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Psychology-Forensics > Knowledge quiz > Flashcards

Knowledge quiz Flashcards

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1
Q

Give four examples of characteristics of disorganised offenders

A

They show little evidence of planning, they tend to have a lower than average IQ, be unskilled workers, live alone and have a history of failed relationships.

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2
Q

Which profiling type categorises organised and disorganised offenders?

A

Top down approach

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3
Q

Explain the principle of interpersonal coherence

A

It is the way that an offender behaves at the scene, including how they interact with the offender.

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4
Q

What is the difference between marauders and commuters?

A

Marauders operate close to their homes whereas communters are likely to have travelled a distance awat from their residence.

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5
Q

Define modus operandi

A

It is someone’s habits of working

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6
Q

Define Canter’s Circle Theory

A

The pattern of offending will form a circle arounf ther residence and this becomes more apparent as more offences are committed.

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7
Q

State one limitation of research into atavistic form

A

There is scientific racism as many of the characteristics are found among people of African descent.

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8
Q

Give three facial characteristics of someone with atavistic form

A

A narrow, sloping brow, a strong prominent jaw, high cheekbones and facial asymmentry.

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9
Q

What was the aim of research into atavistic form?

A

To find a biological and more scientific explanation of offending behaviour.

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10
Q

State the conclusions of research into atavistic form

A

Lombroso concluded that 40% of criminal acts can be accounted for by atavistic characteristics and these were as a result of lacking evolutionary development and being able to adjust to society.

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11
Q

Who proposed the theory of atavistic form?

A

Lombroso

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12
Q

In Crowe’s study, if the parent had a criminal record, how many of their children had a criminal record by the age of 18?

A

50%

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13
Q

In Lange’s study, how criminals had an MZ or DZ co-twin with a criminal record?

A

10/13 MZ twins did but only 2/17 DZ twins had a co-twin with a criminal record.

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14
Q

Name two candidate genes that may contribute to offending behaviour

A

MAOA and CDH13

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15
Q

State the two components of the diathesis-stress model

A

A genetic predisposition and an environmental trigger.

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16
Q

If a person has a high-risk pair of candidate genes, how many times more likely is the person to commit a crime?

A

A Finnish study found that you were 13 times more liekly to

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17
Q

Define the genetic explanation of offending behaviour

A

Offenders inherit a combination of genes wich predispose them to commit a crime.

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18
Q

What is the function of mirror neurons?

A

They are unique neurons that fire in response to personal action and to the action of others, helping us to understand the emotions of others.

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19
Q

What is the function of serotonin and how do abnormal levels lead to criminal behaviour?

A

Studies have found that criminals have low serotonin levels and that low levels of serotonin are correlated with high levels of aggression and controlling behaviour.

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20
Q

What percentage reduction in the volume of the pre-frontal cortex is associated with APD?

A

11%

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21
Q

What part of the brain shows lower function in individuals with APD?

A

Grey matter in the prefrontal cortex.

22
Q

What are abnormal levels of dopamine associated with that could lead to criminal behaviour?

A

Dopamine is associated with mood and too low or too high levels can increase the risk of criminal behaviour.

23
Q

Define the neuro-ethical dilemma

A

Ethical issues have been associated with neural examination as they are an invasion of privacy and they are helping to develop technologies such as psychosurgery, deep-brain stimulation or brain implants.

24
Q

What are the three personalities criminals have according to Eysenck’s theory?

A

Extraversion, neuroticism and psychoticism.

25
Q

Why did Eysenck propose that extraverts are criminals?

A

They have an underactive nervous system which means they constantly seek excitement and stimulation.

26
Q

Define socialisation

A

People learn from others the accepted behaviour and they are taught delayed gratification.

27
Q

What is the EPI?

A

The Eysenck personality inventory which is a psychological test that measures the E and N dimensions.

28
Q

What was the aim of Eysenck’s theory?

A

He wanted to shift the focus away from biological causes of crime and towards social and psychological influences.

29
Q

Define minimalisation

A

A type of deception where you downplay the significance of an event or emotion.

30
Q

State one criticism of the cognitive explanation of offending behaviour

A

There are individual differences which mean that moral reasoning levels may depend on the type of offence as individuals that commit robberies were more likely to show levels of reasoning than assaults.

31
Q

What is used to measure level of moral reasoning in Palmer & Hollin’s study?

A

The Socio-moral reflection measure short form (SRM-SF) which contained moral dilemma related questions.

32
Q

Define hostile attribution bias

A

The tendency to judge ambiguous situations or the actions of others as aggressive and threatening.

33
Q

Name the three levels of Kohlberg’s moral reasoning

A

Preconventional, conventional and postconventional.

34
Q

What was the aim of DAT?

A

To develop a set of scientific principles that could explain all types of offending.

35
Q

Define differential association theory

A

An explanation for offending that proposes that individuals learn their values and attitudes from those around them.

36
Q

Who proposed DAT?

A

Sutherland

37
Q

How does DAT suggest we should be able to predict criminality?

A

Mathematically by using knowledge of the frequency, intensity and duration of time exposed to deviant norms.

38
Q

What is a limitation of DAT?

A

It is difficult to test as you cannot measure pro-criminal attitudes.

39
Q

Which of Bowlby’s theories of attachment could explain offending behaviour?

A

The maternal deprivation theory as he found that maternal deprivation caused affectionless and delinquent behaviour in juvenile thieves.

40
Q

Which of Bowlby’s theories of attachment could explain offending behaviour?

A

The maternal deprivation theory as he found that maternal deprivation caused affectionless and delinquent behaviour in juvenile thieves.

41
Q

State the three types of superego that can lead to criminal behaviour

A

Weak, deviant and overharsh

42
Q

What alternative theories could explain the predictions of the deviant superego?

A

Children who are raised by criminal parents may offend due to genetic factors or learnt behaviour from them.

43
Q

What alternative theories could explain the predictions of the deviant superego?

A

Children who are raised by criminal parents may offend due to genetic factors or learnt behaviour from them.

44
Q

Why can you not assume cause and effect between maternal deprivation and criminal behaviour?

A

Genetic factors or DAT may be able to explain the link rather than maternal deprivation but there is no clear evidence.

45
Q

Why has the psychodynamic explanation of offending been accused of gender bias?

A

Freud assumes that ad girls fo not experience castration anxiety, their sense of morality is less realised and so they should be more prone to criminal behaviour. However, there is no evidence to support this.

46
Q

What key feature of science does the psychodynamic theory lack?

A

Falsifiability as it uses unconscious theories.

47
Q

Define recidivism

A

Reoffending

48
Q

When are young men most at risk of suicide in prisons?

A

During the first 24 hours of confinement.

49
Q

State three possible effects of custodial sentencing

A

Stress and depression, prisonisation, institutionalisation

50
Q

What are the four aims of custodial sentencing?

A

Deterrence, incapacitation, retribution, rehabilitation

51
Q

What percentage of prisoners in the UK show symptoms of psychosis?

A

25% of women and 15% of men

52
Q

Give two alternatives to custodial sentencing

A

Community sentencing and restorative justice.

Psychology-Forensics (13 decks)

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