on your tcas display
All of these
A preventative RA requires what?
The crew to maintain a current vertical speed
What tcas term and symbol represent an intruder within 6nm and within 1200 ft?
A white filled diamond
What data is included in the terrain database?
Terrain, airports, obstacles, and modulation data
The terrain clearance floor provides protection for what areas?
Worldwide terrain
A terrain caution provides what kind of alert?
“Caution, terrain” aural, amber “terrain” message and solid yellow map terrain
The ground proximity panel terr inhibit switch will:
Prevent terrain alerts for any phase of flight
What color is the fms data displayed on the pfd
Magenta
How many MCDUs are installed on the EMB-175
2
How many lines are available on the MCDU display?
14
On the MCDU display, what color is the TO waypoint
Magenta
What annunciator flashes when a message is displayed in the scratchpad?
Message (MSG)
What do elements displayed in CYAN represent?
All the above
After the FMS is initially powered, which page would you expect to see in the MCDU?
Radio
After takeoff, when can you expect to see the arrival prompt at 6R on the active flight plane page?
With 200NM of the destination
Which MCDU page allows modification of performance mode and climb, cruise or descent modes?
Performance INIT
Which MCDU page offers the most concise time and fuel report?
Perf Data
On what MCDU page may the active database be verified?
Nav ident
What do elements displayed in green represent?
Lateral data and modes
What statement does NOT describe the estimated position uncertainty?
EPU may be modified by the crew
Which statement is true about RNP?
Entry of delete clears the manual override RNP value
Which statement is true of the DEL key?
Entry of delete to an Isk cancels a pilot entry at that Isk
Which statement about the direct to function is false?
Active prompt will enter a route discontinuity after the first to waypoint
Which statement about FMS defaults for holding patterns is incorrect?
The default speed is the FMS-computed best endurance speed
When entering the identifier or coordinates of a reference waypoint, which of the following does not occur?
The FMS position jumps to the updated position
Which of the following procedural turn data fields is not changeable?
Boundary distance
Which MCDU page will allow viewing your time “crossing 90 west”
Cross Lat-Ion
Which of the following steps would you perform last if atc requests time “abeam den”
Enter den at 1L
When viewing the mod flt plan page, what option does not apply
Insert
Identify the correct procedure for accomplishing an approach to land in extremely cold temperatures
Select temp comp at 6r, then insert at 6r, then activate at 6r
When not using full perf mode, which of the following are not available?
All of the above
Here the cruise performance is based on long range cruise. How can that speed be determined?
It may be viewed on the long range cruise 1/1 page
On descent, when the fms predicts the aircraft will pass at or above constraint, what does the fms do?
The FMS changes to VASEL/VALT mode and levels off at the intermediate constraint
(T/F) - The FMS must be selected as the navigation source and LNAV must be engaged, to see the annunciations shown here.
True
If cleared to a lower than planned altitude and advised by ATC the altitude clearance will be the final altitude, what must the pilot do in order to reprogram the FMS for better fuel predictions?
Delete the current cruise altitude in the FMS CRUISE page 1/1 prior to inserting a new altitude
Which of the following steps are necessary to descend in VFLCH with the FMS commanding the descent? Select all that apply
-When already engaged in VNAV mode push flch
-Before TOD, dial down the altitude preselector to the ATC cleared altitude
-When not already engaged in VNAV mode, psh VNAV
Which statement is true if ATC delays descent beyond the FMS-predicted TOD point?
PSA must be set to the cleared altitude and the FLCH button pushed
What do the colors red and amber signify?
Amber signifies a condition requiring attention and red signifies an abnormal condition
What should a pilot do when an alert message displays on the scratchpad? Place in correct order
1) View message
2) Act on message
3) Clear message
Appr annunciations display only under specific conditions. From the conditions listed below, select one that is not universally required
GPS navigation mode must be valid
What does a WPT annunciator displaying on the PFD advise the pilot
The aircraft will sequence past the active waypoint in 30 seconds
Which statement about the DR annunciator is false?
It occurs after the loss of ADS broadcasting for more than 2 minutes
(T/F) - When landing in winter conditions the use of auto brakes is recommended
True
Icing conditions exist with visible moisture and temperatures below
10 degrees
Ice, snow or frost, disrupts the air flow over the lift and control surfaces and may cause
Severe lift loss and impaired maneuverability
(T/F) - De icing and anti icing can be done in one step
true
Standard temperature and pressure is defined as
59 F or 15 C and 29.92 inches
What are basic Cat 1 minimums
200 ft ceiling 4000 RVR
What are the lowest operating minimums for a Cat 1 approach
200 ft DH, 1800 RVR
Before operating below 2400 RVR what type of lights must you have?
high intensity touchdown zone and runway centerline lighting.
T/F Cat 2 approaches must have more than one RVR reporting system
True
What are the lowest approach minimums for a Cat II approach?
100 feet DH, 1000ft RVR
What is the lowest published visibility minimum for Cat III B approach?
300 RVR
What is the lowest published visibility minimum for a Cat III A approach?
600 RVR
What type or approach has a minimum decision height of 100 ft and a minimum RVR of 1200 ft?
Cat II
The life cycle of a Thunderstorm normally has how many phases?
Three phases
(T/F) - If you have entered a thunderstorm, it is best to maintain your course as it will be the fastest way out of the storm
True
A _____ is a condition that occurs outside the control of you and your flight crew that increases the complexity of your flight, and requires crew attention and management to maintain a safe operation
Threat
Which of the following is easiest to recover from?
Threat
(T/F) - In spite of avionics advancements, such as egpws, CFIT accidents continue to be one of the major causes of commercial jet airplane accidents and fatalities
True
The addition of _____ enhanced the early ground proximity warning system and allowed the flight crew to see, receive alerts, for terrain in front of the aircraft
Aircraft GPS position and a worldwide terrain database
Probably the number one factor contributing to CFIT accidents is
Loss of situational awareness
The cornerstone of good flight deck CRM involves ____ flight crew actions
All are correct
Which of the following is considered supporting information for the basic EGPWS modes 1-7
All of the above
(T/F) - Look ahead terrain alerting capability is considered an enhancement feature of the EGPWS
True
In RVSM airspace, what is the vertical separation between aircraft?
1000 ft
RVSM airspace includes
FL 290-FL410
(T/F) - Asr approaches have both lateral and vertical guidance
False
(T/F) - Envoy has radar approach plates of some airports
True
(T/F) - A controller will always supply recommended altitudes on final
False
(T/F) - A controller can give heading or timed turns
True
(T/F) - A controller will give instructions to perform a missed approach if safe guidance cannot be provided
True
(T/F) - Pilots should request termination of guidance if the runway is in sight
True
(T/F) - Pilots should request recommended altitudes be given each mile on final if desired
True
(T/F) - ASR approaches are normally straight in approaches
True
(T/F) - Once on final turns should be made at standard rate
True
(T/F) - Standard rate turns are define at 3 degrees per second
true
What is not a factor for max gross takeoff weight
zero fuel weight
(T/F) - Wet/dry runways require the same minimum landing length
false
What does a net climb gradient guarantee
clear all obstacles in the 4 climb segments by a minimum of 35 ft
The height of the cabin is _____ in the center.
2.0 M/6.56 ft
The overall length of the EMB-175 is ____.
31.68 M/ 103 ft 11 in
(T/F) The radome of the plane is pressurized.
False
If the power selection switch is in the NORMAL position what powers the defueling system?
DC Buses 1 & 2
In the manual mode for refuel selection, what must the refueler do to stop refueling?
Select the refueling switch to the CLOSED position
Where are the taxi lights located?
Nose gear strut and on each wing root
What are the different modes of the cockpit quick donning O2 mask?
All are correct
- Normal Setting – Oxygen and air mixture
- 100% setting – Pure oxygen at all altitudes
- Emergency setting – Pure oxygen with positive pressure
The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated when?
All are true
- Manually when windshear warning or caution condition is detected and TOGA switch is pressed
- Automatically when windshear warning condition is detected and thrust lever is set to TO/GA position
- Automatically when Windshear warning condition is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA
What is the difference between the Pedestal PA button and the ACP PA button?
Both are correct
- ACP Button is active/hot mic after being selected and must be deselected after use to change to inactive/cold mic
- Pedestal is active/hot mic only when pressed
What will happen if the batteries are turned off during the one minute cool down period?
APU will shut down immediately
When does DES NOW appear on the FP page?
Within 50 miles of the TOD
What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?
Back up for the flight controls
What does DES NOW do?
Allows the aircraft to descend early at 1000fpm until PTH intercept
What does a “CAS MSG” mean on the PFD(s)?
All are correct
- CAS miscompare monitoring detects miscompare
- If the 2 CAS messages are continuously different for 20 sec a mis-compare indication is shown
- Indicates that the CAS lists from the 2 monitor Warning Function computers do not match
In the air, when will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate with both engines running?
Both are correct
- Flaps greater than 0
- Engine failure or EDP failure
How are root cause messages depicted on the EICAS?
Chevron next to EICAS message
Can the “Landing Gear” aural warning be silenced by pushing the LG WRN INHIB button?
Yes
If the primary and secondary radio functions are not available, how would you tune the COMMs, NAVs, and Transponder?
Via the Backup Tuning function on MCDU 2
What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed when smoke has been detected?
All are correct
- If airplane is on the ground (WOW), the low rate bottle will not automatically discharge
- High rate bottle discharges immediately
- Low rate bottle discharges after 1 minute in flight
When will the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL EICAS message be presented?
660lbs of fuel remaining in the tank
Which of the following can provide DC power to the aircraft?
All are correct
- 2 NICAD batteries
- DC GPU
- 3 TRU’s
What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?
There are no high level functions available in direct mode
What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?
Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight
How are the engines and APU protected from fire?
Both are correct
- Engines have 2 halon fire bottles
- APU has 1 halon fire bottle
How may the NAVs be tuned?
Both are correct
- Either MCD via the RADIO page
- Respective sides CCD/PFD
- CA’s Side: COMM/NAV1
- FO’s Side: COMM/NAV2
What are some of the systems that use hydraulic power?
Both are correct
- Spoilers
- Nose wheel steering
Where does the APU get its fuel?
Both are correct
- Right fuel tank
- Left fuel tank through the crossfeed valve
What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?
All are correct
- Gain on airspeed
- Elevator thrust compensation
- AOA limiting/Stall protection
What speed will the FD command during a One Engine Inoperative Go-Around when the GA Button is pressed?
Vac
What target speed will the flight director (FD) command during a go-around?
Both are correct
- All engines operating – Vref + 20 kt
- Single engine - Vac
What page appears, by default, when the FMS units are first powered?
Radio page
Is there a total loss of power during the 8 second RAT deployment?
No, because the batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSSES and AC STANDBY BUS
A table of aircraft altitudes, cabin altitudes and pressure differentials that can be used as a ballpark comparison to check for normal cabin pressurization is contained in the:
QRH
Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?
Left tank
How many igniters per engine?
2
Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for deicing?
No
What keeps the gear locked in position?
Extended – Downlock springs/Retracted up lock hooks
The Emergency Lights Power Units provide electrical energy to power the internal Emergency Lighting system for ___ minutes.
10
Do the FADECs alternate automatically during the engine start?
Yes, unless a fault is noted
What is the primary use for the APU bleed air?
All are correct
- Assist with engine airstart below FL210
- ECS on the ground
- Engine start on the ground
- Bleed source for pressurization, heating, and cooling (<15,000ft MSL)
How is a “bad” DVDR test alerted?
A CVR AFT (FWD) FAIL advisory message on the EICAS when the button is pressed
A portable ELT is installed in the passenger cabin and located:
In the last left hand side overhead bin
What compressor stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?
High Stage Valve (HSV)
How many cargo compartments are on the E175?
2
How does the Auto Flight Control System (AFCS) provide for stall protection?
By limiting the Angle of Attack (AOD) via the available control column authority (i.e. prevents the available pitch that the control column is capable of requesting.)
How many PBE’s are provided in the E175 Cockpit?
1
What mode does FLCH use to maintain speed?
SPDe
When does the auto-throttle automatically disengage?
All are correct
- Thrust levers beyond the TOGA position
- Reverse thrust during RTO
- After touchdown
- Non-normal disengagement
- Difference in TLA greater than 8 degrees
- Auto-throttle failure
How many primary fuel tanks does the aircraft have?
2 integral tanks
How do you turn the Engine Anti-Ice on for icing conditions on the ground for T/O?
Via the MCDU on the T/O Data set menu
When the crew initiates a Go-Around, the SPEED selector is in MAN. When is the earliest the Crew can select SPEED to FMS?
Flaps up or zero
When do you get a gear disagree message?
20 seconds after the discrepancy is detected
Can a normal APU shutdown be cancelled?
Yes, by moving the start switch back to ON before the one minute cool down is over
What is the SECT function?
Selecting this reduces the angle of sweep from 60 degrees to 30 degrees and increases the sweep to 24 sweeps per minute
What is the minimum oxygen for the cockpit crew?
Both are correct
- 3 crew Green for 3
- 2 crew: Blue for 2
Do the cockpit crew and passengers share the same emergency oxygen?
No, the cockpit uses an oxygen cylinder and the cabin passengers use oxygen chemical generators
How many Taxi Lights are available on the aircraft?
Both Nose Landing Gear and Side Lights
Are both cargo compartments pressurized?
Yes
What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?
All are correct
- Engine bleeds and packs
- Plumbing for the wing and anti-ice system
- APU bleed
The EGPWS database consists of all hard surface runways that are greater than ____ feet in length.
3500
What does FMA stand for?
Flight Mode Annunciator
How is BATT 2 configured during an APU start?
Both are correct
- BATT 2 is isolated from the system
- BATT 2 is tied directly to the APU start bus to power the APU starter
What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?
Slats extend first and retract last
How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?
2 bottles (may only be used in one compartment)
1 high rate bottle and 1 low rate bottle
What are some of the items that the crew verifies on the NAV IDENT page?
All are correct
- Date
- Time
- Software version
How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?
3 in the FWD, 2 in the AFT
Can cargo extinguishing be used if no smoke is detected?
Both are correct
- The low rate bottle discharges after 1 minute in flight
- Yes, the high rate bottle extinguishing button must be pressed twice, once to arm and once to discharge
Can the DV windows be removed by the crew?
No
What is the purpose of the AC fuel pump?
All are correct
- Engine start
- Crossfeed operations
- Back up in case of primary ejector pump fails
What is the priority for the trim system?
Backup, CA, FO, autopilot
How do you override the FSBY mode on the ground?
Both
- Both pilots select the FSBY OVRD menu item on the respective weather controllers
- One pilot selects the STAB OFF box 4 times in less than 3 seconds, enabling the WX mode
What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?
All are correct
- Closes the engine hydraulic SOV
- Closes the engine bleed SOV and crossbleed valve
- Closes the engine fuel SOV
(T/F) The anti-skid system will stop the airplane for all runway conditions in a shorter distance than is possible with either anti-skid off or brake pedal modulation.
True
What are the basic modes of the flight director?
ROLL and FPA
What happens if a PFD fails?
The PFD information should revert to the respective side MFD
How many data bases does the FMS interface with?
3 (Navigational, custom, aircraft)
How many cabin doors provide access to the aircraft cabin?
4
What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during an approach?
The minimum N1 required in icing conditions
How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice on the wings?
From onside or crosside
What is the PTU?
Power transfer unit
We know the dashed lead in markings approaching a runway is 150’. If I am exiting a runway and stopped at the beginning of these markings (which is 150’ from the runway), I know I am clear of the runway because my plane is only ___ long.
104 feet
When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL
Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in direct mode?
No, but roll spoiler function is available via default programmed values
What activates when the flight deck oxygen masks are removed from their storage unit?
All are correct
- Flow of oxygen
- Flight deck speakers
- Mask microphone
Can a single ECS pack provide temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, but limited to operations at or below FL310
What is the purpose of the inverter?
Convert 28V DC from the batteries to 115V AC to power the Standby Bus when an AC source is not available
What is the purpose of the collector box?
Both are correct
- Ensures constant fuel flow to the engine
- Keeps the fuel pumps submerged
How are flight controls trimmed?
Both are correct
Pitch is via the horizontal stabilizer repositioned
Roll and Yaw: Ailerons and rudder surface repositioned to a new neutral position
The engine may be started via what means?
All are correct
- Opposite engine cross-bleed start
- Windmill start
- APU
- Ground Source (Huffer cart or Air Bottle)
How many igniters activate for engine start?
Both are correct
- Ground – 1 igniter (AUTO)
- Air – 2 igniters (AUTO)
What are some of the parameters that must be met to enable APPR 2?
All are correct
- Both RA/BARO knobs set to RA
- Both NAV frequencies set to the correct LOC frequency in the MCDU
- Both PFD’s set to the correct LOC inbound course
- SLAT/FLAP 5 MAX
How many ice detectors must be working to have ice protection?
One
How may the COMMs be tuned?
Both are correct
- Either MCD via the RADIO page
- Respective sides CCD/PFD
- CA’s Side: COMM/NAV1
- FO’s Side: COMM/NAV2
What is the purpose of the Ramp Horn button installed in the cockpit?
To call Ground Personnel via a horn sound when pressed
If one of the AOA Limiting sensors fail in flight, will the Stall Protection system still be capable of performing the AOA limiting?
No
How many ECS packs are installed?
2 packs (left and right)
When does the DVDR start recording Audio?
Aircraft power up
What are some of the fuel pumps that are located in each wing?
All are correct
- Primary ejector pump
- AC fuel pump
- Scavenge pump
What fuel pumps are capable of providing fuel to the APU?
All are correct
- Batteries ON only – DC fuel pump in right tank
- Right engine running – RH ejector fuel pump
- AC powered – ACMP 2
What are some reasons the APU will shut down on the ground?
All are correct
- FADEC critical fault
- Overspeed
- APU high oil temperature
When does the windshield heat perform its BIT?
When a single AC power is available (IDG) the corresponding windshield heat will heat for 120 sec
(T/F) A “Plug Type” door uses aircraft pressurization to push the door into the frame and ensures a good seal.
True
How would you recognize an ADS failure?
All are correct
- An EICAS message alerting the crew of the failure
- The affected PFD loses all air data information
- A red cross is shown over the failed PFD
What are some items the Takeoff Configuration System check?
All are checked
- Parking Brake Applied
- Any spoiler panel deployed
- Flaps not in takeoff position
How do you manually extend the landing gear in event of a failure of the gear handle?
Landing gear override switch/Alternate landing gear handle to free fall the gear
How are the aircraft batteries charged?
An AC power source providing power to the TRU’s
What is powered via the AC Standby Bus?
Engine exciters 1A and 2A
Where is the external ground source panel located
Lower fairing between the wings
When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur in flight?
All are correct
- Underspeed
- FADEC critical fault
- Overspeed
How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions on the ground?
All
How is SE taxi possible on ENG 1 as nosewheel steering is on HYD 2?
Both are correct
- ACMP 2 will activate if engine 1 is running and the parking brake released
- Parking brake set after taxi, pump will continue running for 6 minutes
How do you know that VNAV has been selected?
The top right box of the FMA is magenta
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
Yes
Which statement(s) is true regarding the Fire test?
All are correct
- The fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady
- The fire aural warning sounds
- The fire warning light on the ITT indicators illuminate
Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU?
No, there is a check valve
What is the purpose of the accumulator?
All are correct
- Helps maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands
- Provides a backup source of hydraulic energy or pressure
- Helps to avoid pump cavitation
If a PFD has failed and occupies the MFD and then the EICAS fails, what happens?
EICAS goes to the opposite MFD
What do the primary control electronics (P-ACE) control?
The rudder and elevator surfaces
What is the RAT rated at?
All are correct
- 15KVA
- 400Hz
- 115V AC
When pressing the Annunciator Test Button all striped bars and caption indications illuminate except?
All are correct
- Fire Test lights
- EMRG/PRKG Brake light
- GPU Pushbutton light
When does the DVDR start recording flight data?
After the first engine start
The CLB thrust mode engages when?
All are correct
- Landing gear retracted
- Airplane above 400’ AGL
- Any change in FD vertical mode
How do you select auto-tune if not already selected?
All are correct
- Must be in FMS mode
- Preview must be off
- Double select standby NAV frequency and set it or delete frequency ID on PROG page
How do Ice Detectors work/function?
Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it. Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, normal vibrating characteristic are restored and the heating stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuild on the probes
Can you use the emergency brakes at high speeds?
Yes – Carefully there is no anti-skid
When are the recirculation fans commanded off?
All are correct
- Dump button is pressed
- Respective pack is commanded off
- Cockpit switch
- Smoke detected in the recirc bay
What is the steering angle for the Nosewheel steering?
Variable (based on speed): I. +/- 76 degrees up to 10 knots ii. +/- 7 degrees at 100 knots
What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed with the flight deck oxygen masks not stowed?
All are correct
- Oxygen flow is stopped
- Deactivates flight deck speakers
- Deactivates mask microphone
When can you use the TURB mode?
When in WX mode at selected ranges of 50 NM or less
The TCAS is intended to serve as a backup to?
All are correct
- Visual collision avoidance
- Air traffic separation
- Application of the Right of Way rules
When will the RAT deploy?
Both answers are correct
- Manually via the RAT deployment handle
- Main AC busses loss power
What happens when you turn the APU start knob to ON?
All are correct
- Opens the APU fuel shutoff valve
- Displays APU EICAS information following FADEC self-test
- Powers the APU FADEC
Where can the Oxygen quantity be read?
Both are correct
- MFD Status page (corrected for temperature)
- At the oxygen cylinder panel (uncorrected for temperature)
Non-normal autopilot disengages when?
All are correct
- AP button pressed on the guidance panel
- Either stick shaker is activated
- Windshear escape guidance is activated
- Either manual pitch trim is activated
The DC Electric Fuel pump is used to provide pressurized fuel for normal APU operations and engine starting when?
When AC power is not available
How many life vests are located within the E175 Cockpit?
3
What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 2 failure or EDP 2 failure
During an engine start the FADEC will prevent fuel flow introduction with an ITT greater than?
120 C
What controls the engine?
A two channel FADEC
1 channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup
How would you “correct” an IRS failure?
In case of an individual failure, the opposite IRS can be selected on the reversionary panel
What’s the coldest fuel temperature for takeoff?
-37 degrees C
What does moving the APU start switch to OFF do?
All are correct
- Starts the 1 minute cool down
- Closes the APU bleed valve
- Initiates normal APU shutdown
What are the two main parts that make up the flight control electronics?
Both are correct
- The flight control module (FCM)
- The primary actuator control electronics (P-ACE)
What alerts are generated during a windshear caution or windshear warning?
Both are correct
- Caution – Amber WSHR on the PFD, aural “Caution Windshear”
- Warning – Red WSHR on the PFD, aural “Windshear, Windshear, Windshear”
Can a single bleed source power both ECS packs?
Yes, through a crossbleed valve
During preflight, how would you know if the cockpit crew oxygen had been over pressurized?
The green blowout disc would be missing on the right forward side of the fuselage
When will the Flight Director (FD) automatically turn on in flight?
All are correct
- Autopilot engagement
- Manual selection of any vertical and lateral mode
- TO/GA button actuation
- Windshear detection
What is the priority for AC power on the aircraft?
Respective IDG (onside), APU (inside), GPU (outside) Opposite IDG (cross side)
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected?
After 1 minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
What stops the wheels from spinning during retraction?
Main Gear: BCM applies brakes after weight on wheels-Nose gear: Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels
When is glideslope inhibit automatically reset?
Climbing above 2000 ft
When would you press the guarded GRD PROX FLAP OVRD button?
When flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration (Zero or Reduced Flap settings)
What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?
Both are correct
- Crossfeed valve is opened
- ACMP 2 turns on to provide fuel from the right tank to both engines
How is a crew alerted when the aircraft approaches a stall?
Stick Shaker Activation
How many hydraulic pumps are on the aircraft?
6
What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?
All are correct
- APU
- Cargo compartments
- Lavatories
- Engines
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 1 (VFE1)
230 KIAS
Which hydraulic pump cannot be deferred?
Pump 3A
What happens after 3 overspeed detection events?
FADEC will not re-light the engine
(3 events within 30 seconds to trigger it)
The Flap System is _____ operated.
Electrically
What uses electric heat for ice protection?
All
- Water lines
- Pitot Static System – Pressurization static port
- Windshields
What protections are provided for braking?
All
- Touchdown
- Locked Wheel
- Anti-Skid
Why are HYD ACMP 3A and 3B switches labeled ON and AUTO?
Both are correct
- 3A pump is primary and has no automation
- 3B pump is a back-up and automatically activates if 3A fails
What is bleed air used for?
All are correct
- ECS (heating and cooling)
- Engine and wing anti-icing
- Engine start
- Water pressurization
What are the brake temperature indications?
Green: Normal/Amber: Caution/Amber dashed: Invalid
In AUTO, when does the Ice Protection system function automatically?
After 1700 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff (regardless of MCDU setting)
How many Cockpit Escape Ropes are available in the E175?
2
What is the purpose of the pre-cooler?
Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?
All are correct
- APU shuts off immediately (without a 1-minute cool down)
- APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
- APU fuel SOV closes
How is roll controlled?
Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)
Can fuel be transferred from tank to tank or be dumped overboard?
No
What overheat protection is provided for the hydraulic system?
All are correct
- 100 C causes High Temperature EICAS caution message
- 125 C shutoff valve will automatically actuate
- 145 C causes Hydraulic Overheat EICAS warning message
Temperature is 0 degrees C with a cloud layer at 1,200 OVC. MCDU Anti-Ice is selected for ALL. When do the ENG and WING anti-ice valves open?
ENG – Engine running
WING – Wheel speed > 40 KT
What is the normal disengagement process for the autopilot?
All are correct
- Pressing once triggers the aural warning “autopilot”
- Pressing the quick disconnect button on either control wheel
- Pressing a second time cancels the aural warning and cancels the FMA annunciation
When is the electrical and pneumatic loading available during APU start?
95% RPM plus 3 seconds
What is protected from ice and rain?
All
- Smart probes – Water and waste drains
- Windshields
- Engine inlets
- Wing leading edge
What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger (I.e. Fuel cooled oil cooler)
Do the main cabin door slides need to be disarmed inside prior to using the outside door handle to open the door in order to prevent a slide deployment?
No
What is the oxygen duration of an oxygen chemical generator?
12 minutes
What is the purpose of the surge/vent tank?
Both are correct
- Collects fuel during wing down maneuvers and returns it to the main tanks
- Equalizes tank pressure during refueling
What are the three ways that the landing gear may be extended?
All
- Normal – LG lever DOWN
- Electric override – Bypasses PSEM to control selector valve
- Alternate gear extension – Manual uplock release opens Free-Fall Sequencing Valve
Are faults in the water system monitored from the cockpit?
No
The IDG and APU generator is electrically rated at which of the following?
All are correct
- 40KVA
- 400Hz
- 115V AC
How do you change the range of the radar?
Through the CCD
When testing the oxygen mask the yellow flow indicator _____.
Blinks showing oxygen flow
The APU will automatically shut down if an APU Fire is detected ____.
On the ground
The APU will automatically shut down ten seconds after an APU Fire Warning when the aircraft is _____.
On the ground
(T/F) An approach briefing, completed prior to the top-of-descent, followed by consistent Verbalization, Verification, and Monitoring, reduces approach and landing accidents.
True
Pressure altitude can be determined by ____.
Setting 29.92 inches as the altimeter setting and reading the altitude directly from the altimeter
How do we define and impending stall?
An angle of attack that causes a stall warning, or the first indication of a stall
How to we define a full stall?
Any one or combination of the following characteristics:
An uncommanded nose-down pitch that cannot be readily arrested, which may be accompanied by an uncommanded rolling motion
Buffeting of a magnitude and severity that is a strong and effective deterrent to a further increase in AOA
No further increase in pitch occurs when the pitch control is held at the aft full stop for 2 seconds, leading to an inability to arrest descent rate
Activation of a stick pusher
How do we define a secondary stall?
The premature increase in angle of attack that results in another full stall during recovery, prior to a stable flight condition being established
How do we define an airplane upset?
An airplane in flight unintentionally exceeding the parameters normally experienced inline operations or training
How do we define a Startle?
An uncontrollable, automatic muscle reflex, raised heart rate, blood pressure, etc. Caused by exposure to a sudden, intense event that violates expectations
How do we define a surprise?
An unexpected event that violates a pilot’s expectations and can affect the mental processes used to respond to the event
What defines the flight envelope for any airplane?
The operational limits – stall speeds, placarded maximum speeds, and the positive and negative load factor limits
How do we define the Angle of Attack?
It’s the angle between the oncoming air or relative wind and a reference line on the airplane or wing
How do we define an undesired aircraft state?
A position, velocity, or attitude of an aircraft that reduces or eliminates safety margins
What color is the ideal speed dot?
Green
(T/F) Bleed air is provided to the Vertical and Horizontal Stabilizer for Anti-Icing.
False
The fuel level in the collector that triggers the Fuel Low warning normally occurs if the fuel quantity in the associated tank is ___.
660 lbs
When within 200ft radio altitude the maximum bank angle is reduced to what degree?
+/- 5 degrees
External Power voltage will be displayed on the ___.
MFD
What color and shape, is the drift down speed, or slat/flap extension speed on the speed tape?
Green Dot
If the airspeed is manually selected what color will it be?
Cyan
What is the range of the radar?
10-300NM
What does the WML indication mean on the EICAS?
All are correct
Wind-milling engine
FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto relight
An assisted start has been commanded
Can hydraulic fluid be transferred between each system?
No
Can you have windshield heat in flight with a single source AC?
Yes, but only the left windshield is heated, unless the left heating system fails, then the right will be powered
What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump?
Used for APU or engine start if no AC fuel pump or AC power
During a Takeoff or a Go-Around an engine fails. PF commands GEAR UP. PM is unable to move the Landing Gear Lever to the UP position. Pressing the DN LOCK RLS Button on the Landing Gear Lever _____.
Mechanically releases the Landing Gear Lever lock
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Yes, but only on the ground during a hot start, hung start or no light-off
What is the purpose of the BANK button?
Enables and disables bank angle to 17 degrees in HDG mode
All TCAS aural advisories are inhibited when the present position altitude is below?
400’ AGL during descent, or 600’ AGL during climb
What are some of the Emergency equipment items located within the cockpit?
All are correct
Fire extinguisher
3 life vests
3 O2 masks
PBE
Crash Axe
2 Escape ropes
When will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
On the ground (after 10 seconds)
What is external pneumatic air used for?
Both are correct
ECS on the ground
Engine start on the ground
What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff or landing?
10 knots
When pressing the Annunciator Test Button all striped bars and caption indications illuminate except?
All are correct
Fire Test lights
EMRG/PRKG Brake light
GPU Pushbutton light
Once a chemical oxygen generator (cabin) is activated, can it be shut off?
No
When does the VTA appear?
One minute prior to TOD
Which of the following FMA color codes are correct?
All are correct
White – Armed mode
Green – Non FMS commanded active/engaged mode
Magenta – FMS commanded active/engaged mode
Amber - Alert condition
Red - Abnormal condition
When does the DVDR start recording flight data?
After the first engine start
What battery is used for the APU ground start?
Both are correct
BATT 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring
BATT 2 powers the starter
What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?
Pull the associated engine fire handle
What is the purpose of the Brake Control Module (BCM)?
All
Touchdown protection
Anti-Skid protection
Locked wheel protection
How many multi-function spoilers are on each wing?
5 total spoiler panels (only the outboard 3 on each side are considered multi-function spoilers)
What happens if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?
FADEC limits respective engine thrust to idle
What does the hydraulic shutoff button do when pressed on the overhead panel?
Both are correct
Closes the shutoff valve
Isolates fluid from the pump but doesn’t shut it down
How long does the fly by wire backup battery (lead acid) last?
15 minutes
Which of the following TO pitch angle logic is correct when airborne and IAS speed greater than target?
All are correct
Both engines operating – V2 + 10kt
Single engine failure below V2 – V2
Single engine failure above V2 – V2 + 10kt
Engine Failure between V2 and V2 + 10kt: Maintains Speed
How many brake applications does the emergency brake provide?
The accumulators have sufficient pressure to provide six full-brake applications
Can the pilot override the automatic function of the Anti-Ice system?
Yes
What uses bleed air for ice protection?
Engine Cowls – Outboard slats (3)
What is the maximum temperature for takeoff and landing?
54 degrees C
What is the purpose of the Ice Detector(s)?
They command the ENG and WING Anti-ice valves to open
At what temperature would you expect to see “BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP” on the EICAS?
Greater than 70 degrees C
How are the brakes commanded?
All
Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
Brake by wire
Pedal position transduces send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module)
The flight crew will verify cockpit oxygen quantity via _____.
The MFD STATUS page
When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?
Both are correct
Both packs commanded or failed off below FL250
Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via the right side)
When cleared for a LOC approach the proper selection on the FGC is _____.
NAV
When is the IESS powered?
Both are correct
When BATT 1 is ON
When BATT 2 is AUTO
What happens to artificial feel if the ailerons or elevators are disconnected?
Both are correct
If the elevator is jammed, artificial feel is half the normal load
If the CA side (left aileron) is jammed, there is no artificial feel on the FO’s side
The amber IDG lights on the overhead panel will illuminate for which of the following?
Both are correct
Low oil pressure
High oil pressure
Does the FADEC provide underspeed and overspeed protection?
Yes
Windshear detection is activated between?
10’ and 1500’ during initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases
After takeoff, the wing anti-ice system performs a self-test upon ____.
Reaching 10,000 feet AGL or 10 minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first
ATC requests 0.84 Mach. I say “NO” because I know what my maximum Mach speed is?
0.82 Mach
Is takeoff permitted if the brake temperature is in the Amber range?
No – Brake temps must be in the green before takeoff
What is the minimum airspeed that the RAT is capable or providing AC power?
130kt (load shedding occurs below this speed)
How can you shut down the APU immediately?
APU emergency stop button (no 1-minute cool down period)
Will a loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to revert to direct mode?
Yes
What sources are used for airplane anti-icing and de-icing?
Bleed air heat – Electric heat
What will trigger an ATTCS event?
All are correct
Engine failure during TOGA (or)
Windshear detected (or)
N1 difference > 15% between engines
When is the free wheel steering mode automatically activated?
All
Steering failure > 76 degrees
Steering system failure
Air/Ground system failure
What is the Maneuvering Airspeed (VA)
240 KIAS
What controls ATTCS?
Engine FADEC
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
Maintains fuel level in the collector box
What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
Both are correct
FWD cargo ventilation outflow valve closes
FWD cargo recirculation fan shuts off
What does the PBE provide?
All are correct
Blue indication – Good
Pressurized oxygen and protection from smoke, fire and fumes up to 40,000 ft for at least 15 minutes
Pink indication – Bad
Vacuum loss: Bad (even with a blue indication)
(T/F) An aircraft that is pressurizing normally will hold any door or DV window shut until the aircraft is depressurized.
True
How are the lavs protected from fire?
Thermal plugs melt at a set temperature allowing release of the halon bottle(s)
The IDGs are monitored and controlled by which of the following?
Dedicated Generator Control Unit (GCU)
If an engine fails, does the opposite wing receive ice protection?
Yes. The crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings
What is the maximum slat/flap setting if the RAT is deployed?
3
How is the APU controlled?
Via a dedicated FADEC
What is the only primary flight control that is not Fly-By-Wire (FBW)
Ailerons
What is FLEX?
Reduced takeoff thrust based on an assumed temperature (telling the FADEC that it is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)
On the ground, when will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate with both engines running?
All are correct
TL Set to T/O
Wheel-speed greater than 50kt
Flaps greater than 0
Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?
No
Which of the following is part of the normal engine start sequence (on the ground)?
All are correct
20% N2 – Fuel flow
50% N2 – Ignition off/starter cutout
7% N2 – Ignition
5 sec after Fuel Flow: Light-off (IGN ON)
Is one detection loop capable of detecting an overheat condition?
Yes, if one fails the other will work
When CARGO SMOKE FWD or AFT illuminates and the Flight Crew follows QRH procedure, pressing the illuminated push button, how long will the reduced flow rate extinguishing agent remain in the cargo compartment?
75 Minutes with a 60 minute diversion time allowed
Automatic ice detection is enabled above ___ ft AGL or ___ minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first.
1700, 2
How many hydraulic systems does the E175 have?
Three systems
When are the AIR Data Smart Probes and TAT probes heated?
Whenever and engine is running or airborne
The APU is MEL’d. Unintentionally, both engines were shut down before the GPU was connected. Some displays and systems shut down immediately. How long will the battery power the remaining displays and systems?
10 minutes
When will the speed brakes automatically close, even if the lever shows deployed?
All are correct
Flaps equal or greater than 2
Airspeed less than 180
TLA greater than 70 degrees
What are some of the items that the IRS computes?
All are correct
Airplane position
Ground Speed
Heading
What display units normally display when batteries are set to ON and AUTO?
Display units 2 and 3
Can the igniters be turned off during flight?
The switch can be turned off but the FADEC disregards the command
The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 2 (VFE2)
215 KIAS
When does the de-clutter of the EICAS activate?
30 sec after gear up, flaps/slats retracted and all parameters normal
What is the FWD cargo limit (F1)
3306 pounds
What is the hydraulic pressure during normal operation of the EDP’s?
3000psi
What does EICAS Full button do?
Turns off the de-clutter mode
When does the N1 WING ANTI-ICE Cyan line appear?
Displayed only in icing conditions during final approach (below RA 1200ft), with Landing Gear Down or Flaps Extended
(T/F) If a pilot modulates the brake pedals, the anti-skid system is forced to readjust the brake pressure to establish optimum braking
TRUE
What does the RAT directly power?
AC ESS BUS
What is the minimum battery voltage to start the APU without following a recharge procedure?
22.5V DC
How are the engine cowls heated?
Hot Bleed Air – 10th stage compressor section
Who can perform the test for the anti-ice system?
Maintenance
Can the oxygen door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?
Yes, with a manual release tool located at each FA station
How do the landing gear doors actuate?
Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction
How can the low rate bottle be discharged if the airplane is on the ground?
The extinguishing button must be pressed again
How long after deployment before the RAT will supply power?
8 seconds
What is the engine starter limitation for the first two starts on the ground
90 secs
During flight, can the low-rate bottle be discharged before the 1 minute is up?
Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again
Which hydraulic system(s) control the Nosewheel steering?
HYD 2
What happens to the flight control system when the RAT deploys and is the only AC power source?
All are correct
Slat/flap system operates at ½ speed
Horizontal stab trim operates at ½ speed
Slat/flap position is limited to 3
What is the maximum allowable Cabin Negative Differential Pressure?
-0.5 psi
How long does it take for the IESS to align?
90 seconds
If an “abnormal door indication” is received in flight, crews should:
Both are correct
Communicate with Dispatch
Send an M20 message to alert MOC that maintenance will be needed
What ways can you disconnect the nosewheel steering?
Disconnect switch on the either yoke/Disconnect switch on GPU access panel
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed (VMO) from 10,000 to FL280
320 KIAS
What are some higher level functions associated with yaw?
All are correct
Yaw damping
Turn coordination
Gain on airspeed: as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases
Thrust asymmetry
How is the engine and APU fire detection and protection described?
Both are correct
Engine has 4 heat sensing loops (2 per engine)
APU has 2 heat sensing loops
How is the Landing Gear normally extended and retracted?
Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
What is the maximum Turbulent airspeed at or above 10,000?
Either one, whichever is lower
270 KIAS
.76M
What type of batteries are installed on the aircraft?
2 NiCad 22.8V DC, 27A
What pump is used once an engine is started?
Primary ejector pump
If I took off from Aspen with APU ECS. Enroute to Chicago I notice my APU still running climbing through 13,500’ MSL. How high can I climb using the APU for bleed air?
15,000 feet
At FL 370 IDG 1 Fails and after running the QRH it directs me to start the APU. I would need to descend to FL300 to start it. How high can I climb while using the APU for electrical supply?
33,000 feet
Fire Protection is provided for which systems?
Engines, APU, Cargo, Lav Trash Bin
What is the maximum speed for Flaps FULL (VFEFULL)
165 KIAS
Can a high rate bottle be used for one compartment and a low rate bottle for the other compartment?
No
Does the Engine Bleed valve fail open or closed?
Fail safe open if either the electrical or pressure signal are not present
How is the auto-throttle (AT) armed while on the ground?
AT button pressed on the guidance panel
No AT Active Failures
What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff on a wet runway?
30 Knots
How many Stick Pushers are available on the E175 (I.e. motors)?
0
How do you know if VNAV has been selected?
Mode in the upper right box of the FMA is magenta
(T/F) QRH guidance states that when an “abnormal door indication” is received, the flight may continue safely if the aircraft pressurization is normal.
True
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed (VMO) below 10,000
250 KIAS
What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?
All
HYD 2 = Inboard Brakes
HYD 1&2 = Emergency/Parking Brake
HYD 1 = Outboard Brakes
What is the maximum altitude for takeoff and landing
10,000 feet
What would be the indication of an APU fire?
All are correct
Fire aural warning
Red stripe in the EMER STOP button
APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS
What are the functions of the multi-function spoilers?
Both are correct
2 inboard spoilers used only as ground spoilers
3 outboard spoilers used for roll control, speed brakes and ground spoilers
What is the initial pitch guidance when the GA mode is active?
8 degrees
Before TOD, dial down the altitude preselector to the ATC cleared altitude
When not already engaged in VNAV mode, psh VNAV
I am flying at FL370 and an engine has failed. What is the highest altitude at which I can do an APU assisted engine start?
21,000 feet
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 5(VFE5)
180 KIAS
What is the maximum headwind for a CAT II approach
25 knots
What is the width of the E175
94 feet
What does ATTCS stand for?
Automatic takeoff thrust control system
What is the minimum oil pressure
25 psi
I would need to make an AML entry if during an engine start if the ITT exceeded what temperature?
815 degrees C
What is the AFT cargo limit (R1)
2,535 pounds
What is the maximum operating altitude
41,000 feet
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 4 (VFE4)
180 KIAS
What is the maximum altitude to fly depressurized
10,000 feet or MEA, whichever is higher
Which of the following can provide AC power to the aircraft?
All are correct
APU
IDG’s
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
We know that transient oil temperature of 163 degrees Celsius is allowed for fifteen minutes and continuous maximum oil temperature is ____.
155 degrees C
How many portable oxygen cylinders are installed in the cabin
3 – 1 in the FWD section and 2 in the AFT section (2 masks per cylinder)
What keeps the 3 Avionic E-bays cool?
Both are correct
FWS and CTR E-bay fans (3) full air from the Cabin to E-bay
AFT E-bay Natural air-flow from the cabin to bay
Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?
Both are correct
6th and 10 stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)
System alternates between valves to regulate and adequate and safe pressure)
When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur on the ground?
All are correct
Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC critical fault
APU Fire
APU EGT overtemp
APU High oil temp
APU Low oil pressure
Sensor fail
What provides AC power to the aircraft?
2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
APU
AC inverter
RAT
AC GPU
The Integrated Drive Generators (IDG’s) and APU Generator are electrically rated at ___?
All
115 VAC
40 KVA
400 Hz
What manages the electrical system?
Both are correct
4 integrated Control Center (ICC)
2 Secondary power distribution Assemblies (SPDA)
Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote electronic CB’s?
Both are correct
ICC CB’s can only be reset by maintenance on the ground
SPDA CB’s can be reset via the MCDU
Describe how BATT 2 is configured during a APU start?
BATT 2 is isolated from the system and tied directly to the APU START BUS to power the APU starter
What is the min BATT VDC to start the APU without following a Recharge Procedure?
22.5 VDC
What types of engines are on the aircraft?
2 General Electric CF34-8E5
High bypass ratio, 2-spool, Axial flow, Turbo fan
How much thrust do the engines produce when set to TO-1 & RSV?
TO-1: 13000 (ISA at sea level)
TO RSV: 14200 (ISA at sea level)
Do the FADEC(s) alternate automatically during engine start?
Yes (unless a fault is noted)
When does the CYAN line appear?
Configured for landing < 1200’RA
What provides underspeed and over speed protection?
The FADEC via the FMU (Fuel Metering Unit)
@ Approximately 52% N2 and 102% N2 respectively
What controls the ATTCS?
All are correct
FADEC controlled
Provides max thrust reverse (RSV) according to the current rate previously selected via the MCDU
When is thrust reverse available?
WOW (ground use only)
What is the time limit for TOGA thrust?
5 minutes
Flex thrust is limited to no more than ___ percent of the normal TO-1 or TO-2 Thrust?
25%
What is the power source for engine and APU fire detection and protection?
All are correct
Engine Detection: DC ESS
Engine Protection: HOT BATT
APU Detection: DC ESS
APU Protection: DC ES
Describe the Fire Test
When the TEST button on the fire protection panel is pressed, it initiates the following:
AURAL
The fire aural warning(s) sound
LIGHTS
The master WARNING lights flash
The fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady
The APU fire-extinguishing button and the upper half of the APU emergency stop button to illuminate
EICAS MESSAGES
ENG 1 FIRE
ENG 2 FIRE
APU FIRE
CRG AFT SMOKE
CRG FWD SMOKE
EICAS INDICATIONS
The FIRE Warning light on the ITT indicators illuminate
SYSTEM CONFIGURATIONS
The forward cargo compartment fans turn off
The cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve closes (only when bleed air is being provided by the engines or the APU)
What is the difference between the high-rate bottle and the low-rate bottle?
High-rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately
The low-rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time
How long will the Halon remain active in the compartment if both the high and low rate bottles are discharged?
60 minutes
Can one bottle be used for one compartment and the other bottle for the other compartment?
No
Will the multi-function spoilers function in ”DIRECT” mode?
Yes, but a default fixed gain is used
Direct Mode Logic:
In the event of a FCM Failure, the spoiler associated with the FCM turns to the direct mode
The other spoilers remain in the normal mode
Speed brakes and ground spoilers will not work
What is the minimum temperature for takeoff and landing
-40 degrees C
When S.E. taxiing (ENG 1 or 2) and the APU running, would both windshields be heated?
Yes, there would be normal windshield heating since you have two sources of AC power
What is the maximum oil pressure
95 psi
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 3 (VFE3)
200 KIAS
While flying over the Rockies enroute to Calgary at FL 390, I observe my Cabin Differential Pressure to be 8.1 psi. This is OK because my maximum Cabin Differential is?
8.4 psi
(T/F) I can carry 64 coach passengers in the E175 and 54 in the E170.
False
At FL370, IDG One fails. I ask the PM to look up the procedure in the QRH. I know I need two AC electrical sources. What’s the highest altitude that I Can start the APU?
30,000 feet
