FOM Flashcards

1
Q

Is a flight crew authorized to Flight Crew Placard a CDL item?

A

No

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2
Q

T/F: When the airport advertises on the ATIS or from ATC that “Braking Actions Advisories in Effect”, the highest Runway Condition Code will be “4” but may actually be lower than that.

A

True

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3
Q

What is the primary method for determining takeoff performance?

A

TPS

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4
Q

What is the standard weight for Valet bags? What about Checked bags? What about Heavy Checked bags?

A

20; 30; 60

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5
Q

What is the maximum airspeed in Class D airspace?

A

200kt

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6
Q

Can a flight be dispatched utilizing the Conditional Language Exemption, 17347, for international flights?

A

No

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7
Q

What is the correct way to void an entry in the AML?

A

All are correct

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8
Q

When are we directed to declare an emergency in regards to fuel remaining?

A

Anytime the flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel

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9
Q

When is the uniform jacket, or company approved leather jacket, required to be worn?

A

From the beginning of November to the end of April
MONA
May to October
November to April

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10
Q

What is the primary method a crewmember should follow if they lose an Airman or Medical certificate on duty?

A

Request a replacement certificate from the FAA website

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11
Q

What is the definition of Release fuel?

A

Planned ramp fuel without any ferry fuel

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12
Q

How would a crew know which items could be deferred under a flight crew placard and where could they find the procedure on how to perform a Flight Crew Placard?

A

A YES is listed in the Flight Crew Placarding column in the MEL and the procedure to Flight Crew Placarding is listed in the MEL General Section

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13
Q

One piece of information transmitted by a Mode S transponder is:

A

The aircraft’s Flight ID or call sign

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14
Q

RVSM airspace is?

A

Airspace between FL290 and FL410 inclusive

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15
Q

A Runway Condition Code (RCC) of 0 provides better braking action than an RCC of 6.

A

False

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16
Q

If you have departed the gate and a flight crew placard requires the cockpit door to be opened what action must be taken?

A

Return to the gate and normal procedures shall be followed

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17
Q

What does the FOM define as the weight of a Cabin Crewmember? ACM?

A

182 lb; 210 lb

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18
Q

What is the time frame limit on consumption of alcohol prior to being on duty?

A

12 hours

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19
Q

Can a First Officer ever use the photo pages for the purposes of certification to operate into a SAQ/SARA airport?

A

No

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20
Q

The correct format for entry of the Envoy Flight ID is:

A

ENY3839

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21
Q

What is the total quantity of dry ice that can be shipped on Envoy aircraft?

A

50lbs per aircraft

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22
Q

Required Rest Period begins _____ after a domestic flight block in; _____ after an international flight block in.

A

15 min; 30 min

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23
Q

What are the landing currency requirements?

A

3 takeoffs and landings within 90 days on the type aircraft they are to serve

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24
Q

During a flight, you encounter a reroute for weather and are given a shortcut to your destination. Are you required to advise dispatch of the changes?

A

Yes, you are required to tell dispatch anytime there is a significant change from a flight’s planned route or altitude.

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25
Q

Based on the following, what does –RASN mean? KMEM 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 PROB40 2022 1SM TSRA OVC008CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025 PROB40 2202 3SM SHRA FM0200 35012KT OVC008 PROB40 0205 2SM –RASN BECMG 0608 02008KT NSW

A

Light Rain Snow

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26
Q

Under normal conditions when shall a crewmember be at the aircraft and ready for flight?

A

20 min

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27
Q

If Ground Support equipment is not providing adequate cooling, what should you do?

A

All of these

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28
Q

What is the maximum flight duty period extension that can be accepted?

A

2 hours

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29
Q

With a Forward Caution Zone indicated on the Load Closeout, what are the requirements for the actual passenger count in Zone A and Zone C (for E145)/Zone E (for E175)?

A

Both are correct

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30
Q

What should you do if you’re cleared to takeoff from an intersection that is not listed on your TPS?

A

Obtain a new TPS with the intersection to be used and check your performance required

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31
Q

Where does a crewmember find what the latest updates for the electric flight bag?

A

EFB, flight Ops Technical, Revision Status Sheet

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32
Q

When is it required to start a new AML page?

A

All are correct

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33
Q

What is the transponder code used for radio failure?

A

7600

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34
Q

Can a crew fly with only 1 IPAD available?

A

Yes, but only to a domicile to get a lone or replacement

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35
Q

How can a crew obtain APA data?

A

Contact dispatch

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36
Q

Where is RVSM altitudes?

A

Between FL290 and FL410

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37
Q

Where is the Basic Operating Weight of the aircraft denoted?

A

Yellow sticker in the AML

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38
Q

When shall crewmembers wear their company issued green, highly visible safety vest?

A

At all times while in the aircraft operating area

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39
Q

Where can the crew find what the acceleration altitude is?

A

TPS

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40
Q

Crewmembers will normally sign in how long before their scheduled departure time at the beginning of their sequence?

A

45 min

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41
Q

Can you carry a passenger onboard your aircraft that is obviously under the influence of any intoxicating liquor or drugs?

A

No, unless it’s a medical patient under proper care

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42
Q

What is the maximum airspeed under Class B Airspace?

A

200kt

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43
Q

The correct number of characters required for an Envoy Flight ID is:

A

7

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44
Q

Where can crewmembers find a listing of the airports that require Special Airport Qualifications?

A

FOM

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45
Q

What is the time frame limit on consumption of alcohol prior to being on duty?

A

12 hours

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46
Q

What would a “P” denote next to the MAX TO weight on the EWBS?

A

Performance weight limit (airport analysis data or VAQ data)

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47
Q

What defines a Contaminated Runway?

A

When more than 25 percent of the required field length within the width to be used is covered by more than 1/8 inch of standing water, slush, or wet snow, more than 3/4th inch of dry snow, compacted snow or ice

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48
Q

What must a crewmember do if their FAA medical examination will not be completed by the 20th day of the due month?

A

Inform their domicile chief pilot when the exam will be complete

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49
Q

A LAHSO clearance, regardless of the performance capability of the aircraft, may not be accepted if ATC provides it after the aircraft is on the Final Approach and has descended below how many feet AGL?

A

1000 ft

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50
Q

When is a Captain considered to be a “Restricted Captain”?

A

Has not accumulated 100 hours as PIC in revenue service on the type aircraft being operated

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51
Q

When determining alternate airport weather minimums with two navigational facilities available, what values must be added to the ceiling and visibility?

A

Both are correct

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52
Q

If an Alternate is listed on the Dispatch Release, what will be the minimum HOLD Fuel time shown?

A

12 min

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53
Q

If a Category B MEL is entered into the AML on a Monday, on what day would it officially expire?

A

Thursday

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54
Q

What is the recommended holding speed for the E145/E175 in non-icing conditions?

A

QRH 2 engine holding table

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55
Q

If a particular airport or runway configuration is not listed in the Jepps as approved for LAHSO, may it be used for LAHSO?

A

No

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56
Q

If TPS is unavailable, how can the takeoff performance and speeds be determined?

A

All are correct

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57
Q

What is the lowest RVR (published) you can use for a CAT 2 ILS approach?

A

1200 RVR

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58
Q

Vertical separation in RVSM airspace is?

A

1000’

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59
Q

When are headsets with boom microphones required to be used?

A

Operations below 18,000 ft, including taxi

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60
Q

Is this a METAR or a TAF? DFW: 151353Z 19012KT 10SM FEW022 SCT100 BKN180 27/23 A2996 RMK: AO2 SLP134 VIRGA E-S-W-T02720233

A

METAR

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61
Q

What is the maximum variance per zone between the actual passenger count and the Load Closeout passenger count?

A

2 PAX

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62
Q

What is considered low visibility taxi procedures?

A

Surface visibility less than ½ mile or 2400 RVR

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63
Q

The first layer of Flight Attendant injury prevention beings with:

A

A proper preflight briefing with the crew

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64
Q

MAX landing weight is determined by the lighter of?

A

All are correct

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65
Q

What are the lowest possible minimums for landing as a restricted Captain?

A

300/1 mile or 4500 RVR, unless using FAA Exemption 17203 (CAT 1 minimums with autopilot on)

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66
Q

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance?

A

PIC

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67
Q

What is a NEF, where are they located in the MEL, and can NEF items be Flight Crew Placarded?

A

All are correct

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68
Q

Exemption 17203 provides relief for high minimums Captains to fly a CAT II or Non-Precision approaches

A

FALSE

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69
Q

If the current AML page has been voided by Maintenance after the Captain has already accepted the aircraft, does the Captain need to accept the aircraft again?

A

No

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70
Q

GOGO WIFI is an example of a SEL and is required equipment for dispatch.

A

FALSE

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71
Q

When does a Dispatch Release expire?

A

All are correct

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72
Q

What is the primary method a crewmember should follow if they lose an Airman or Medical Certificate on duty?

A

Request a replacement certification from the FAA website

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73
Q

Crew scheduling can reduce the crewmember’s show time at an outstation to what minimum time?

A

20 min

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74
Q

When performing a manual weight and balance on a flight without a Flight Attendant, will they need to be subtracted from the Basic Operating Weight?

A

Yes

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75
Q

Can a crew takeoff on a contaminated runway with a tailwind?

A

No

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76
Q

What should a crew do if a silver dot is not located next to a visible dent in the airframe?

A

Contact MX to ensure the area in question hasn’t already been noted in the Aircraft Damage Log (ADL), prior to making an entry

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77
Q

Your aircraft has a Category B MEL expiring tonight at your destination, but you must divert to another airport with no maintenance and remain overnight, can you depart the next day?

A

Yes

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78
Q

Who is required to review the AML prior to flight?

A

Both are correct

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79
Q

If you are unable to obtain an IFR clearance at airports which do not have operating ATC facilities and it is not possible to obtain an IFR clearance from the flight deck, what conditions must exist before the flight can takeoff?

A

All are correct

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80
Q

Prior to the taxi phase of flight, which chart should be displayed on each pilot’s EFB?

A

Airport diagram

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81
Q

What is the lowest RVR (published) you can use for a CAT 1 ILS approach?

A

1800 RVR

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82
Q

Dispatch will provide an amended release when any of the following occur:

A

All are correct

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83
Q

Where can the photo pages for SAQ/SARA airports be found?

A

JeppFD-Pro App

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84
Q

Who should a crewmember contact if they are too fatigued to continue performing their duties or notice that another crewmember is too fatigued to continue performing their duties?

A

Crew Scheduling

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85
Q

Turbojet aircraft shall be dispatched on the basis of Wet Runway Weight when the visibility at the airport of intended landing is less than ____.

A

0.75 mile or RVR 4000

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86
Q

What does a “LA” indicate on the SPCL line of the Load Closeout?

A

Live animal

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87
Q

Our flight has been cleared to a holding pattern at a fix 50 miles ahead. EFC is 55 minutes from now. If we choose not to request to slow down immediately, when must we reach holding speed?

A

3 minutes prior to entering hold

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88
Q

Seat power systems for the passengers is an example of a SEL and is NOT required to be operational for dispatch:

A

TRUE

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89
Q

How early may a scheduled Flight depart assuming all passengers and cargo are onboard?

A

5 minutes

90
Q

Can a crew takeoff on a contaminated runway doing a FLEX TO 1 (E175)/ ALT TO-1 (E145) Takeoff Thrust?

A

No

91
Q

If the Auto-NOTOC system is not available, which form must be used to notify the Captain that HAZMAT is being carried?

A

Form OK333

92
Q

Are circling approaches authorized?

A

Only if the weather is greater than 1000ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility

93
Q

Where can crewmembers find a list of common medications that are approved for use while on duty?

A

FM 1 (FOM)

94
Q

How would a Captain ensure they are qualified for a flight into an airport identified as SARA or requiring SAQ?

A

Review the SAQ chart in FOM

95
Q

The acronym SEL on a dispatch release indicates:

A

Special Equipment installed on this aircraft

96
Q

Which of the following will not help keep the flight deck cool if the aircraft is unattended for less than 30 mins?

A

Keep the flight deck door closed

97
Q

If a Captain exercises the Emergency Authority, Pilot Debrief must be sent _____.

A

No later than 24 hours after the event

98
Q

If the outside temperature exceeds by 1 degree, would you need to obtain a new TPS?

A

No because TPS displays current plus 2 degree runway and climb limited weight

99
Q

If runway conditions appear worse than what was expected or planned, crews should:

A

Execute a go-around and re-assess the landing distance required

100
Q

If the Load Closeout indicates MANUAL next to the C-4 weight instead of SCANNED, what additional paperwork is the crew required to obtain?

A

Cargo worksheet

101
Q

What are the critical phases of flight that require a Sterile Cockpit?

A

All are correct

102
Q

When would a Takeoff alternate be required?

A

When the weather at the departure station is below authorized CAT 1 landing minimums

103
Q

When is APA Data required to be used for takeoff?

A

When the runway is contaminated

104
Q

Where are the familiarization videos found for SAQ/SARA airports?

A

My.envoyair.com

105
Q

Which item is NOT required for RVSM operations?

A

Airspeed indicator

106
Q

Based on the following, what is the validity period for this report? KMEM 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 PROB40 2022 1SM TSRA OVC008CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025 PROB40 2202 3SM SHRA FM0200 35012KT OVC008 PROB40 0205 2SM –FASN BECMG 0608 02008KT NSW

A

1800Z to 1800Z

107
Q

What does “L” mean next to the MAX TO weight on the EWBS?

A

MAX Landing weight plus enroute fuel burn weight limit

108
Q

When the Captain is not an IOE instructor and the FO has less than 100 hours in the type of aircraft being flown what conditions warrant the Captain making all Takeoffs and Landings?

A

All are correct

109
Q

The Envoy Flight ID is located where:

A

The Flight Release

110
Q

What wind speed requires taxi and takeoff operations be suspended?

A

50kt or more

111
Q

Which of the following does not help to keep the cabin cool during the summer season when temperatures are greater than 90 degrees F or 32 degrees C?

A

Recirc Fan ON

112
Q

When Exemption 17203 is applied, restricted captains are NOT required to add 100 feet and ½ statue mile to CAT I ILS minimums:

A

True

113
Q

If a crew member is removed due to fatigue, how long do they have to complete the mandatory report?

A

48 hours

114
Q

What is acceleration altitude?

A

The altitude where the pilot should normally reduce pitch, accelerate and clean up the aircraft and specially following an engine failure on takeoff.

115
Q

What actions should the crewmember take when you have received an updated medical?

A

Both are correct

116
Q

With a drift down flight plan, what should the flight crew do if the actual ramp weight exceeds the planned ramp weight listed on the dispatch release?

A

Contact dispatch

117
Q

What conditions must exist for a flight crew to cancel an IFR flight plan?

A

All are correct

118
Q

Who is authorized to use the emergency medical kit?

A

Physician (MD or DO) only

119
Q

Exemption 17203 grants relief to:

A

Restricted (high minimums) captains

120
Q

What does a silver dot next to a dent in the airframe signify?

A

Maintenance has inspected the area and found damage to be within limits

121
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

All are correct

122
Q

What form(s) must the FAA present to the crew in order to ride in the jumpseat?

A

Both are correct

123
Q

If actual ramp weight exceeds your planned ramp weight on the dispatch release by 2000 lbs or more, what shall the Captain do?

A

Contact dispatch and consider obtaining a new fuel plan

124
Q

When TPS is not available what is the secondary means of obtaining takeoff data?

A

Both are correct

125
Q

What are the advantages of runway intersection departures?

A

All are correct

126
Q

If you are operating a functional check flight will EWBS or TPS be available?

A

No

127
Q

What is the transponder code used for emergency aircraft?

A

7700

128
Q

When Exemption 17203 is applied, restricted captains are required to add 100 feet and ½ statue mile to CAT I ILS minimums:

A

FALSE

129
Q

If the current temperature is warmer than the planned temperature by more than 2 C, what must the flight crew do?

A

Obtain new TPS data

130
Q

What does “L” mean next to the MAX TO weight on the EWBS?

A

Max landing weight plus enroute fuel burn weight limit

131
Q

When is it required by the flight crew to advise the dispatcher of any flight release amendments?

A

All are correct

132
Q

In order to apply Exemption 17203 which of the following restrictions apply:

A

All of the answers are correct

133
Q

Does a Captain have the authority to cancel a flight?

A

No, only SOC

134
Q

What is the lowest visibility authorized for Envoy departure operations?

A

600 RVR

135
Q

When are shoulder harnesses required to be used in addition to seatbelts?

A

All are correct

136
Q

SECURE Checklist must be completed if the aircraft will be unattended over ___.

A

30 minutes

137
Q
  1. Using the Non-Standard Passenger Weight process, once the average weight has been determined,______ Ibs. will be added to account for personal items.
A

10 for the E145 and 16 for the E175

138
Q

According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, the minimum fuel required to begin the takeoff roll is_____Ibs.

A

5700

139
Q

If the Captain chooses to ignore or disregard deviations or irregularities that are noted by the First Officer, the First Officer shall

A

Continue to offer the information to the Captain until resolved

140
Q

A “POSITIVE THREAT” is defined as any warning or threat against Envoy which includes:

A

All of these are correct

141
Q

An additional alternate will be designated anytime:

A

Both are correct

142
Q

(T/F) A destination alternate is required for forecasted crosswind components of greater than 25 knots as long as the forecasted ceiling and visibility are VFR.

A

TRUE

143
Q

(T/F) - A LAHSO clearance may be accepted after the aircraft has descended below 1.000 feet Above Ground Level (AGL) on final approach as long as the Captain deems it safe to do so.

A

FALSE

144
Q

Once passenger boarding has been completed, the Flight Attendants) will complete their pre-taxi duties and then issue an advisory of “Ready to Taxi” to the Captain. The Captain must receive this advisory prior to:

A

Pushback from a push back gate or taxi from a power out gate

145
Q

(T/F) There is no need to notify the Captain if a TWO (Passenger Traveling Without Visa) is aboard.

A

FALSE

146
Q

Which of these manuals are required to be carried by the Flight Crew?

A

FOM, Flight Manual - Part 2, Manual Volume 1, and Checklists.

147
Q

To obtain a temporary Airman or Medical Certificate, the crewmember must:

A

Go to the FAA.gov website to obtain a temporary airman and/or medical certificate

148
Q

Position reports in a non-radar environment include:

A

All of these are correct

149
Q

Upon entering a holding pattern, the total Fuel-On-Board will be calculated every____ minutes by the PM.

A

15

150
Q

In regard to weight and balance, when are “Winter” weights used to calculate the loading of the aircraft?

A

November 1st - April 30th

151
Q

A takeoff alternate is required:

A

When the departure weather is below authorized landing minimums for the appropriate runways available based on the weather and equipment

152
Q

(T/F) Prior to making an unscheduled landing due to a medical emergency, the Captain should attempt to ascertain the adequacy of the airport’s or city’s medical facilities.

A

TRUE

153
Q

After receiving a “pilot’s discretion” altitude clearance:

A

All of these are correct

154
Q

(T/F) For the E140 / E145, all carry-on (valet) baggage will be plane-side loaded into the appropriate cargo compartments and will be counted as 20 lbs. each, if standard weights are used.

A

TRUE

155
Q

(T/F) Turns after takeoff will never be made below 400 feet AFL.

A

FALSE

156
Q

(T/F) The Captain is the only person authorized to declare an emergency for a flight.

A

FALSE

157
Q

Envoy OPS SPECS state that a flight must be within miles of the destination airport, and visual contact made with either traffic to follow, or the airport itself before a visual approach clearance is accepted.

A

35

158
Q

(T/F) Pronouncement of death is standard policy and is to be accomplished in flight.

A

FALSE

159
Q

Persons will not be accepted for passage if they:

A

All of these are correct

160
Q

To find the recommended holding speeds for a given aircraft under normal conditions, look in:

A

QRH

161
Q

According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, what is the planned estimated time enroute (in minutes)?

A

61

162
Q

According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, what altitude is the flight filed for (in feet)?

A

32000

163
Q

Circling approaches are not authorized when the reported weather is less than feet ceiling and three miles visibility, or the reported weather is less than the charted circling landing minimums for the approach to be used, whichever Is:

A

1000 / higher

164
Q

(T/F) The pilots must, regardless of actual weather, utilize all available NAVAIDS, aircraft equipment, and ATC services during all approaches.

A

TRUE

165
Q

(T/F) MOT is defined as the last possible wheels up time to complete the active legs based on flight time and flight duty period limitations.

A

TRUE

166
Q

What are the fuel requirements for domestic flights?

A

All of these are required

167
Q

While operating in RVSM airspace, avoid climb and descent rates greater than____feet per minute within 2,000 feet or within 5 miles of level off.

A

1000

168
Q

While operating in RVSM airspace, avoid climb and descent rates greater than____feet per minute within 2,000 feet or within 5 miles of level off.

A

5000

169
Q

(T/F) No flight may depart with less than MIN T/O FUEL.

A

TRUE

170
Q

To board passengers, which of these items is required?

A

The minimum number of Flight Attendants for each aircraft must be on board the aircraft.

171
Q

A report that covers such information as clear air turbulence and low level wind-shear is called a______ and is issued by the Weather Company.

A

SIGMEC

172
Q

If operational, an autopilot coupled ILS approach should be made when the visibility is reported less than mile.

A

5000 / 1

173
Q

(T/F) The Airborne Radar is primarily used for penetration; not avoidance of weather

A

FALSE

174
Q

When must the Captain conduct a “preflight” briefing?

A

All of these are correct

175
Q

A missed approach is required when:

A

The flight is not continually in a position for a normal descent and landing in the touch down zone

176
Q

Envoy is authorized to carry_____ handicapped passengers per each flight.

A

Unlimited (based on seats available)

177
Q

The PM shall call out when within____feet of any required or assigned altitude during climbs and descents.

A

1000

178
Q

20Flight crew members will be at their airplane and ready for flight_____minutes prior to departure time, under normal circumstances.

A

20

179
Q

When must a jumpseat rider be verbally briefed by the Captain?

A

Prior to takeoff

180
Q

(T/F) Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) is defined as the maximum authorized weight for takeoff as permitted by the airport analysis, Max Landing Weight + enroute fuel burn, or aircraft structural weight.

A

TRUE

181
Q

Which one of the events listed below require that both the Captain and First Officer complete an Envoy Pilot Pipeline Debrief within 24 hours of the event?

A

Laser Strike

182
Q

(T/F) - Using the “One NAVAID” table, we would add 400 ft. and 1 mi. to the authorized landing minimums.

A

TRUE

183
Q

The Enhanced (Emergency) Medical Kit:

A

is meant to only be used by a physician (MD or DO); however, a Physician on Call may direct an R.N., other medical personnel, or Flight Attendant to open the kit

184
Q

The Captain’s signature on a release will indicate:

A

All of these are correct

185
Q

(T/F) If the latest weather report, including an oral report from the control tower, contains a visibility value specified as runway visual range (RVR) for a particular runway of an airport, that specified value is controlling for landings, takeoffs, and straight-in approaches for that runway.

A

TRUE

186
Q

(T/F) Any time both a NWS and Weather Company forecasts are available, the Weather Company shall be controlling for company revenue operations.

A

TRUE

187
Q

Flight crew members may______during sterile cockpit periods (critical phase of flight).

A

Only perform duties essential to the safety of flight

188
Q

(T/F) Separation for Envoy aircraft behind a heavy jet at the same altitude or directly behind and less than 1,000 ft. below while enroute will be 4 miles:

A

FALSE

189
Q

(T/F) Aircraft may be dispatched to an airport that is reporting freezing drizzle, light freezing rain, or freezing rain, since freezing precipitation alone does not classify as severe ice.

A

TRUE

190
Q

(T/F) During taxi, Flight Attendants may perform required duties during taxi.

A

TRUE

191
Q

An area indicating a steep rainfall gradient is to be avoided by_____miles at all altitudes

A

20

192
Q

According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, The call sign for this flight is:

A

Envoy2996

193
Q

According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, what TAS is the flight filed at?

A

421

194
Q

Which item or items must be in the possession of each flight crew member during all Line Checks?

A

All of these

195
Q

In accordance with Envoy OPS SPECS, flights may be released using lower than standard take off minimums as long as the appropriate visual references are available. These minimums include:

A

All of these are correct

196
Q

In regard to wake turbulence, the greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is:

A

heavy, clean, and slow

197
Q

According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, how far is the Millsap VOR (MQP) from the Abilene VOR (ABI) in nautical miles?

A

96

198
Q

After each takeoff, immediately before or after turning the FASTEN SEATBELT sign OFF,_________is required to give an announcement that passengers should keep their seatbelts fastened while seated, even when the FASTEN SEATBELT sign is OFF.

A

A crew member

199
Q

Envoy is authorized per Exemption 17347 to release flights under IF (domestic operation requirements) provided that:

A

All of these are correct

200
Q

A maximum tailwind component of________knots for takeoff and landing, for all aircraft, is allowed if supported by the airport analysis.

A

10

201
Q

(T/F) Flights of 1 hour or less may be released to an airport, which is forecast to be below minimums at the estimated time of arrival, if current weather reports indicate the weather will be at or above applicable minimums at the estimated time of arrival.

A

TRUE

202
Q

Flight crew actions regarding windshear are divided into four areas:

A

Avoidance, Prevention, Recognition, and Escape

203
Q

Except for dry ice used by the company for catering purposes, the maximum amount of dry ice that is allowed to be carried or shipped on Envoy aircraft is:

A

70 Ibs. per aircraft (maximum of 20 Ibs. in the cabin, and 50 lbs. in the cargo compartment)

204
Q

(T/F) The aircraft must be stopped during taxi if a passenger stands up or leaves their seat.

A

FALSE

205
Q

According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, what type of aircraft is N601AE?

A

E145

206
Q

If a silver dot (noted maintenance) is not available per the Aircraft Damage Log (ADL), what action or actions will take place?

A

All of these are correct

207
Q

The cockpit voice recorder circuit breaker must be pulled at the completion of the flight and all checklists following which of these occurrences?

A

All of these are correct

208
Q

(T/F) - Passengers may NOT remain on board, or be boarded and de-planed during aircraft refueling.

A

FALSE

209
Q

(T/F) The TCAS system should be used as the sole means of preventing a mid-air collision.

A

FALSE

210
Q

(T/F) Exemption 17203 does not provide relief for Restricted Captains to fly non-ILS or CAT II approaches

A

TRUE

211
Q

Which items are you required to carry or have readily available while performing duties on the aircraft or attending training?

A
  • All are correct
    o Medical certificate
    o Pilot certificate
    o Passport
212
Q

While at the gate, you pull TPS data for an intersection departure. After you begin taxiing, ATC clears you to “line up and wait full length.” Are your performance numbers valid for this takeoff?

A

Yes, full length data can be used

213
Q

What is the recommended holding speed for the E145/E175 in icing conditions?

A

E145 – 200 kts, E175 – 210 kts

214
Q

What is a VDP?

A

Visual Descent Point

215
Q

In case of RVSM required equipment failure while in RVSM airspace, a pilot must:

A

Notify ATC

216
Q

When would a second destination alternate be required?

A

Both are correct

When the weather at the destination and first alternate is forecast to be marginal

When using Conditional Language Exemption 17347

217
Q

How often are Captains required to have completed a line check?

A

Within the preceding 12 months

218
Q

If a flight deck crewmember accepts an FDP extension greater than 30 minutes, what is required prior to accepting another extension greater than 30 minutes?

A

30 hour rest period

219
Q

Who is primarily responsible for the safety of passengers and crew?

A

The Captain

220
Q

How much rest must a crewmember receive prior to the start of any reserve period or FDP?

A

10 hours, with a minimum of 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity