Knowledge Validation Flashcards
1
Q
The PFDs, MFDs, and the EICAS are classified as what?
A
Display units (DUs)
2
Q
To access drop down menus and other on screen items on the MFD you would use what?
A
Control cursor device (CCD)
3
Q
The maximum operating altitude for the APU is ______.
A
33,000 ft
4
Q
The cockpit controls for the engines are located where?
A
Control pedestal
5
Q
What panel allows the pilot to select modes for lateral and vertical flight paths and to select airspeeds?
A
Guidance panel
6
Q
Can the pilots control the fire extinguishing for the lavatories?
A
No
7
Q
Where are the indications for the cabin pressure displayed?
A
EICAS
8
Q
In what tank is the DC pump located?
A
Right wing tank
9
Q
How is the water temperature changed for the lavatory faucets?
A
Rotating the faucet cap
10
Q
Where is the pressure for the water system normally supplied from?
A
Engines
11
Q
What color are the Latch Indications when the door is closed and the main handle is in the down position?
A
green
12
Q
(T/F) - When the door is opened from the outside the escape slide automatically disarms?
A
True
13
Q
How many seconds after the Emerg Call pushbutton is pressed does the cockpit door unlock, if the INHIB button is not pressed.
A
30 seconds
14
Q
What color are Status Messages?
A
White
15
Q
What device is used to Scroll through EICAS messages?
A
CCD (Cursor Control Device)
16
Q
How many MAU are installed on the EMB-175?
A
3
17
Q
What color is the symbol for a Traffic Advisory on the TCAS?
A
Amber
18
Q
If your aircraft begins a descent after Takeoff the warning _____ will sound
A
Don’t sink
19
Q
Can the APU provide bleed air in-flight?
A
Yes
20
Q
What EICAS Message displays when one of the AMS controller channels has failed and the AMS is still in control?
A
AMS control fault
21
Q
The pneumatic system indications are displayed on the ______.
A
Environmental control system synoptic page
22
Q
(T/F) - When the engine is running the engine bleed valve is normally open.
A
True
23
Q
Where are the controls for the air conditioning located?
A
Overhead panel
24
Q
How many recirculation fans is the ECS equipped with?
A
2
25
What E-bay is not cooled by fans?
Aft equipment bay
(Aft e bay)
26
What indications are there for the Emergency Ram Air Check Valve?
There are none
27
How hot does it have to be for the Gasper Shutoff Valve to open?
35 degrees C
28
When a Pack switch is pushed out, the respective Pack control valve is _____.
Closed
29
When the FCV has failed the icon is displayed as what?
Amber cross over icon
30
What color is the icon of the packs when they are off?
White
31
When the recirculating fans are on, the Icon Indication is displayed gray with what color of windmill?
Green
32
What is the normal position for the Recirculation Button?
In
33
How many automatic channels does the CPC have?
2
34
The _____ is used to protect against cabin overpressure.
positive pressure relief valve
35
When holding the Cabin Altitude Selector Knob in the down position, the cabin descends at what rate?
50 FPM
36
What CPCS Mode is not possible if the Cruise Mode is active?
Abort
37
(T/F) - The flight directors are automatically activated upon autopilot activation.
True
38
Where is the Guidance Panel located?
center of glare shield
39
When the Autopilot fails how long does the FMA indication flash?
5 seconds
40
How many channels does the Autopilot have?
2
41
If the climb or descent rate is more than the available thrust the FMA will show ____.
LIM
42
(T/F) - You can turn the TLA mode off and on by using TRS page on the MCDU
True
43
The Autothrottle System is a part of what larger system?
Thrust management system
44
When the necessary requirements for the CAT 2 ILS Approach have not been met, what EICAS message is displayed?
Appr 2 not available
45
At what altitude does the system freeze at the highest capability available, not allowing approach upgrades anymore.
800 ft
46
The TO mode is selected by pressing the TOGA button when the plane is
On the ground
47
What is the low bank angle limit
17 degrees
48
What color does the airspeed tape turn to when the aircraft speed goes above VMO/MMO?
Red
49
When changing the vertical speed of the aircraft over 1000 feet one click of the thumbwheel is worth how many feet?
100
50
What is the pitch minimum limit when operating in the TO mode?
8 degrees
51
What is the pitch commanded by the flight director at Flaps 2?
10 degrees
52
There are ____ ICCs contained in an EMB 175 electrical system.
4
53
The Electrical System Control Panel is located on the _____.
Overhead panel
54
What is the normal source of DC Power?
Transformer rectifier units (TRU’s)
55
What speed should be maintained in order for the RAT to power all of the Essential Buses.
130kts
56
The APU GEN button normally remains in the ____ at all times.
On (Pressed)
57
During normal flight conditions the ____ provide the power.
Integrated drive generators (IDG’s)
58
What is the minimum battery #2 temperature for APU starting
-20 degrees C
59
The ____ are the primary power sources for the DC electrical system.
Transformer rectifier units (TRU’s)
60
The DC ESS BUS 3 is powered by which TRU?
Tru ess
61
If the temperature of a battery reaches ____ for 2 seconds the EICAS Warning Message BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP is displayed.
70 degrees C
62
Electrical BUS Icons are what color(s) when the information given is invalid
Amber dashed
63
If the battery Voltage is less than ____ the BATT icon will display in white.
18
64
What type of circuit breaker can be reset by the flight crew.
Electronic
65
The ____ circuit breakers are located on the cockpit sidewall panels and inside the ICCs in the electronics bays.
Thermal
66
There are ____ detectors in the forward cargo compartment and ____ in the aft cargo compartment.
3,2
67
The fire protection for the APU consists of ___ extinguishing bottle(s)
1
68
(T/F) - The fire protection for the engines is manually controlled by rotation of the fire handle by the pilot.
True
69
Rotating the fire handle to the left discharges bottle ____.
A
70
The fire zone for an engine is in what compartment?
Core compartment
71
The fire detection normally runs in the ____ loop mode.
two
72
On the ground, the APU will automatically shutdown after _________ if APU fire is detected.
10 seconds
73
The APU fire extinguishing is provided by _____ extinguishing bottle(s)
One
74
How many smoke detectors in the aft cargo compartment have to detect smoke before the flight deck is notified?
1
75
Where are the two cargo fire extinguishers located?
Center electronics bay
76
The forward cargo compartment has ____ smoke detectors and the aft cargo compartment has ____.
3,2
77
(T/F) - The lavatory smoke detectors use the Ionization principle to detect smoke.
True
78
(T/F) - In the normal mode the signal is sent from the controls straight to the flight control surface.
False
79
(T/F) - Autopilot sends a digital signal to the FCM
True
80
What does ACE stand for
Actuator controls electronics
81
All flight controls except the _____ are computer controlled.
Ailerons
82
(T/F) - The active actuators are automatically alternated by the P-ACE upon powerup each flight.
True
83
What mode would the elevator control system be in if the FCM was bypassed?
Direct
84
If the elevator is in the Direct mode the display would show what for that elevator?
White box with amber dashes
85
The elevator command is limited to plus or minus how many degrees for the Elevator Thrust Compensation
5 degrees
86
To permanently cancel the trim, the pilot would push the _____.
Button on the trim control panel
87
(T/F) - If the stick shaker is active the HS-ACE will not respond to any pitch commands.
False
88
What channel of the HS-ACE is powered during an electrical emergency?
Channel 2
89
Pushing the Rudder Button in on the Flight Control Mode Panel commands both rudder channels to the _____ mode.
Direct
90
If a jam occurs in the Captain's rudder pedal assembly, the rudder can still be actuated by _____.
High lever function
91
What is the hydraulic pressure when the rudder system is operating in the direct mode?
930psi
92
When the plane is powered only by the RAT, what position are the Slats and Flaps Limited to?
Three
93
The tic marks at the end of the white slat scale indicate the positions of ______, and the tic marks at the end of the white flap scale indicate the positions of _____.
0 and 25, 0 and 35
94
Lever Position four is used for ______ and position five is used for _____.
Takeoff, go around, landing
95
Roll Control is provided by what?
Ailerons, multifunction spoilers
96
The AFU is installed on what side of the Cable Controls?
Left
97
Can a disconnect be reset in flight?
no
98
To what degree do the Ground Spoilers Extend after touchdown?
60 degrees
99
What function of the Multifunction Spoilers uses both the Normal and the Direct Mode?
Roll spoilers
100
(T/F) - The guarded spoiler switch is normally in the pushed OUT position.
true
101
Fuel pressure to the engines and APU is normally provided by one _____ pump in each tank and alternately provided by one _____ pump in each tank.
Ejector, ac powered
102
(T/F) - The collector tank holds the fuel pumps.
True
103
The left wing tank normally feeds the ____ engine.
Left
104
(T/F) - The ejector pump has no moving parts and cannot be turned on or off by the pilot.
True
105
AC pump 1 is powered by _____ and AC pump 2 is powered by _____.
Ac bus 1, ac ess bus
106
Three scavenge jet pumps continuously deliver fuel to the _____.
Collector tank
107
The fuel LO LEVEL warning displays if the fuel in the associated tank reaches to ___ or less.
660 LBS / 300 KGS
108
The maximum maneuvering pitch with FUEL 1 (2) LOW LEVEL showing is?
+/- 15 degrees
109
The hydraulic system parameters and indications are displayed on the _____.
Mfd hydraulic synoptic page
110
The control panel for the hydraulics is located on the _____ side of the overhead panel.
right
111
When AUTO is selected the electric pump comes on when the flaps are more than what during takeoff and landing?
0
112
Hydraulic System 1 is driven by the Accessory gearbox of what engine?
Engine 1
113
The ______ stores hydraulic pressure to help maintain constant system pressure during periods of high pump demands.
Accumulator
114
System 3 provides power to _____ flight controls.
Primary
115
(T/F) - In the return line, all fluid is filtered and routed directly back to the reservoir.
True
116
Systems 2 electric pump is driven by AC BUS _____.
1
117
The _____ is a mechanical pump, which is driven by system 1 pressure, and uses hydraulic fluid from system 2 to generate pressure for system 2.
PTU
118
When a pump has failed a(n) _____ will appear on the pump symbol.
Amber cross
119
If the quantity information is invalid or if the value is out of the displayable range the quantity digital readout displays ______.
Amber dashed
120
Where is the ice protection control panel?
Overhead panel
121
The Ice protection system provides hot air to anti ice the ____ and wings.
Engine
122
In what position is the wing ice protection button normally in?
Pushed in
123
If a wing anti-ice bleed valve has failed to open and maintenance is required, what EICAS message is displayed?
A/I wing no dispatch
124
The APU icon on the anti-ice synoptic page -
Only displays on the ground
125
In flight, the engine and wing anti-ice systems operate _____ in case of ice encounter when the ICE PROTECTION Mode Selector is in _____.
Automatically auto
126
Will the wipers operate when the windshield is dry?
No
127
The WHCU operates according to the _______.
Load shedding logic
128
How long do the Photoluminescent Strips last when fully charged?
7 hours
129
(T/F) - The Taxi Nose light does NOT move with the nose gear strut.
False
130
All emergency Lights are illuminated if DC Buses lose electrical power or if airplane electrical power is turned off, as long as the Emergency Light Selector Knob is in the _____ position.
Armed
131
The controls for the cockpit flood lights are located where?
Glareshield
132
What color rainbow light illuminates when a passenger in the cabin calls the attendant?
Cyan
133
(T/F) - The return to seat light comes on when the fasten seat belt sign is turned on.
true
134
(T/F) - The ADSP measures pitot, static, and angle of attack.
True
135
What panel is used to switch from one screen to another?
Revisionary panel
136
(T/F) - When the EICAS is de-cluttered the flap display remains.
False
137
The _____ are used to control items on the screen and to select various formats.
Menu soft keys
138
(T/F) - The maintenance page is available only on the right MFD and on the ground.
False
139
What color does the reference box on the slip/skid indicator turn when the aircraft exceeds a defined value?
Amber
140
What is the most utilized instrument used for flying the airplane?
Pfd
141
The radar altimeter provides low altitude awareness up to ____ feet AGL.
2500AGL
142
(T/F) - During an electrical emergency the PFD display moves over to the MFD.
True
143
Can the EICAS be displayed on the MFD display?
yes
144
The selection of any other _____ mode will disengage the TRACK mode.
Lateral
145
The small green pointer in the middle of the FMA will point in which direction?
Either left or right depending on selected AFCS source
146
How many degrees do the bold markers on the compass card represent?
30 degrees
147
(T/F) - When a microphone button is selected on the Audio panel it allows you to transmit in the active VHF.
True
148
What has the highest priority in the PA system?
Pilots
149
What is the primary way of tuning radio frequencies?
MCDU
150
When a VNAV altitude constraint is at or below the constraint, a bar is displayed _____ the constraint value.
Above
151
If one Radar Altimeter has failed the color of the Radar Altitude Indication is what color?
amber
152
(T/F) - When the IESS is aligning you should not move the airplane
True
153
If the Vertical Speed Exceeds 9999 FPM then the digital readout would be _____.
Removed
154
What color is the Vertical Speed Bug if it is set manually?
Cyan
155
What happens to the chronometer readout on the PFD when the CHRONOMETER BUTTON on the control wheel has been pushed three times?
Resets
156
What direction would the pilot need to turn the DATE/SET knob in order to increase the selected number?
Clockwise
157
The available pressure in the crew oxygen cylinder is displayed on the
MFD Status synoptic page
158
There are _____ oxygen supply systems for the EMB-175.
2
159
The oxygen supply control knob on the flight crew's mask is normally set to what mode for dispatch?
100%
160
When testing the oxygen mask with the TEST/RESET button, the yellow light ______.
Blinks showing the flow of oxygen
161
There are three masks on the _____ PSU because infants must be with adults on the ______.
Right side, Right side
162
(T/F) - If the manual release tool is used the ON light will not illuminate.
True
163
Where is the APU located?
In the Tail cone area
164
What is the maximum APU operating altitude?
33,000
165
Where are the APU indications displayed?
EICAS
166
Can the APU receive fuel from either fuel tank?
Yes
167
Can the DC GPU supply DC power to more than the APU Start?
No
168
The starter cutout occurs approximately at ____ %.
50%
169
The APU normally receives fuel from which tank?
Tank 2
170
What are the Engine indications and alerts displayed on?
EICAS
171
When using maximum power for takeoff the engines produce how many pounds of thrust?
13000
172
Where is the oil pressure display at?
EICAS
173
The oil quantity is displayed in _____.
Quarts
174
The Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger is used for what?
Heating fuel/cooling oil
175
The FMU meters the fuel in response to what inputs?
FADEC
176
What controls the ignitors?
FADEC
177
(T/F) - During a windmill start the Engine Driven Pump solenoid is energized to reduce the drag on the core rotor.
TRUE
178
The Redline on the ITT represents what?
Max allowable temperature reached
179
Fuel Flow is measured in ______.
PPH
180
(T/F) - Inflight the off position of the ignition selector knob is ignored.
TRUE
181
Only one igniter is used when the plane is ____.
On ground
182
In degrees, what is the full travel of the thrust levers?
85
183
The detent for the TO/GA is at what degree of the Thrust Lever?
75
184
The Fire handles are located on what panel?
Overhead panel
185
What Additional indication appears when the ATTCS is activated?
(RSV) Reserve
186
The ATTCS is armed when the Thrust lever is _____ during takeoff or during a go-around.
At the TO/GA position
187
In order for the Thrust Reverse Triggers to be lifted the Thrust Lever has to be at what position?
Idle
188
The Thrust Reversers reverse what air?
Fan air
189
Where is the steering disengage switch for the captain?
Back of the control wheel
190
When the speed is less than 10kts, what is the max steering angle.
+/- 76
191
When the landing gear is in transit the EICAS indication displays as ______.
Amber dashes in an amber box
192
When the Landing gear is up and locked the EICAS indication displays as ____.
The word up in a white box
193
The first alternative gear extension mode is the _____ and the second alternative gear extension mode is the _____.
Extension override, alternate gear extension
194
When the landing gear is down and locked the EICAS indication displays as _____.
The word down with a green circle
195
The maximum allowed steering angle when using rudder pedal steering is _____.
7 degrees
196
(T/F) - When the handwheel is pushed down it deactivates the rudder pedal steering.
True
197
Is anti-skid active when using the Emergency/Parking Brake?
No
198
(T/F) - The Emergency/Parking Brake can use pressure from Hydraulic systems 1, or 2, or the accumulators on the respective systems.
True
199
What does the digital pressure display as when the pressure is invalid?
Amber dashes
200
A stabilized approach begins with a thorough approach briefing and is completed ____.
Prior to the top-of-descent (TOD)
201
Studies have shown that crews make on average ___ errors per flight.
Multiple
202
Which of the following statements is true of mode 1 excessive descent rate?
Both Visual and aural alert
203
When is mode 2b excessive terrain closure rate active?
Only active with flaps in the landing configuration
204
When is mode 3 altitude loss after takeoff active?
With altitude loss after takeoff or go around
205
Which mode supersedes all other modes
Mode 7 windshear
206
Which egpws alerts can be inhibited
All the above
207
How many frequencies must a crew be able to monitor to conduct a prm procedure
2
208
(T/F) - A crew can conduct an ILS PRM procedure using KSFO ILS R28L
False
209
(T/F) - A pilot may use the autopilot to execute a breakout maneuver
False
210
(T/F) - A pilot may transmit on the monitor frequency
False
211
Besides full interface with an intruder aircraft using mode S TCAS, what other aircraft configurations may display limited data on your tcas display
All of these
212
A preventative RA requires what?
The crew to maintain a current vertical speed
213
What tcas term and symbol represent an intruder within 6nm and within 1200 ft?
A white filled diamond
214
What data is included in the terrain database?
Terrain, airports, obstacles, and modulation data
215
The terrain clearance floor provides protection for what areas?
Worldwide terrain
216
A terrain caution provides what kind of alert?
"Caution, terrain" aural, amber "terrain" message and solid yellow map terrain
217
The ground proximity panel terr inhibit switch will:
Prevent terrain alerts for any phase of flight
218
What color is the fms data displayed on the pfd
Magenta
219
How many MCDUs are installed on the EMB-175
2
220
How many lines are available on the MCDU display?
14
221
On the MCDU display, what color is the TO waypoint
Magenta
222
What annunciator flashes when a message is displayed in the scratchpad?
Message (MSG)
223
What do elements displayed in CYAN represent?
All the above
224
After the FMS is initially powered, which page would you expect to see in the MCDU?
Radio
225
After takeoff, when can you expect to see the arrival prompt at 6R on the active flight plane page?
With 200NM of the destination
226
Which MCDU page allows modification of performance mode and climb, cruise or descent modes?
Performance INIT
227
Which MCDU page offers the most concise time and fuel report?
Perf Data
228
On what MCDU page may the active database be verified?
Nav ident
229
What do elements displayed in green represent?
Lateral data and modes
230
What statement does NOT describe the estimated position uncertainty?
EPU may be modified by the crew
231
Which statement is true about RNP?
Entry of delete clears the manual override RNP value
232
Which statement is true of the DEL key?
Entry of delete to an Isk cancels a pilot entry at that Isk
233
Which statement about the direct to function is false?
Active prompt will enter a route discontinuity after the first to waypoint
234
Which statement about FMS defaults for holding patterns is incorrect?
The default speed is the FMS-computed best endurance speed
235
When entering the identifier or coordinates of a reference waypoint, which of the following does not occur?
The FMS position jumps to the updated position
236
Which of the following procedural turn data fields is not changeable?
Boundary distance
237
Which MCDU page will allow viewing your time "crossing 90 west"
Cross Lat-Ion
238
Which of the following steps would you perform last if atc requests time "abeam den"
Enter den at 1L
239
When viewing the mod flt plan page, what option does not apply
Insert
240
Identify the correct procedure for accomplishing an approach to land in extremely cold temperatures
Select temp comp at 6r, then insert at 6r, then activate at 6r
241
When not using full perf mode, which of the following are not available?
All of the above
242
Here the cruise performance is based on long range cruise. How can that speed be determined?
It may be viewed on the long range cruise 1/1 page
243
On descent, when the fms predicts the aircraft will pass at or above constraint, what does the fms do?
The FMS changes to VASEL/VALT mode and levels off at the intermediate constraint
244
(T/F) - The FMS must be selected as the navigation source and LNAV must be engaged, to see the annunciations shown here.
True
245
If cleared to a lower than planned altitude and advised by ATC the altitude clearance will be the final altitude, what must the pilot do in order to reprogram the FMS for better fuel predictions?
Delete the current cruise altitude in the FMS CRUISE page 1/1 prior to inserting a new altitude
246
Which of the following steps are necessary to descend in VFLCH with the FMS commanding the descent? Select all that apply
-When already engaged in VNAV mode push flch
-Before TOD, dial down the altitude preselector to the ATC cleared altitude
-When not already engaged in VNAV mode, psh VNAV
247
Which statement is true if ATC delays descent beyond the FMS-predicted TOD point?
PSA must be set to the cleared altitude and the FLCH button pushed
248
What do the colors red and amber signify?
Amber signifies a condition requiring attention and red signifies an abnormal condition
249
What should a pilot do when an alert message displays on the scratchpad? Place in correct order
1) View message
2) Act on message
3) Clear message
250
Appr annunciations display only under specific conditions. From the conditions listed below, select one that is not universally required
GPS navigation mode must be valid
251
What does a WPT annunciator displaying on the PFD advise the pilot
The aircraft will sequence past the active waypoint in 30 seconds
252
Which statement about the DR annunciator is false?
It occurs after the loss of ADS broadcasting for more than 2 minutes
253
(T/F) - When landing in winter conditions the use of auto brakes is recommended
True
254
Icing conditions exist with visible moisture and temperatures below
10 degrees
255
Ice, snow or frost, disrupts the air flow over the lift and control surfaces and may cause
Severe lift loss and impaired maneuverability
256
(T/F) - De icing and anti icing can be done in one step
true
257
Standard temperature and pressure is defined as
59 F or 15 C and 29.92 inches
258
What are basic Cat 1 minimums
200 ft ceiling 4000 RVR
259
What are the lowest operating minimums for a Cat 1 approach
200 ft DH, 1800 RVR
260
Before operating below 2400 RVR what type of lights must you have?
high intensity touchdown zone and runway centerline lighting.
261
T/F Cat 2 approaches must have more than one RVR reporting system
True
262
What are the lowest approach minimums for a Cat II approach?
100 feet DH, 1000ft RVR
263
What is the lowest published visibility minimum for Cat III B approach?
300 RVR
264
What is the lowest published visibility minimum for a Cat III A approach?
600 RVR
265
What type or approach has a minimum decision height of 100 ft and a minimum RVR of 1200 ft?
Cat II
266
The life cycle of a Thunderstorm normally has how many phases?
Three phases
267
(T/F) - If you have entered a thunderstorm, it is best to maintain your course as it will be the fastest way out of the storm
True
268
A _____ is a condition that occurs outside the control of you and your flight crew that increases the complexity of your flight, and requires crew attention and management to maintain a safe operation
Threat
269
Which of the following is easiest to recover from?
Threat
270
(T/F) - In spite of avionics advancements, such as egpws, CFIT accidents continue to be one of the major causes of commercial jet airplane accidents and fatalities
True
271
The addition of _____ enhanced the early ground proximity warning system and allowed the flight crew to see, receive alerts, for terrain in front of the aircraft
Aircraft GPS position and a worldwide terrain database
272
Probably the number one factor contributing to CFIT accidents is
Loss of situational awareness
273
The cornerstone of good flight deck CRM involves ____ flight crew actions
All are correct
274
Which of the following is considered supporting information for the basic EGPWS modes 1-7
All of the above
275
(T/F) - Look ahead terrain alerting capability is considered an enhancement feature of the EGPWS
True
276
In RVSM airspace, what is the vertical separation between aircraft?
1000 ft
277
RVSM airspace includes
FL 290-FL410
278
(T/F) - Asr approaches have both lateral and vertical guidance
False
279
(T/F) - Envoy has radar approach plates of some airports
True
280
(T/F) - A controller will always supply recommended altitudes on final
False
281
(T/F) - A controller can give heading or timed turns
True
282
(T/F) - A controller will give instructions to perform a missed approach if safe guidance cannot be provided
True
283
(T/F) - Pilots should request termination of guidance if the runway is in sight
True
284
(T/F) - Pilots should request recommended altitudes be given each mile on final if desired
True
285
(T/F) - ASR approaches are normally straight in approaches
True
286
(T/F) - Once on final turns should be made at standard rate
True
287
(T/F) - Standard rate turns are define at 3 degrees per second
true
288
What is not a factor for max gross takeoff weight
zero fuel weight
289
(T/F) - Wet/dry runways require the same minimum landing length
false
290
What does a net climb gradient guarantee
clear all obstacles in the 4 climb segments by a minimum of 35 ft
291
The height of the cabin is _____ in the center.
2.0 M/6.56 ft
292
The overall length of the EMB-175 is ____.
31.68 M/ 103 ft 11 in
293
(T/F) The radome of the plane is pressurized.
False
294
If the power selection switch is in the NORMAL position what powers the defueling system?
DC Buses 1 & 2
295
In the manual mode for refuel selection, what must the refueler do to stop refueling?
Select the refueling switch to the CLOSED position
296
Where are the taxi lights located?
Nose gear strut and on each wing root
297
What are the different modes of the cockpit quick donning O2 mask?
All are correct
- Normal Setting – Oxygen and air mixture
- 100% setting – Pure oxygen at all altitudes
- Emergency setting – Pure oxygen with positive pressure
298
The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated when?
All are true
- Manually when windshear warning or caution condition is detected and TOGA switch is pressed
- Automatically when windshear warning condition is detected and thrust lever is set to TO/GA position
- Automatically when Windshear warning condition is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA
299
What is the difference between the Pedestal PA button and the ACP PA button?
Both are correct
- ACP Button is active/hot mic after being selected and must be deselected after use to change to inactive/cold mic
- Pedestal is active/hot mic only when pressed
300
What will happen if the batteries are turned off during the one minute cool down period?
APU will shut down immediately
301
When does DES NOW appear on the FP page?
Within 50 miles of the TOD
302
What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?
Back up for the flight controls
303
What does DES NOW do?
Allows the aircraft to descend early at 1000fpm until PTH intercept
304
What does a "CAS MSG" mean on the PFD(s)?
All are correct
- CAS miscompare monitoring detects miscompare
- If the 2 CAS messages are continuously different for 20 sec a mis-compare indication is shown
- Indicates that the CAS lists from the 2 monitor Warning Function computers do not match
305
In the air, when will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate with both engines running?
Both are correct
- Flaps greater than 0
- Engine failure or EDP failure
306
How are root cause messages depicted on the EICAS?
Chevron next to EICAS message
307
Can the "Landing Gear" aural warning be silenced by pushing the LG WRN INHIB button?
Yes
308
If the primary and secondary radio functions are not available, how would you tune the COMMs, NAVs, and Transponder?
Via the Backup Tuning function on MCDU 2
309
What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed when smoke has been detected?
All are correct
- If airplane is on the ground (WOW), the low rate bottle will not automatically discharge
- High rate bottle discharges immediately
- Low rate bottle discharges after 1 minute in flight
310
When will the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL EICAS message be presented?
660lbs of fuel remaining in the tank
311
Which of the following can provide DC power to the aircraft?
All are correct
- 2 NICAD batteries
- DC GPU
- 3 TRU’s
312
What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?
There are no high level functions available in direct mode
313
What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?
Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight
314
How are the engines and APU protected from fire?
Both are correct
- Engines have 2 halon fire bottles
- APU has 1 halon fire bottle
315
How may the NAVs be tuned?
Both are correct
- Either MCD via the RADIO page
- Respective sides CCD/PFD
- CA’s Side: COMM/NAV1
- FO’s Side: COMM/NAV2
316
What are some of the systems that use hydraulic power?
Both are correct
- Spoilers
- Nose wheel steering
317
Where does the APU get its fuel?
Both are correct
- Right fuel tank
- Left fuel tank through the crossfeed valve
318
What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?
All are correct
- Gain on airspeed
- Elevator thrust compensation
- AOA limiting/Stall protection
319
What speed will the FD command during a One Engine Inoperative Go-Around when the GA Button is pressed?
Vac
320
What target speed will the flight director (FD) command during a go-around?
Both are correct
- All engines operating – Vref + 20 kt
- Single engine - Vac
321
What page appears, by default, when the FMS units are first powered?
Radio page
322
Is there a total loss of power during the 8 second RAT deployment?
No, because the batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSSES and AC STANDBY BUS
323
A table of aircraft altitudes, cabin altitudes and pressure differentials that can be used as a ballpark comparison to check for normal cabin pressurization is contained in the:
QRH
324
Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?
Left tank
325
How many igniters per engine?
2
326
Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for deicing?
No
327
What keeps the gear locked in position?
Extended – Downlock springs/Retracted up lock hooks
328
The Emergency Lights Power Units provide electrical energy to power the internal Emergency Lighting system for ___ minutes.
10
329
Do the FADECs alternate automatically during the engine start?
Yes, unless a fault is noted
330
What is the primary use for the APU bleed air?
All are correct
- Assist with engine airstart below FL210
- ECS on the ground
- Engine start on the ground
- Bleed source for pressurization, heating, and cooling (<15,000ft MSL)
331
How is a “bad” DVDR test alerted?
A CVR AFT (FWD) FAIL advisory message on the EICAS when the button is pressed
332
A portable ELT is installed in the passenger cabin and located:
In the last left hand side overhead bin
333
What compressor stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?
High Stage Valve (HSV)
334
How many cargo compartments are on the E175?
2
335
How does the Auto Flight Control System (AFCS) provide for stall protection?
By limiting the Angle of Attack (AOD) via the available control column authority (i.e. prevents the available pitch that the control column is capable of requesting.)
336
How many PBE's are provided in the E175 Cockpit?
1
337
What mode does FLCH use to maintain speed?
SPDe
338
When does the auto-throttle automatically disengage?
All are correct
- Thrust levers beyond the TOGA position
- Reverse thrust during RTO
- After touchdown
- Non-normal disengagement
- Difference in TLA greater than 8 degrees
- Auto-throttle failure
339
How many primary fuel tanks does the aircraft have?
2 integral tanks
340
How do you turn the Engine Anti-Ice on for icing conditions on the ground for T/O?
Via the MCDU on the T/O Data set menu
341
When the crew initiates a Go-Around, the SPEED selector is in MAN. When is the earliest the Crew can select SPEED to FMS?
Flaps up or zero
342
When do you get a gear disagree message?
20 seconds after the discrepancy is detected
343
Can a normal APU shutdown be cancelled?
Yes, by moving the start switch back to ON before the one minute cool down is over
344
What is the SECT function?
Selecting this reduces the angle of sweep from 60 degrees to 30 degrees and increases the sweep to 24 sweeps per minute
345
What is the minimum oxygen for the cockpit crew?
Both are correct
- 3 crew Green for 3
- 2 crew: Blue for 2
346
Do the cockpit crew and passengers share the same emergency oxygen?
No, the cockpit uses an oxygen cylinder and the cabin passengers use oxygen chemical generators
347
How many Taxi Lights are available on the aircraft?
Both Nose Landing Gear and Side Lights
348
Are both cargo compartments pressurized?
Yes
349
What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?
All are correct
- Engine bleeds and packs
- Plumbing for the wing and anti-ice system
- APU bleed
350
The EGPWS database consists of all hard surface runways that are greater than ____ feet in length.
3500
351
What does FMA stand for?
Flight Mode Annunciator
352
How is BATT 2 configured during an APU start?
Both are correct
- BATT 2 is isolated from the system
- BATT 2 is tied directly to the APU start bus to power the APU starter
353
What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?
Slats extend first and retract last
354
How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?
2 bottles (may only be used in one compartment)
1 high rate bottle and 1 low rate bottle
355
What are some of the items that the crew verifies on the NAV IDENT page?
All are correct
- Date
- Time
- Software version
356
How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?
3 in the FWD, 2 in the AFT
357
Can cargo extinguishing be used if no smoke is detected?
Both are correct
- The low rate bottle discharges after 1 minute in flight
- Yes, the high rate bottle extinguishing button must be pressed twice, once to arm and once to discharge
358
Can the DV windows be removed by the crew?
No
359
What is the purpose of the AC fuel pump?
All are correct
- Engine start
- Crossfeed operations
- Back up in case of primary ejector pump fails
360
What is the priority for the trim system?
Backup, CA, FO, autopilot
361
How do you override the FSBY mode on the ground?
Both
- Both pilots select the FSBY OVRD menu item on the respective weather controllers
- One pilot selects the STAB OFF box 4 times in less than 3 seconds, enabling the WX mode
362
What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?
All are correct
- Closes the engine hydraulic SOV
- Closes the engine bleed SOV and crossbleed valve
- Closes the engine fuel SOV
363
(T/F) The anti-skid system will stop the airplane for all runway conditions in a shorter distance than is possible with either anti-skid off or brake pedal modulation.
True
364
What are the basic modes of the flight director?
ROLL and FPA
365
What happens if a PFD fails?
The PFD information should revert to the respective side MFD
366
How many data bases does the FMS interface with?
3 (Navigational, custom, aircraft)
367
How many cabin doors provide access to the aircraft cabin?
4
368
What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during an approach?
The minimum N1 required in icing conditions
369
How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice on the wings?
From onside or crosside
370
What is the PTU?
Power transfer unit
371
We know the dashed lead in markings approaching a runway is 150’. If I am exiting a runway and stopped at the beginning of these markings (which is 150’ from the runway), I know I am clear of the runway because my plane is only ___ long.
104 feet
372
When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL
373
Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in direct mode?
No, but roll spoiler function is available via default programmed values
374
What activates when the flight deck oxygen masks are removed from their storage unit?
All are correct
- Flow of oxygen
- Flight deck speakers
- Mask microphone
375
Can a single ECS pack provide temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, but limited to operations at or below FL310
376
What is the purpose of the inverter?
Convert 28V DC from the batteries to 115V AC to power the Standby Bus when an AC source is not available
377
What is the purpose of the collector box?
Both are correct
- Ensures constant fuel flow to the engine
- Keeps the fuel pumps submerged
378
How are flight controls trimmed?
Both are correct
Pitch is via the horizontal stabilizer repositioned
Roll and Yaw: Ailerons and rudder surface repositioned to a new neutral position
379
The engine may be started via what means?
All are correct
- Opposite engine cross-bleed start
- Windmill start
- APU
- Ground Source (Huffer cart or Air Bottle)
380
How many igniters activate for engine start?
Both are correct
- Ground – 1 igniter (AUTO)
- Air – 2 igniters (AUTO)
381
What are some of the parameters that must be met to enable APPR 2?
All are correct
- Both RA/BARO knobs set to RA
- Both NAV frequencies set to the correct LOC frequency in the MCDU
- Both PFD’s set to the correct LOC inbound course
- SLAT/FLAP 5 MAX
382
How many ice detectors must be working to have ice protection?
One
383
How may the COMMs be tuned?
Both are correct
- Either MCD via the RADIO page
- Respective sides CCD/PFD
- CA’s Side: COMM/NAV1
- FO’s Side: COMM/NAV2
384
What is the purpose of the Ramp Horn button installed in the cockpit?
To call Ground Personnel via a horn sound when pressed
385
If one of the AOA Limiting sensors fail in flight, will the Stall Protection system still be capable of performing the AOA limiting?
No
386
How many ECS packs are installed?
2 packs (left and right)
387
When does the DVDR start recording Audio?
Aircraft power up
388
What are some of the fuel pumps that are located in each wing?
All are correct
- Primary ejector pump
- AC fuel pump
- Scavenge pump
389
What fuel pumps are capable of providing fuel to the APU?
All are correct
- Batteries ON only – DC fuel pump in right tank
- Right engine running – RH ejector fuel pump
- AC powered – ACMP 2
390
What are some reasons the APU will shut down on the ground?
All are correct
- FADEC critical fault
- Overspeed
- APU high oil temperature
391
When does the windshield heat perform its BIT?
When a single AC power is available (IDG) the corresponding windshield heat will heat for 120 sec
392
(T/F) A "Plug Type" door uses aircraft pressurization to push the door into the frame and ensures a good seal.
True
393
How would you recognize an ADS failure?
All are correct
- An EICAS message alerting the crew of the failure
- The affected PFD loses all air data information
- A red cross is shown over the failed PFD
394
What are some items the Takeoff Configuration System check?
All are checked
- Parking Brake Applied
- Any spoiler panel deployed
- Flaps not in takeoff position
395
How do you manually extend the landing gear in event of a failure of the gear handle?
Landing gear override switch/Alternate landing gear handle to free fall the gear
396
How are the aircraft batteries charged?
An AC power source providing power to the TRU’s
397
What is powered via the AC Standby Bus?
Engine exciters 1A and 2A
398
Where is the external ground source panel located
Lower fairing between the wings
399
When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur in flight?
All are correct
- Underspeed
- FADEC critical fault
- Overspeed
400
How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions on the ground?
All
401
How is SE taxi possible on ENG 1 as nosewheel steering is on HYD 2?
Both are correct
- ACMP 2 will activate if engine 1 is running and the parking brake released
- Parking brake set after taxi, pump will continue running for 6 minutes
402
How do you know that VNAV has been selected?
The top right box of the FMA is magenta
403
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
Yes
404
Which statement(s) is true regarding the Fire test?
All are correct
- The fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady
- The fire aural warning sounds
- The fire warning light on the ITT indicators illuminate
405
Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU?
No, there is a check valve
406
What is the purpose of the accumulator?
All are correct
- Helps maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands
- Provides a backup source of hydraulic energy or pressure
- Helps to avoid pump cavitation
407
If a PFD has failed and occupies the MFD and then the EICAS fails, what happens?
EICAS goes to the opposite MFD
408
What do the primary control electronics (P-ACE) control?
The rudder and elevator surfaces
409
What is the RAT rated at?
All are correct
- 15KVA
- 400Hz
- 115V AC
410
When pressing the Annunciator Test Button all striped bars and caption indications illuminate except?
All are correct
- Fire Test lights
- EMRG/PRKG Brake light
- GPU Pushbutton light
411
When does the DVDR start recording flight data?
After the first engine start
412
The CLB thrust mode engages when?
All are correct
- Landing gear retracted
- Airplane above 400’ AGL
- Any change in FD vertical mode
413
How do you select auto-tune if not already selected?
All are correct
- Must be in FMS mode
- Preview must be off
- Double select standby NAV frequency and set it or delete frequency ID on PROG page
414
How do Ice Detectors work/function?
Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it. Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, normal vibrating characteristic are restored and the heating stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuild on the probes
415
Can you use the emergency brakes at high speeds?
Yes – Carefully there is no anti-skid
416
When are the recirculation fans commanded off?
All are correct
- Dump button is pressed
- Respective pack is commanded off
- Cockpit switch
- Smoke detected in the recirc bay
417
What is the steering angle for the Nosewheel steering?
Variable (based on speed): I. +/- 76 degrees up to 10 knots ii. +/- 7 degrees at 100 knots
418
What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed with the flight deck oxygen masks not stowed?
All are correct
- Oxygen flow is stopped
- Deactivates flight deck speakers
- Deactivates mask microphone
419
When can you use the TURB mode?
When in WX mode at selected ranges of 50 NM or less
420
The TCAS is intended to serve as a backup to?
All are correct
- Visual collision avoidance
- Air traffic separation
- Application of the Right of Way rules
421
When will the RAT deploy?
Both answers are correct
- Manually via the RAT deployment handle
- Main AC busses loss power
422
What happens when you turn the APU start knob to ON?
All are correct
- Opens the APU fuel shutoff valve
- Displays APU EICAS information following FADEC self-test
- Powers the APU FADEC
423
Where can the Oxygen quantity be read?
Both are correct
- MFD Status page (corrected for temperature)
- At the oxygen cylinder panel (uncorrected for temperature)
424
Non-normal autopilot disengages when?
All are correct
- AP button pressed on the guidance panel
- Either stick shaker is activated
- Windshear escape guidance is activated
- Either manual pitch trim is activated
425
The DC Electric Fuel pump is used to provide pressurized fuel for normal APU operations and engine starting when?
When AC power is not available
426
How many life vests are located within the E175 Cockpit?
3
427
What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 2 failure or EDP 2 failure
428
During an engine start the FADEC will prevent fuel flow introduction with an ITT greater than?
120 C
429
What controls the engine?
A two channel FADEC
1 channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup
430
How would you "correct" an IRS failure?
In case of an individual failure, the opposite IRS can be selected on the reversionary panel
431
What's the coldest fuel temperature for takeoff?
-37 degrees C
432
What does moving the APU start switch to OFF do?
All are correct
- Starts the 1 minute cool down
- Closes the APU bleed valve
- Initiates normal APU shutdown
433
What are the two main parts that make up the flight control electronics?
Both are correct
- The flight control module (FCM)
- The primary actuator control electronics (P-ACE)
434
What alerts are generated during a windshear caution or windshear warning?
Both are correct
- Caution – Amber WSHR on the PFD, aural “Caution Windshear”
- Warning – Red WSHR on the PFD, aural “Windshear, Windshear, Windshear”
435
Can a single bleed source power both ECS packs?
Yes, through a crossbleed valve
436
During preflight, how would you know if the cockpit crew oxygen had been over pressurized?
The green blowout disc would be missing on the right forward side of the fuselage
437
When will the Flight Director (FD) automatically turn on in flight?
All are correct
- Autopilot engagement
- Manual selection of any vertical and lateral mode
- TO/GA button actuation
- Windshear detection
438
What is the priority for AC power on the aircraft?
Respective IDG (onside), APU (inside), GPU (outside) Opposite IDG (cross side)
439
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected?
After 1 minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
440
What stops the wheels from spinning during retraction?
Main Gear: BCM applies brakes after weight on wheels-Nose gear: Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels
441
When is glideslope inhibit automatically reset?
Climbing above 2000 ft
442
When would you press the guarded GRD PROX FLAP OVRD button?
When flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration (Zero or Reduced Flap settings)
443
What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?
Both are correct
- Crossfeed valve is opened
- ACMP 2 turns on to provide fuel from the right tank to both engines
444
How is a crew alerted when the aircraft approaches a stall?
Stick Shaker Activation
445
How many hydraulic pumps are on the aircraft?
6
446
What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?
All are correct
- APU
- Cargo compartments
- Lavatories
- Engines
447
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 1 (VFE1)
230 KIAS
448
Which hydraulic pump cannot be deferred?
Pump 3A
449
What happens after 3 overspeed detection events?
FADEC will not re-light the engine
(3 events within 30 seconds to trigger it)
450
The Flap System is _____ operated.
Electrically
451
What uses electric heat for ice protection?
All
- Water lines
- Pitot Static System – Pressurization static port
- Windshields
452
What protections are provided for braking?
All
- Touchdown
- Locked Wheel
- Anti-Skid
453
Why are HYD ACMP 3A and 3B switches labeled ON and AUTO?
Both are correct
- 3A pump is primary and has no automation
- 3B pump is a back-up and automatically activates if 3A fails
454
What is bleed air used for?
All are correct
- ECS (heating and cooling)
- Engine and wing anti-icing
- Engine start
- Water pressurization
455
What are the brake temperature indications?
Green: Normal/Amber: Caution/Amber dashed: Invalid
456
In AUTO, when does the Ice Protection system function automatically?
After 1700 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff (regardless of MCDU setting)
457
How many Cockpit Escape Ropes are available in the E175?
2
458
What is the purpose of the pre-cooler?
Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS
459
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?
All are correct
- APU shuts off immediately (without a 1-minute cool down)
- APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
- APU fuel SOV closes
460
How is roll controlled?
Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)
461
Can fuel be transferred from tank to tank or be dumped overboard?
No
462
What overheat protection is provided for the hydraulic system?
All are correct
- 100 C causes High Temperature EICAS caution message
- 125 C shutoff valve will automatically actuate
- 145 C causes Hydraulic Overheat EICAS warning message
463
Temperature is 0 degrees C with a cloud layer at 1,200 OVC. MCDU Anti-Ice is selected for ALL. When do the ENG and WING anti-ice valves open?
ENG – Engine running
WING – Wheel speed > 40 KT
464
What is the normal disengagement process for the autopilot?
All are correct
- Pressing once triggers the aural warning “autopilot”
- Pressing the quick disconnect button on either control wheel
- Pressing a second time cancels the aural warning and cancels the FMA annunciation
465
When is the electrical and pneumatic loading available during APU start?
95% RPM plus 3 seconds
466
What is protected from ice and rain?
All
- Smart probes – Water and waste drains
- Windshields
- Engine inlets
- Wing leading edge
467
What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger (I.e. Fuel cooled oil cooler)
468
Do the main cabin door slides need to be disarmed inside prior to using the outside door handle to open the door in order to prevent a slide deployment?
No
469
What is the oxygen duration of an oxygen chemical generator?
12 minutes
470
What is the purpose of the surge/vent tank?
Both are correct
- Collects fuel during wing down maneuvers and returns it to the main tanks
- Equalizes tank pressure during refueling
471
What are the three ways that the landing gear may be extended?
All
- Normal – LG lever DOWN
- Electric override – Bypasses PSEM to control selector valve
- Alternate gear extension – Manual uplock release opens Free-Fall Sequencing Valve
472
Are faults in the water system monitored from the cockpit?
No
473
The IDG and APU generator is electrically rated at which of the following?
All are correct
- 40KVA
- 400Hz
- 115V AC
474
How do you change the range of the radar?
Through the CCD
475
When testing the oxygen mask the yellow flow indicator _____.
Blinks showing oxygen flow
476
The APU will automatically shut down if an APU Fire is detected ____.
On the ground
477
The APU will automatically shut down ten seconds after an APU Fire Warning when the aircraft is _____.
On the ground
478
(T/F) An approach briefing, completed prior to the top-of-descent, followed by consistent Verbalization, Verification, and Monitoring, reduces approach and landing accidents.
True
479
Pressure altitude can be determined by ____.
Setting 29.92 inches as the altimeter setting and reading the altitude directly from the altimeter
480
How do we define and impending stall?
An angle of attack that causes a stall warning, or the first indication of a stall
481
How to we define a full stall?
Any one or combination of the following characteristics:
An uncommanded nose-down pitch that cannot be readily arrested, which may be accompanied by an uncommanded rolling motion
Buffeting of a magnitude and severity that is a strong and effective deterrent to a further increase in AOA
No further increase in pitch occurs when the pitch control is held at the aft full stop for 2 seconds, leading to an inability to arrest descent rate
Activation of a stick pusher
482
How do we define a secondary stall?
The premature increase in angle of attack that results in another full stall during recovery, prior to a stable flight condition being established
483
How do we define an airplane upset?
An airplane in flight unintentionally exceeding the parameters normally experienced inline operations or training
484
How do we define a Startle?
An uncontrollable, automatic muscle reflex, raised heart rate, blood pressure, etc. Caused by exposure to a sudden, intense event that violates expectations
485
How do we define a surprise?
An unexpected event that violates a pilot’s expectations and can affect the mental processes used to respond to the event
486
What defines the flight envelope for any airplane?
The operational limits – stall speeds, placarded maximum speeds, and the positive and negative load factor limits
487
How do we define the Angle of Attack?
It’s the angle between the oncoming air or relative wind and a reference line on the airplane or wing
488
How do we define an undesired aircraft state?
A position, velocity, or attitude of an aircraft that reduces or eliminates safety margins
489
What color is the ideal speed dot?
Green
490
(T/F) Bleed air is provided to the Vertical and Horizontal Stabilizer for Anti-Icing.
False
491
The fuel level in the collector that triggers the Fuel Low warning normally occurs if the fuel quantity in the associated tank is ___.
660 lbs
492
When within 200ft radio altitude the maximum bank angle is reduced to what degree?
+/- 5 degrees
493
External Power voltage will be displayed on the ___.
MFD
494
What color and shape, is the drift down speed, or slat/flap extension speed on the speed tape?
Green Dot
495
If the airspeed is manually selected what color will it be?
Cyan
496
What is the range of the radar?
10-300NM
497
What does the WML indication mean on the EICAS?
All are correct
Wind-milling engine
FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto relight
An assisted start has been commanded
498
Can hydraulic fluid be transferred between each system?
No
499
Can you have windshield heat in flight with a single source AC?
Yes, but only the left windshield is heated, unless the left heating system fails, then the right will be powered
500
What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump?
Used for APU or engine start if no AC fuel pump or AC power
501
During a Takeoff or a Go-Around an engine fails. PF commands GEAR UP. PM is unable to move the Landing Gear Lever to the UP position. Pressing the DN LOCK RLS Button on the Landing Gear Lever _____.
Mechanically releases the Landing Gear Lever lock
502
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Yes, but only on the ground during a hot start, hung start or no light-off
503
What is the purpose of the BANK button?
Enables and disables bank angle to 17 degrees in HDG mode
504
All TCAS aural advisories are inhibited when the present position altitude is below?
400’ AGL during descent, or 600’ AGL during climb
505
What are some of the Emergency equipment items located within the cockpit?
All are correct
Fire extinguisher
3 life vests
3 O2 masks
PBE
Crash Axe
2 Escape ropes
506
When will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
On the ground (after 10 seconds)
507
What is external pneumatic air used for?
Both are correct
ECS on the ground
Engine start on the ground
508
What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff or landing?
10 knots
509
When pressing the Annunciator Test Button all striped bars and caption indications illuminate except?
All are correct
Fire Test lights
EMRG/PRKG Brake light
GPU Pushbutton light
510
Once a chemical oxygen generator (cabin) is activated, can it be shut off?
No
511
When does the VTA appear?
One minute prior to TOD
512
Which of the following FMA color codes are correct?
All are correct
White – Armed mode
Green – Non FMS commanded active/engaged mode
Magenta – FMS commanded active/engaged mode
Amber - Alert condition
Red - Abnormal condition
513
When does the DVDR start recording flight data?
After the first engine start
514
What battery is used for the APU ground start?
Both are correct
BATT 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring
BATT 2 powers the starter
515
What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?
Pull the associated engine fire handle
516
What is the purpose of the Brake Control Module (BCM)?
All
Touchdown protection
Anti-Skid protection
Locked wheel protection
517
How many multi-function spoilers are on each wing?
5 total spoiler panels (only the outboard 3 on each side are considered multi-function spoilers)
518
What happens if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?
FADEC limits respective engine thrust to idle
519
What does the hydraulic shutoff button do when pressed on the overhead panel?
Both are correct
Closes the shutoff valve
Isolates fluid from the pump but doesn’t shut it down
520
How long does the fly by wire backup battery (lead acid) last?
15 minutes
521
Which of the following TO pitch angle logic is correct when airborne and IAS speed greater than target?
All are correct
Both engines operating – V2 + 10kt
Single engine failure below V2 – V2
Single engine failure above V2 – V2 + 10kt
Engine Failure between V2 and V2 + 10kt: Maintains Speed
522
How many brake applications does the emergency brake provide?
The accumulators have sufficient pressure to provide six full-brake applications
523
Can the pilot override the automatic function of the Anti-Ice system?
Yes
524
What uses bleed air for ice protection?
Engine Cowls – Outboard slats (3)
525
What is the maximum temperature for takeoff and landing?
54 degrees C
526
What is the purpose of the Ice Detector(s)?
They command the ENG and WING Anti-ice valves to open
527
At what temperature would you expect to see “BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP” on the EICAS?
Greater than 70 degrees C
528
How are the brakes commanded?
All
Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
Brake by wire
Pedal position transduces send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module)
529
The flight crew will verify cockpit oxygen quantity via _____.
The MFD STATUS page
530
When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?
Both are correct
Both packs commanded or failed off below FL250
Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via the right side)
531
When cleared for a LOC approach the proper selection on the FGC is _____.
NAV
532
When is the IESS powered?
Both are correct
When BATT 1 is ON
When BATT 2 is AUTO
533
What happens to artificial feel if the ailerons or elevators are disconnected?
Both are correct
If the elevator is jammed, artificial feel is half the normal load
If the CA side (left aileron) is jammed, there is no artificial feel on the FO’s side
534
The amber IDG lights on the overhead panel will illuminate for which of the following?
Both are correct
Low oil pressure
High oil pressure
535
Does the FADEC provide underspeed and overspeed protection?
Yes
536
Windshear detection is activated between?
10’ and 1500’ during initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases
537
After takeoff, the wing anti-ice system performs a self-test upon ____.
Reaching 10,000 feet AGL or 10 minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first
538
ATC requests 0.84 Mach. I say “NO” because I know what my maximum Mach speed is?
0.82 Mach
539
Is takeoff permitted if the brake temperature is in the Amber range?
No – Brake temps must be in the green before takeoff
540
What is the minimum airspeed that the RAT is capable or providing AC power?
130kt (load shedding occurs below this speed)
541
How can you shut down the APU immediately?
APU emergency stop button (no 1-minute cool down period)
542
Will a loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to revert to direct mode?
Yes
543
What sources are used for airplane anti-icing and de-icing?
Bleed air heat – Electric heat
544
What will trigger an ATTCS event?
All are correct
Engine failure during TOGA (or)
Windshear detected (or)
N1 difference > 15% between engines
545
When is the free wheel steering mode automatically activated?
All
Steering failure > 76 degrees
Steering system failure
Air/Ground system failure
546
What is the Maneuvering Airspeed (VA)
240 KIAS
547
What controls ATTCS?
Engine FADEC
548
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
Maintains fuel level in the collector box
549
What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
Both are correct
FWD cargo ventilation outflow valve closes
FWD cargo recirculation fan shuts off
550
What does the PBE provide?
All are correct
Blue indication – Good
Pressurized oxygen and protection from smoke, fire and fumes up to 40,000 ft for at least 15 minutes
Pink indication – Bad
Vacuum loss: Bad (even with a blue indication)
551
(T/F) An aircraft that is pressurizing normally will hold any door or DV window shut until the aircraft is depressurized.
True
552
How are the lavs protected from fire?
Thermal plugs melt at a set temperature allowing release of the halon bottle(s)
553
The IDGs are monitored and controlled by which of the following?
Dedicated Generator Control Unit (GCU)
554
If an engine fails, does the opposite wing receive ice protection?
Yes. The crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings
555
What is the maximum slat/flap setting if the RAT is deployed?
3
556
How is the APU controlled?
Via a dedicated FADEC
557
What is the only primary flight control that is not Fly-By-Wire (FBW)
Ailerons
558
What is FLEX?
Reduced takeoff thrust based on an assumed temperature (telling the FADEC that it is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)
559
On the ground, when will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate with both engines running?
All are correct
TL Set to T/O
Wheel-speed greater than 50kt
Flaps greater than 0
560
Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?
No
561
Which of the following is part of the normal engine start sequence (on the ground)?
All are correct
20% N2 – Fuel flow
50% N2 – Ignition off/starter cutout
7% N2 – Ignition
5 sec after Fuel Flow: Light-off (IGN ON)
562
Is one detection loop capable of detecting an overheat condition?
Yes, if one fails the other will work
563
When CARGO SMOKE FWD or AFT illuminates and the Flight Crew follows QRH procedure, pressing the illuminated push button, how long will the reduced flow rate extinguishing agent remain in the cargo compartment?
75 Minutes with a 60 minute diversion time allowed
564
Automatic ice detection is enabled above ___ ft AGL or ___ minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first.
1700, 2
565
How many hydraulic systems does the E175 have?
Three systems
566
When are the AIR Data Smart Probes and TAT probes heated?
Whenever and engine is running or airborne
567
The APU is MEL’d. Unintentionally, both engines were shut down before the GPU was connected. Some displays and systems shut down immediately. How long will the battery power the remaining displays and systems?
10 minutes
568
When will the speed brakes automatically close, even if the lever shows deployed?
All are correct
Flaps equal or greater than 2
Airspeed less than 180
TLA greater than 70 degrees
569
What are some of the items that the IRS computes?
All are correct
Airplane position
Ground Speed
Heading
570
What display units normally display when batteries are set to ON and AUTO?
Display units 2 and 3
571
Can the igniters be turned off during flight?
The switch can be turned off but the FADEC disregards the command
The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only
572
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 2 (VFE2)
215 KIAS
573
When does the de-clutter of the EICAS activate?
30 sec after gear up, flaps/slats retracted and all parameters normal
574
What is the FWD cargo limit (F1)
3306 pounds
575
What is the hydraulic pressure during normal operation of the EDP’s?
3000psi
576
What does EICAS Full button do?
Turns off the de-clutter mode
577
When does the N1 WING ANTI-ICE Cyan line appear?
Displayed only in icing conditions during final approach (below RA 1200ft), with Landing Gear Down or Flaps Extended
578
(T/F) If a pilot modulates the brake pedals, the anti-skid system is forced to readjust the brake pressure to establish optimum braking
TRUE
579
What does the RAT directly power?
AC ESS BUS
580
What is the minimum battery voltage to start the APU without following a recharge procedure?
22.5V DC
581
How are the engine cowls heated?
Hot Bleed Air – 10th stage compressor section
582
Who can perform the test for the anti-ice system?
Maintenance
583
Can the oxygen door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?
Yes, with a manual release tool located at each FA station
584
How do the landing gear doors actuate?
Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction
585
How can the low rate bottle be discharged if the airplane is on the ground?
The extinguishing button must be pressed again
586
How long after deployment before the RAT will supply power?
8 seconds
587
What is the engine starter limitation for the first two starts on the ground
90 secs
588
During flight, can the low-rate bottle be discharged before the 1 minute is up?
Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again
589
Which hydraulic system(s) control the Nosewheel steering?
HYD 2
590
What happens to the flight control system when the RAT deploys and is the only AC power source?
All are correct
Slat/flap system operates at ½ speed
Horizontal stab trim operates at ½ speed
Slat/flap position is limited to 3
591
What is the maximum allowable Cabin Negative Differential Pressure?
-0.5 psi
592
How long does it take for the IESS to align?
90 seconds
593
If an “abnormal door indication” is received in flight, crews should:
Both are correct
Communicate with Dispatch
Send an M20 message to alert MOC that maintenance will be needed
594
What ways can you disconnect the nosewheel steering?
Disconnect switch on the either yoke/Disconnect switch on GPU access panel
595
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed (VMO) from 10,000 to FL280
320 KIAS
596
What are some higher level functions associated with yaw?
All are correct
Yaw damping
Turn coordination
Gain on airspeed: as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases
Thrust asymmetry
597
How is the engine and APU fire detection and protection described?
Both are correct
Engine has 4 heat sensing loops (2 per engine)
APU has 2 heat sensing loops
598
How is the Landing Gear normally extended and retracted?
Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
599
What is the maximum Turbulent airspeed at or above 10,000?
Either one, whichever is lower
270 KIAS
.76M
600
What type of batteries are installed on the aircraft?
2 NiCad 22.8V DC, 27A
601
What pump is used once an engine is started?
Primary ejector pump
602
If I took off from Aspen with APU ECS. Enroute to Chicago I notice my APU still running climbing through 13,500’ MSL. How high can I climb using the APU for bleed air?
15,000 feet
603
At FL 370 IDG 1 Fails and after running the QRH it directs me to start the APU. I would need to descend to FL300 to start it. How high can I climb while using the APU for electrical supply?
33,000 feet
604
Fire Protection is provided for which systems?
Engines, APU, Cargo, Lav Trash Bin
605
What is the maximum speed for Flaps FULL (VFEFULL)
165 KIAS
606
Can a high rate bottle be used for one compartment and a low rate bottle for the other compartment?
No
607
Does the Engine Bleed valve fail open or closed?
Fail safe open if either the electrical or pressure signal are not present
608
How is the auto-throttle (AT) armed while on the ground?
AT button pressed on the guidance panel
No AT Active Failures
609
What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff on a wet runway?
30 Knots
610
How many Stick Pushers are available on the E175 (I.e. motors)?
0
611
How do you know if VNAV has been selected?
Mode in the upper right box of the FMA is magenta
612
(T/F) QRH guidance states that when an “abnormal door indication” is received, the flight may continue safely if the aircraft pressurization is normal.
True
613
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed (VMO) below 10,000
250 KIAS
614
What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?
All
HYD 2 = Inboard Brakes
HYD 1&2 = Emergency/Parking Brake
HYD 1 = Outboard Brakes
615
What is the maximum altitude for takeoff and landing
10,000 feet
616
What would be the indication of an APU fire?
All are correct
Fire aural warning
Red stripe in the EMER STOP button
APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS
617
What are the functions of the multi-function spoilers?
Both are correct
2 inboard spoilers used only as ground spoilers
3 outboard spoilers used for roll control, speed brakes and ground spoilers
618
What is the initial pitch guidance when the GA mode is active?
8 degrees
619
Before TOD, dial down the altitude preselector to the ATC cleared altitude
When not already engaged in VNAV mode, psh VNAV
620
I am flying at FL370 and an engine has failed. What is the highest altitude at which I can do an APU assisted engine start?
21,000 feet
621
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 5(VFE5)
180 KIAS
622
What is the maximum headwind for a CAT II approach
25 knots
623
What is the width of the E175
94 feet
624
What does ATTCS stand for?
Automatic takeoff thrust control system
625
What is the minimum oil pressure
25 psi
626
I would need to make an AML entry if during an engine start if the ITT exceeded what temperature?
815 degrees C
627
What is the AFT cargo limit (R1)
2,535 pounds
628
What is the maximum operating altitude
41,000 feet
629
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 4 (VFE4)
180 KIAS
630
What is the maximum altitude to fly depressurized
10,000 feet or MEA, whichever is higher
631
Which of the following can provide AC power to the aircraft?
All are correct
APU
IDG’s
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
632
We know that transient oil temperature of 163 degrees Celsius is allowed for fifteen minutes and continuous maximum oil temperature is ____.
155 degrees C
633
How many portable oxygen cylinders are installed in the cabin
3 – 1 in the FWD section and 2 in the AFT section (2 masks per cylinder)
634
What keeps the 3 Avionic E-bays cool?
Both are correct
FWS and CTR E-bay fans (3) full air from the Cabin to E-bay
AFT E-bay Natural air-flow from the cabin to bay
635
Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?
Both are correct
6th and 10 stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)
System alternates between valves to regulate and adequate and safe pressure)
636
When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur on the ground?
All are correct
Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC critical fault
APU Fire
APU EGT overtemp
APU High oil temp
APU Low oil pressure
Sensor fail
637
What provides AC power to the aircraft?
2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
APU
AC inverter
RAT
AC GPU
638
The Integrated Drive Generators (IDG’s) and APU Generator are electrically rated at ___?
All
115 VAC
40 KVA
400 Hz
639
What manages the electrical system?
Both are correct
4 integrated Control Center (ICC)
2 Secondary power distribution Assemblies (SPDA)
640
Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote electronic CB’s?
Both are correct
ICC CB’s can only be reset by maintenance on the ground
SPDA CB’s can be reset via the MCDU
641
Describe how BATT 2 is configured during a APU start?
BATT 2 is isolated from the system and tied directly to the APU START BUS to power the APU starter
642
What is the min BATT VDC to start the APU without following a Recharge Procedure?
22.5 VDC
643
What types of engines are on the aircraft?
2 General Electric CF34-8E5
High bypass ratio, 2-spool, Axial flow, Turbo fan
644
How much thrust do the engines produce when set to TO-1 & RSV?
TO-1: 13000 (ISA at sea level)
TO RSV: 14200 (ISA at sea level)
645
Do the FADEC(s) alternate automatically during engine start?
Yes (unless a fault is noted)
646
When does the CYAN line appear?
Configured for landing < 1200’RA
647
What provides underspeed and over speed protection?
The FADEC via the FMU (Fuel Metering Unit)
@ Approximately 52% N2 and 102% N2 respectively
648
What controls the ATTCS?
All are correct
FADEC controlled
Provides max thrust reverse (RSV) according to the current rate previously selected via the MCDU
649
When is thrust reverse available?
WOW (ground use only)
650
What is the time limit for TOGA thrust?
5 minutes
651
Flex thrust is limited to no more than ___ percent of the normal TO-1 or TO-2 Thrust?
25%
652
What is the power source for engine and APU fire detection and protection?
All are correct
Engine Detection: DC ESS
Engine Protection: HOT BATT
APU Detection: DC ESS
APU Protection: DC ES
653
Describe the Fire Test
When the TEST button on the fire protection panel is pressed, it initiates the following:
AURAL
The fire aural warning(s) sound
LIGHTS
The master WARNING lights flash
The fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady
The APU fire-extinguishing button and the upper half of the APU emergency stop button to illuminate
EICAS MESSAGES
ENG 1 FIRE
ENG 2 FIRE
APU FIRE
CRG AFT SMOKE
CRG FWD SMOKE
EICAS INDICATIONS
The FIRE Warning light on the ITT indicators illuminate
SYSTEM CONFIGURATIONS
The forward cargo compartment fans turn off
The cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve closes (only when bleed air is being provided by the engines or the APU)
654
What is the difference between the high-rate bottle and the low-rate bottle?
High-rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately
The low-rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time
655
How long will the Halon remain active in the compartment if both the high and low rate bottles are discharged?
60 minutes
656
Can one bottle be used for one compartment and the other bottle for the other compartment?
No
657
Will the multi-function spoilers function in ”DIRECT” mode?
Yes, but a default fixed gain is used
Direct Mode Logic:
In the event of a FCM Failure, the spoiler associated with the FCM turns to the direct mode
The other spoilers remain in the normal mode
Speed brakes and ground spoilers will not work
658
What is the minimum temperature for takeoff and landing
-40 degrees C
659
When S.E. taxiing (ENG 1 or 2) and the APU running, would both windshields be heated?
Yes, there would be normal windshield heating since you have two sources of AC power
660
What is the maximum oil pressure
95 psi
661
What is the maximum speed for Flaps 3 (VFE3)
200 KIAS
662
While flying over the Rockies enroute to Calgary at FL 390, I observe my Cabin Differential Pressure to be 8.1 psi. This is OK because my maximum Cabin Differential is?
8.4 psi
663
(T/F) I can carry 64 coach passengers in the E175 and 54 in the E170.
False
664
At FL370, IDG One fails. I ask the PM to look up the procedure in the QRH. I know I need two AC electrical sources. What’s the highest altitude that I Can start the APU?
30,000 feet
