FOM Flashcards
1
Q
Is a flight crew authorized to Flight Crew Placard a CDL item?
A
No
2
Q
T/F: When the airport advertises on the ATIS or from ATC that “Braking Actions Advisories in Effect”, the highest Runway Condition Code will be “4” but may actually be lower than that.
A
True
3
Q
What is the primary method for determining takeoff performance?
A
TPS
4
Q
What is the standard weight for Valet bags? What about Checked bags? What about Heavy Checked bags?
A
20; 30; 60
5
Q
What is the maximum airspeed in Class D airspace?
A
200kt
6
Q
Can a flight be dispatched utilizing the Conditional Language Exemption, 17347, for international flights?
A
No
7
Q
What is the correct way to void an entry in the AML?
A
All are correct
8
Q
When are we directed to declare an emergency in regards to fuel remaining?
A
Anytime the flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel
9
Q
When is the uniform jacket, or company approved leather jacket, required to be worn?
A
From the beginning of November to the end of April
MONA
May to October
November to April
10
Q
What is the primary method a crewmember should follow if they lose an Airman or Medical certificate on duty?
A
Request a replacement certificate from the FAA website
11
Q
What is the definition of Release fuel?
A
Planned ramp fuel without any ferry fuel
12
Q
How would a crew know which items could be deferred under a flight crew placard and where could they find the procedure on how to perform a Flight Crew Placard?
A
A YES is listed in the Flight Crew Placarding column in the MEL and the procedure to Flight Crew Placarding is listed in the MEL General Section
13
Q
One piece of information transmitted by a Mode S transponder is:
A
The aircraft’s Flight ID or call sign
14
Q
RVSM airspace is?
A
Airspace between FL290 and FL410 inclusive
15
Q
A Runway Condition Code (RCC) of 0 provides better braking action than an RCC of 6.
A
False
16
Q
If you have departed the gate and a flight crew placard requires the cockpit door to be opened what action must be taken?
A
Return to the gate and normal procedures shall be followed
17
Q
What does the FOM define as the weight of a Cabin Crewmember? ACM?
A
182 lb; 210 lb
18
Q
What is the time frame limit on consumption of alcohol prior to being on duty?
A
12 hours
19
Q
Can a First Officer ever use the photo pages for the purposes of certification to operate into a SAQ/SARA airport?
A
No
20
Q
The correct format for entry of the Envoy Flight ID is:
A
ENY3839
21
Q
What is the total quantity of dry ice that can be shipped on Envoy aircraft?
A
50lbs per aircraft
22
Q
Required Rest Period begins _____ after a domestic flight block in; _____ after an international flight block in.
A
15 min; 30 min
23
Q
What are the landing currency requirements?
A
3 takeoffs and landings within 90 days on the type aircraft they are to serve
24
Q
During a flight, you encounter a reroute for weather and are given a shortcut to your destination. Are you required to advise dispatch of the changes?
A
Yes, you are required to tell dispatch anytime there is a significant change from a flight’s planned route or altitude.
25
Based on the following, what does –RASN mean? KMEM 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 PROB40 2022 1SM TSRA OVC008CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025 PROB40 2202 3SM SHRA FM0200 35012KT OVC008 PROB40 0205 2SM –RASN BECMG 0608 02008KT NSW
Light Rain Snow
26
Under normal conditions when shall a crewmember be at the aircraft and ready for flight?
20 min
27
If Ground Support equipment is not providing adequate cooling, what should you do?
All of these
28
What is the maximum flight duty period extension that can be accepted?
2 hours
29
With a Forward Caution Zone indicated on the Load Closeout, what are the requirements for the actual passenger count in Zone A and Zone C (for E145)/Zone E (for E175)?
Both are correct
30
What should you do if you’re cleared to takeoff from an intersection that is not listed on your TPS?
Obtain a new TPS with the intersection to be used and check your performance required
31
Where does a crewmember find what the latest updates for the electric flight bag?
EFB, flight Ops Technical, Revision Status Sheet
32
When is it required to start a new AML page?
All are correct
33
What is the transponder code used for radio failure?
7600
34
Can a crew fly with only 1 IPAD available?
Yes, but only to a domicile to get a lone or replacement
35
How can a crew obtain APA data?
Contact dispatch
36
Where is RVSM altitudes?
Between FL290 and FL410
37
Where is the Basic Operating Weight of the aircraft denoted?
Yellow sticker in the AML
38
When shall crewmembers wear their company issued green, highly visible safety vest?
At all times while in the aircraft operating area
39
Where can the crew find what the acceleration altitude is?
TPS
40
Crewmembers will normally sign in how long before their scheduled departure time at the beginning of their sequence?
45 min
41
Can you carry a passenger onboard your aircraft that is obviously under the influence of any intoxicating liquor or drugs?
No, unless it’s a medical patient under proper care
42
What is the maximum airspeed under Class B Airspace?
200kt
43
The correct number of characters required for an Envoy Flight ID is:
7
44
Where can crewmembers find a listing of the airports that require Special Airport Qualifications?
FOM
45
What is the time frame limit on consumption of alcohol prior to being on duty?
12 hours
46
What would a “P” denote next to the MAX TO weight on the EWBS?
Performance weight limit (airport analysis data or VAQ data)
47
What defines a Contaminated Runway?
When more than 25 percent of the required field length within the width to be used is covered by more than 1/8 inch of standing water, slush, or wet snow, more than 3/4th inch of dry snow, compacted snow or ice
48
What must a crewmember do if their FAA medical examination will not be completed by the 20th day of the due month?
Inform their domicile chief pilot when the exam will be complete
49
A LAHSO clearance, regardless of the performance capability of the aircraft, may not be accepted if ATC provides it after the aircraft is on the Final Approach and has descended below how many feet AGL?
1000 ft
50
When is a Captain considered to be a “Restricted Captain”?
Has not accumulated 100 hours as PIC in revenue service on the type aircraft being operated
51
When determining alternate airport weather minimums with two navigational facilities available, what values must be added to the ceiling and visibility?
Both are correct
52
If an Alternate is listed on the Dispatch Release, what will be the minimum HOLD Fuel time shown?
12 min
53
If a Category B MEL is entered into the AML on a Monday, on what day would it officially expire?
Thursday
54
What is the recommended holding speed for the E145/E175 in non-icing conditions?
QRH 2 engine holding table
55
If a particular airport or runway configuration is not listed in the Jepps as approved for LAHSO, may it be used for LAHSO?
No
56
If TPS is unavailable, how can the takeoff performance and speeds be determined?
All are correct
57
What is the lowest RVR (published) you can use for a CAT 2 ILS approach?
1200 RVR
58
Vertical separation in RVSM airspace is?
1000’
59
When are headsets with boom microphones required to be used?
Operations below 18,000 ft, including taxi
60
Is this a METAR or a TAF? DFW: 151353Z 19012KT 10SM FEW022 SCT100 BKN180 27/23 A2996 RMK: AO2 SLP134 VIRGA E-S-W-T02720233
METAR
61
What is the maximum variance per zone between the actual passenger count and the Load Closeout passenger count?
2 PAX
62
What is considered low visibility taxi procedures?
Surface visibility less than ½ mile or 2400 RVR
63
The first layer of Flight Attendant injury prevention beings with:
A proper preflight briefing with the crew
64
MAX landing weight is determined by the lighter of?
All are correct
65
What are the lowest possible minimums for landing as a restricted Captain?
300/1 mile or 4500 RVR, unless using FAA Exemption 17203 (CAT 1 minimums with autopilot on)
66
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance?
PIC
67
What is a NEF, where are they located in the MEL, and can NEF items be Flight Crew Placarded?
All are correct
68
Exemption 17203 provides relief for high minimums Captains to fly a CAT II or Non-Precision approaches
FALSE
69
If the current AML page has been voided by Maintenance after the Captain has already accepted the aircraft, does the Captain need to accept the aircraft again?
No
70
GOGO WIFI is an example of a SEL and is required equipment for dispatch.
FALSE
71
When does a Dispatch Release expire?
All are correct
72
What is the primary method a crewmember should follow if they lose an Airman or Medical Certificate on duty?
Request a replacement certification from the FAA website
73
Crew scheduling can reduce the crewmember’s show time at an outstation to what minimum time?
20 min
74
When performing a manual weight and balance on a flight without a Flight Attendant, will they need to be subtracted from the Basic Operating Weight?
Yes
75
Can a crew takeoff on a contaminated runway with a tailwind?
No
76
What should a crew do if a silver dot is not located next to a visible dent in the airframe?
Contact MX to ensure the area in question hasn’t already been noted in the Aircraft Damage Log (ADL), prior to making an entry
77
Your aircraft has a Category B MEL expiring tonight at your destination, but you must divert to another airport with no maintenance and remain overnight, can you depart the next day?
Yes
78
Who is required to review the AML prior to flight?
Both are correct
79
If you are unable to obtain an IFR clearance at airports which do not have operating ATC facilities and it is not possible to obtain an IFR clearance from the flight deck, what conditions must exist before the flight can takeoff?
All are correct
80
Prior to the taxi phase of flight, which chart should be displayed on each pilot’s EFB?
Airport diagram
81
What is the lowest RVR (published) you can use for a CAT 1 ILS approach?
1800 RVR
82
Dispatch will provide an amended release when any of the following occur:
All are correct
83
Where can the photo pages for SAQ/SARA airports be found?
JeppFD-Pro App
84
Who should a crewmember contact if they are too fatigued to continue performing their duties or notice that another crewmember is too fatigued to continue performing their duties?
Crew Scheduling
85
Turbojet aircraft shall be dispatched on the basis of Wet Runway Weight when the visibility at the airport of intended landing is less than ____.
0.75 mile or RVR 4000
86
What does a “LA” indicate on the SPCL line of the Load Closeout?
Live animal
87
Our flight has been cleared to a holding pattern at a fix 50 miles ahead. EFC is 55 minutes from now. If we choose not to request to slow down immediately, when must we reach holding speed?
3 minutes prior to entering hold
88
Seat power systems for the passengers is an example of a SEL and is NOT required to be operational for dispatch:
TRUE
89
How early may a scheduled Flight depart assuming all passengers and cargo are onboard?
5 minutes
90
Can a crew takeoff on a contaminated runway doing a FLEX TO 1 (E175)/ ALT TO-1 (E145) Takeoff Thrust?
No
91
If the Auto-NOTOC system is not available, which form must be used to notify the Captain that HAZMAT is being carried?
Form OK333
92
Are circling approaches authorized?
Only if the weather is greater than 1000ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility
93
Where can crewmembers find a list of common medications that are approved for use while on duty?
FM 1 (FOM)
94
How would a Captain ensure they are qualified for a flight into an airport identified as SARA or requiring SAQ?
Review the SAQ chart in FOM
95
The acronym SEL on a dispatch release indicates:
Special Equipment installed on this aircraft
96
Which of the following will not help keep the flight deck cool if the aircraft is unattended for less than 30 mins?
Keep the flight deck door closed
97
If a Captain exercises the Emergency Authority, Pilot Debrief must be sent _____.
No later than 24 hours after the event
98
If the outside temperature exceeds by 1 degree, would you need to obtain a new TPS?
No because TPS displays current plus 2 degree runway and climb limited weight
99
If runway conditions appear worse than what was expected or planned, crews should:
Execute a go-around and re-assess the landing distance required
100
If the Load Closeout indicates MANUAL next to the C-4 weight instead of SCANNED, what additional paperwork is the crew required to obtain?
Cargo worksheet
101
What are the critical phases of flight that require a Sterile Cockpit?
All are correct
102
When would a Takeoff alternate be required?
When the weather at the departure station is below authorized CAT 1 landing minimums
103
When is APA Data required to be used for takeoff?
When the runway is contaminated
104
Where are the familiarization videos found for SAQ/SARA airports?
My.envoyair.com
105
Which item is NOT required for RVSM operations?
Airspeed indicator
106
Based on the following, what is the validity period for this report? KMEM 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 PROB40 2022 1SM TSRA OVC008CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025 PROB40 2202 3SM SHRA FM0200 35012KT OVC008 PROB40 0205 2SM –FASN BECMG 0608 02008KT NSW
1800Z to 1800Z
107
What does “L” mean next to the MAX TO weight on the EWBS?
MAX Landing weight plus enroute fuel burn weight limit
108
When the Captain is not an IOE instructor and the FO has less than 100 hours in the type of aircraft being flown what conditions warrant the Captain making all Takeoffs and Landings?
All are correct
109
The Envoy Flight ID is located where:
The Flight Release
110
What wind speed requires taxi and takeoff operations be suspended?
50kt or more
111
Which of the following does not help to keep the cabin cool during the summer season when temperatures are greater than 90 degrees F or 32 degrees C?
Recirc Fan ON
112
When Exemption 17203 is applied, restricted captains are NOT required to add 100 feet and ½ statue mile to CAT I ILS minimums:
True
113
If a crew member is removed due to fatigue, how long do they have to complete the mandatory report?
48 hours
114
What is acceleration altitude?
The altitude where the pilot should normally reduce pitch, accelerate and clean up the aircraft and specially following an engine failure on takeoff.
115
What actions should the crewmember take when you have received an updated medical?
Both are correct
116
With a drift down flight plan, what should the flight crew do if the actual ramp weight exceeds the planned ramp weight listed on the dispatch release?
Contact dispatch
117
What conditions must exist for a flight crew to cancel an IFR flight plan?
All are correct
118
Who is authorized to use the emergency medical kit?
Physician (MD or DO) only
119
Exemption 17203 grants relief to:
Restricted (high minimums) captains
120
What does a silver dot next to a dent in the airframe signify?
Maintenance has inspected the area and found damage to be within limits
121
When is a destination alternate required?
All are correct
122
What form(s) must the FAA present to the crew in order to ride in the jumpseat?
Both are correct
123
If actual ramp weight exceeds your planned ramp weight on the dispatch release by 2000 lbs or more, what shall the Captain do?
Contact dispatch and consider obtaining a new fuel plan
124
When TPS is not available what is the secondary means of obtaining takeoff data?
Both are correct
125
What are the advantages of runway intersection departures?
All are correct
126
If you are operating a functional check flight will EWBS or TPS be available?
No
127
What is the transponder code used for emergency aircraft?
7700
128
When Exemption 17203 is applied, restricted captains are required to add 100 feet and ½ statue mile to CAT I ILS minimums:
FALSE
129
If the current temperature is warmer than the planned temperature by more than 2 C, what must the flight crew do?
Obtain new TPS data
130
What does "L" mean next to the MAX TO weight on the EWBS?
Max landing weight plus enroute fuel burn weight limit
131
When is it required by the flight crew to advise the dispatcher of any flight release amendments?
All are correct
132
In order to apply Exemption 17203 which of the following restrictions apply:
All of the answers are correct
133
Does a Captain have the authority to cancel a flight?
No, only SOC
134
What is the lowest visibility authorized for Envoy departure operations?
600 RVR
135
When are shoulder harnesses required to be used in addition to seatbelts?
All are correct
136
SECURE Checklist must be completed if the aircraft will be unattended over ___.
30 minutes
137
137. Using the Non-Standard Passenger Weight process, once the average weight has been determined,______ Ibs. will be added to account for personal items.
10 for the E145 and 16 for the E175
138
According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, the minimum fuel required to begin the takeoff roll is_____Ibs.
5700
139
If the Captain chooses to ignore or disregard deviations or irregularities that are noted by the First Officer, the First Officer shall
Continue to offer the information to the Captain until resolved
140
A "POSITIVE THREAT" is defined as any warning or threat against Envoy which includes:
All of these are correct
141
An additional alternate will be designated anytime:
Both are correct
142
(T/F) A destination alternate is required for forecasted crosswind components of greater than 25 knots as long as the forecasted ceiling and visibility are VFR.
TRUE
143
(T/F) - A LAHSO clearance may be accepted after the aircraft has descended below 1.000 feet Above Ground Level (AGL) on final approach as long as the Captain deems it safe to do so.
FALSE
144
Once passenger boarding has been completed, the Flight Attendants) will complete their pre-taxi duties and then issue an advisory of "Ready to Taxi" to the Captain. The Captain must receive this advisory prior to:
Pushback from a push back gate or taxi from a power out gate
145
(T/F) There is no need to notify the Captain if a TWO (Passenger Traveling Without Visa) is aboard.
FALSE
146
Which of these manuals are required to be carried by the Flight Crew?
FOM, Flight Manual - Part 2, Manual Volume 1, and Checklists.
147
To obtain a temporary Airman or Medical Certificate, the crewmember must:
Go to the FAA.gov website to obtain a temporary airman and/or medical certificate
148
Position reports in a non-radar environment include:
All of these are correct
149
Upon entering a holding pattern, the total Fuel-On-Board will be calculated every____ minutes by the PM.
15
150
In regard to weight and balance, when are "Winter" weights used to calculate the loading of the aircraft?
November 1st - April 30th
151
A takeoff alternate is required:
When the departure weather is below authorized landing minimums for the appropriate runways available based on the weather and equipment
152
(T/F) Prior to making an unscheduled landing due to a medical emergency, the Captain should attempt to ascertain the adequacy of the airport's or city's medical facilities.
TRUE
153
After receiving a "pilot's discretion" altitude clearance:
All of these are correct
154
(T/F) For the E140 / E145, all carry-on (valet) baggage will be plane-side loaded into the appropriate cargo compartments and will be counted as 20 lbs. each, if standard weights are used.
TRUE
155
(T/F) Turns after takeoff will never be made below 400 feet AFL.
FALSE
156
(T/F) The Captain is the only person authorized to declare an emergency for a flight.
FALSE
157
Envoy OPS SPECS state that a flight must be within miles of the destination airport, and visual contact made with either traffic to follow, or the airport itself before a visual approach clearance is accepted.
35
158
(T/F) Pronouncement of death is standard policy and is to be accomplished in flight.
FALSE
159
Persons will not be accepted for passage if they:
All of these are correct
160
To find the recommended holding speeds for a given aircraft under normal conditions, look in:
QRH
161
According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, what is the planned estimated time enroute (in minutes)?
61
162
According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, what altitude is the flight filed for (in feet)?
32000
163
Circling approaches are not authorized when the reported weather is less than feet ceiling and three miles visibility, or the reported weather is less than the charted circling landing minimums for the approach to be used, whichever Is:
1000 / higher
164
(T/F) The pilots must, regardless of actual weather, utilize all available NAVAIDS, aircraft equipment, and ATC services during all approaches.
TRUE
165
(T/F) MOT is defined as the last possible wheels up time to complete the active legs based on flight time and flight duty period limitations.
TRUE
166
What are the fuel requirements for domestic flights?
All of these are required
167
While operating in RVSM airspace, avoid climb and descent rates greater than____feet per minute within 2,000 feet or within 5 miles of level off.
1000
168
While operating in RVSM airspace, avoid climb and descent rates greater than____feet per minute within 2,000 feet or within 5 miles of level off.
5000
169
(T/F) No flight may depart with less than MIN T/O FUEL.
TRUE
170
To board passengers, which of these items is required?
The minimum number of Flight Attendants for each aircraft must be on board the aircraft.
171
A report that covers such information as clear air turbulence and low level wind-shear is called a______ and is issued by the Weather Company.
SIGMEC
172
If operational, an autopilot coupled ILS approach should be made when the visibility is reported less than mile.
5000 / 1
173
(T/F) The Airborne Radar is primarily used for penetration; not avoidance of weather
FALSE
174
When must the Captain conduct a "preflight" briefing?
All of these are correct
175
A missed approach is required when:
The flight is not continually in a position for a normal descent and landing in the touch down zone
176
Envoy is authorized to carry_____ handicapped passengers per each flight.
Unlimited (based on seats available)
177
The PM shall call out when within____feet of any required or assigned altitude during climbs and descents.
1000
178
20Flight crew members will be at their airplane and ready for flight_____minutes prior to departure time, under normal circumstances.
20
179
When must a jumpseat rider be verbally briefed by the Captain?
Prior to takeoff
180
(T/F) Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) is defined as the maximum authorized weight for takeoff as permitted by the airport analysis, Max Landing Weight + enroute fuel burn, or aircraft structural weight.
TRUE
181
Which one of the events listed below require that both the Captain and First Officer complete an Envoy Pilot Pipeline Debrief within 24 hours of the event?
Laser Strike
182
(T/F) - Using the "One NAVAID" table, we would add 400 ft. and 1 mi. to the authorized landing minimums.
TRUE
183
The Enhanced (Emergency) Medical Kit:
is meant to only be used by a physician (MD or DO); however, a Physician on Call may direct an R.N., other medical personnel, or Flight Attendant to open the kit
184
The Captain's signature on a release will indicate:
All of these are correct
185
(T/F) If the latest weather report, including an oral report from the control tower, contains a visibility value specified as runway visual range (RVR) for a particular runway of an airport, that specified value is controlling for landings, takeoffs, and straight-in approaches for that runway.
TRUE
186
(T/F) Any time both a NWS and Weather Company forecasts are available, the Weather Company shall be controlling for company revenue operations.
TRUE
187
Flight crew members may______during sterile cockpit periods (critical phase of flight).
Only perform duties essential to the safety of flight
188
(T/F) Separation for Envoy aircraft behind a heavy jet at the same altitude or directly behind and less than 1,000 ft. below while enroute will be 4 miles:
FALSE
189
(T/F) Aircraft may be dispatched to an airport that is reporting freezing drizzle, light freezing rain, or freezing rain, since freezing precipitation alone does not classify as severe ice.
TRUE
190
(T/F) During taxi, Flight Attendants may perform required duties during taxi.
TRUE
191
An area indicating a steep rainfall gradient is to be avoided by_____miles at all altitudes
20
192
According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, The call sign for this flight is:
Envoy2996
193
According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, what TAS is the flight filed at?
421
194
Which item or items must be in the possession of each flight crew member during all Line Checks?
All of these
195
In accordance with Envoy OPS SPECS, flights may be released using lower than standard take off minimums as long as the appropriate visual references are available. These minimums include:
All of these are correct
196
In regard to wake turbulence, the greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is:
heavy, clean, and slow
197
According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, Figure 2.2, how far is the Millsap VOR (MQP) from the Abilene VOR (ABI) in nautical miles?
96
198
After each takeoff, immediately before or after turning the FASTEN SEATBELT sign OFF,_________is required to give an announcement that passengers should keep their seatbelts fastened while seated, even when the FASTEN SEATBELT sign is OFF.
A crew member
199
Envoy is authorized per Exemption 17347 to release flights under IF (domestic operation requirements) provided that:
All of these are correct
200
A maximum tailwind component of________knots for takeoff and landing, for all aircraft, is allowed if supported by the airport analysis.
10
201
(T/F) Flights of 1 hour or less may be released to an airport, which is forecast to be below minimums at the estimated time of arrival, if current weather reports indicate the weather will be at or above applicable minimums at the estimated time of arrival.
TRUE
202
Flight crew actions regarding windshear are divided into four areas:
Avoidance, Prevention, Recognition, and Escape
203
Except for dry ice used by the company for catering purposes, the maximum amount of dry ice that is allowed to be carried or shipped on Envoy aircraft is:
70 Ibs. per aircraft (maximum of 20 Ibs. in the cabin, and 50 lbs. in the cargo compartment)
204
(T/F) The aircraft must be stopped during taxi if a passenger stands up or leaves their seat.
FALSE
205
According to the Flight Plan in FOM Chapter 2, what type of aircraft is N601AE?
E145
206
If a silver dot (noted maintenance) is not available per the Aircraft Damage Log (ADL), what action or actions will take place?
All of these are correct
207
The cockpit voice recorder circuit breaker must be pulled at the completion of the flight and all checklists following which of these occurrences?
All of these are correct
208
(T/F) - Passengers may NOT remain on board, or be boarded and de-planed during aircraft refueling.
FALSE
209
(T/F) The TCAS system should be used as the sole means of preventing a mid-air collision.
FALSE
210
(T/F) Exemption 17203 does not provide relief for Restricted Captains to fly non-ILS or CAT II approaches
TRUE
211
Which items are you required to carry or have readily available while performing duties on the aircraft or attending training?
* All are correct
o Medical certificate
o Pilot certificate
o Passport
212
While at the gate, you pull TPS data for an intersection departure. After you begin taxiing, ATC clears you to “line up and wait full length.” Are your performance numbers valid for this takeoff?
Yes, full length data can be used
213
What is the recommended holding speed for the E145/E175 in icing conditions?
E145 – 200 kts, E175 – 210 kts
214
What is a VDP?
Visual Descent Point
215
In case of RVSM required equipment failure while in RVSM airspace, a pilot must:
Notify ATC
216
When would a second destination alternate be required?
Both are correct
When the weather at the destination and first alternate is forecast to be marginal
When using Conditional Language Exemption 17347
217
How often are Captains required to have completed a line check?
Within the preceding 12 months
218
If a flight deck crewmember accepts an FDP extension greater than 30 minutes, what is required prior to accepting another extension greater than 30 minutes?
30 hour rest period
219
Who is primarily responsible for the safety of passengers and crew?
The Captain
220
How much rest must a crewmember receive prior to the start of any reserve period or FDP?
10 hours, with a minimum of 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity
