KMK (Missing Optics and Pharm) Flashcards
Information is based on my knowledge
1
Q
Lupus
A
- Butterly rash (malar rash)
- Dry eye
- High ANA ratio
- 10 to 1 in females
- 20 to 30 years of age
2
Q
RA
A
- Morning joint pain
- Scleromalacia perforans (necrotizing scleritis without inflammation)
- Articular cartilage
- Females, ages 40 to 50
- Positive RF Test
3
Q
JIA
A
- Females (ages 6 and below)
- Similar findings as RA, but have Uveitis
- A negative RF factor, but positive ANA factor
- Chronic, bilateral, non-granulomatous anterior uveitis
- Low grade fever
4
Q
Sjogren’s syndrome
A
- dry mouth, arthritis, dry eye
5
Q
Sarcoidosis
A
- African American Female
- Positive ACE test, chest X-ray
- Anterior granulomatous uveitis
- Bell’s palsy
- Vasculitis and Vitritis
- Dacryoadenitis
6
Q
Ankylosing Spondylitits
A
- Bamboo spine
- Sacroilititis
- Uveitis
- aortic regurgitation
- Sacroiliac x-ray
- HLA-B27 testing
7
Q
Reactive Arthritis (Reiter’s Syndrome)
A
- Can’t See, Can’t Pee, and Can’t Climb a Tree
- Uveitis
- Urethritis
- Arthritis
- Low Grade Fever
- Young males
- HLA - B27
8
Q
Psoriatic Arthritis
A
- Joint pain with psoriatic lesions around knees, elbows and scalp
- Anterior Uveitis
- HLA- B27
- TX UV - B light exposure and methotrexate
9
Q
Behcet’s Disease
A
- Recurrent Acute Hypopyon
- Recurrent oral aphthous ulcers
10
Q
HIV and AIDS
A
- CD4 T cells: lower than 200 = AIDS
- ELISA: Screener
- Western Blot: Confirms ELISA
- CMV
- Pneumocystic Pneumonia
- Mycobacterium TB
- Karposi Sarcoma
11
Q
Sturge Weber Syndrome
A
- Facial capillary malformation
- Port Wine Stain
- Glaucoma
- Neurological issues on the affected side of port wine stain
- Vascular issues of the eye
12
Q
Tuberous Sclerosis
A
- Benign tumors grow in the brain
- Astrocytic Hamartoms
- Ash leaf spots (hypopigmented macules)
13
Q
Down Syndrome
A
- 21st Chromosome
- Mental Retardation
- Epicanthal folds
- Congential Cataracts
- Glaucoma
- Strabismus
- Keratoconus
14
Q
Von Hippel Lindau Disease
A
-Retinal Angioma (Can cause a RD, Glaucoma and loss or vision)
15
Q
Marfan’s syndrome
A
Ectopic Lentis (Superior Temporal)
16
Q
Huntington’s Chorea
A
- 30 to 50 year old
- Abnormal EOM’s
- 15 to 20 year survival rate
17
Q
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)
A
- Gardner’s Syndrome
- Multiple CHRPE’s
- Polyps on the colon post-puberty
18
Q
Name 3 AR systemic conditions.
A
1) Sickle Cell Anemia
2) PKU (Phenylketonuria)
3) Tay Sach’s
19
Q
Name 2 X-linked genetic disorder’s
A
1) Fabry’s - lipid deposit in blood vessels
2) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
20
Q
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
A
- Blue Sclera
- Keratoconus
- Megalocornea
21
Q
Prenicious Anemia
A
B12 Deficiency
22
Q
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
A
- Reed Sternberg cells
- Epstein Barr Virus (50% cases are associated)
- If diagnosed early, good prognosis
23
Q
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
A
- Abdominal pain
- Bone marrow biopsy to determine T or B cell types
24
Q
What type of cells is pre-dominate in Acute Leukemia?
A
Blast cells
25
Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia (AML)
- Infants and middle aged or older
- Normal WBC count w/ excessive myeloblasts
- Auer Rods seen within leukemic cells in the blood
26
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
- Peak age is 2 to 10 years
| - Normal WBC count with lymphoblasts
27
Retinal hemorrhage with a white spot
Roth spot
a) Leukemia
b) Endocarditis
28
Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia (CML)
- 25 to 60 year old
- Poor prognosis 3 year survival
- WBC count 50,000 to 300,000 with increase granulocytes
- Philadelphia chromosome
29
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
- Greater than 50 years of age
- Male
- WBC count of 20,000 to 200,000 mature small lymphocytes
- 5 to 10 year survival rate
30
What is Virchow's triad?
Theory of Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)
a) Alteration in blood flow (stasis)
b) Vascular endothelial injury
c) Alterations in the constituents of the blood through an inherited or acquired hypercoaguable state.
31
Venous thrombosis occurs most commonly in what 3 areas?
- Deep leg veins
- Heart
- Lungs
32
Arterial Thrombosis occurs most commonly in what 3 areas of the body?
- Brain
- Spleen
- Kidneys
33
What causes Anaphylactic shock?
Histamine release
34
What is the suspect of pupil involving CN III palsy?
Aneurysms
35
What are the lab results tell you with someone with Arthersclerosis?
High LDL
High CRP
Low HDL
36
What should WNL of total cholesterol?
200
37
What is the WNL of HDL?
40 or higher
38
What is the WNL of LDL?
130 or less ; if heart disease then 100
39
What is the WNL of triglycerides?
150 or less
40
What medication should be given if a pt has a MI?
325mg of Aspirin
41
Which eye will be impacted if Cartoid Artery disease is detected?
Ipsilateral.
Symptoms: Amaurosis fugax or complete loss of vision.
Sign: High pitched Bruit over the artery
42
What are 2 choroid findings associated with HTN?
- Siegrist streaks
| - Elschnig spots
43
What stage do you find Papilledema when associated with HTN?
Stage 4
44
What happens in Left side heart failure?
Pulmonary edema ; fluids fills into lungs
45
What is the common cause and symptoms associated with Left CHF?
Ischemic Cardiomyopathy ; shortness of breath
46
What happens in Right CHF?
Inability to pump into the lungs and causing edema in abdomen and legs.
47
What is the common cause and symptoms in Right CHF?
Left CHF ; Pulmonary HTN, COPD and Right side MI's.
48
What is the culprit for Rheumatic fever and what other 2 systemic conditions is it associated with?
Strep Pyogenes (Hemolytic streptococci) ; Reactive Arthritis and JIA
49
What does Rheumatic fever do to the heart?
Alter the heart valves ; usually mitral valve
50
What lab test will give you re-assurance its Rheumatic fever?
ESR testing
51
What are the signs and symptoms of a Cartoid Artery TIA?
- Contralateral hand.arm weakness
- Sensory loss to face or leg
- Ipsilateral Amaurosis fugax
52
What are the signs of a Vertebrobasilar TIA?
- Diplopia
- Unilateral or Bilateral visual loss
- Ataxia
- Vertigo
- Dysarthria
53
What kind of cardiovasulcar issue can spare the macula or involve it?
Stroke
54
If a stroke has happened, the macula is spared. What brain structure has been impacted?
Occipital lobe ; Middle or Posterior cerebral artery but NOT BOTH!
55
What type of testing is needed to determine size and location of a stroke?
CT scan
56
Macula only Homonymous Hemianopsia occurs due to?
Occlusion ; macula cortex blood supply has occurred due to a tumor
57
Most common type of stroke?
Ischemic ; Usually Embolism of an Arthersclerotic plaque
58
What is the most common type of hemorrhagic stroke?
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
59
What ocular finding is associated with a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
CN III palsy w/ Pupil involvement
60
What does the Anterior Cerebral artery supply?
Frontal lobe
61
What does the Middle Cerebral artery supply?
- Frontal lobe
- Lateral surfaces of the Temporal Lobe
- Lateral surfaces of the Parietal lobe
- Occiptal lobe
62
What does the Posterior Cerebral artery supply?
- Temporal lobe
| - Occipital lobe
63
If the Anterior Cerebral artery impacts the frontal lobe, what is processes are impacted?
- Logical thought
- Personality
- Voluntary movement
64
If the Middle Cerebral artery impacts the 4 lobes, what processes are impacted?
- Primary motor of the face
- Primary sensory of the face
- Throat
- Hand and arm
- Speech
- Vision
65
What are the signs, when the posterior Cerebral artery is impacted?
- Contralateral hemiplegia
- Hemianopsia
- Color Blindness
- Verbal Dyslexia
- Opposite visual field defects
66
What are the signs associated with a Cluster headache?
- Red eyes
- Nasal stuffiness
- Transient or Permanent Ipsilateral Horner's Syndrome
67
What is the classic triad for Meningitis?
Fever
Headache
Neck stiffness
68
What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?
Glioblastoma Multiforme
69
What is the most common benign brain tumor?
Meningioma
70
Which is the most common type of a functional pituitary adenoma?
Prolactin Secreting tumor
71
What type of visual field defect is common with a Pituitary Adenoma?
Bitemporal Hemianopsia
72
What are the ocular findings associated with Guilliam Barre?
- Adie's Tonic
- Diplopia
- Facial Diplegia
- Papilledema
73
What type of tumor is associated with MG?
Thymoma (Thymic tumor)
74
What type of deposits are associated with Alzheimer's?
Amyloid
75
What is the classical triad for Parkinson's?
```
TRAP
Tremor at rest
Rigidity
Akinensia
Postural Instability
```
76
Which artery is impacted when a Epidural Hematoma occurs due to trauma?
Middle meningeal artery
77
What is the triad for Horner's syndrome?
- Ptosis
- Miosis
- Anhydrosis ; absence of sweating on involved side
78
Which type of cells are destroyed in DM I?
Beta cells
79
What is lacking in Diabetes Insipidus?
ADH
80
What are the lab findings associated with Hypothyroidism?
- Increased TSH
| - Decreased T3 and T4
81
What are the 2 main findings in Graves Ophthalmopathy?
1) Proptosis
| 2) Upper lid retraction
82
Hyperparathyroidism is marked by ________?
Hypercalcemia
83
What are the 3 ocular findings associated with Hypothyroidism?
- Cataracts
- Uveitis
- Blurry vision
84
What is the triad for Cushings?
- Moon face
- Buffalo hump
- Obesity
85
What is occurs in Acute Renal Failure?
Decreased GFR
Increase BUN
Increased Creatinine
86
What systemic condition is commonly associated with Chronic Renal Failure?
Diabetes
87
Nephrotic syndrome is associated with what product in the urine?
3.5 grams of protein
88
What is the ocular presentation in Chlamydia?
Inferior palpebral follicles
89
What do you treat Chlamydia with?
Azithromycin or Doxycyline
90
What does an ocular infection of Gonorrhea present?
Severe, Hyperacute and purulent discharge
91
What type of test confirms Herpes Simplex and which type of cells?
Wright-Giemsa stain and Multinucleated giant cells
92
What is the culprit in Syphilis?
Treponema Pallidum (Spirochete)
93
At what stage may the eye become involved in regards to Syhphillis?
Secondary
94
At what stage of Syphillis does the pupil become involved, what is the name of condition and signs?
Tertiary ; Argyll Robertson ; Bilateral CONSTRICTED pupils, with good response to accommodation.
95
What are three tests you could do for Syphillis?
a) Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)
b) Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
c) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
96
What are 3 good diagnostic tests for syphillis?
a) FTA-ABS
b) TPPA
c) MHA - TP
97
RPR-VDRL is negative but FTA-ABS is positive what does that mean?
FTA-ABS - pt had syphillis at one point in life.
RPR and VRDL - displays that if it is active or not.
98
Which medication causes floopy iris due to BPH?
Tamsulosin (Flomax)
99
What test indicates prostate cancer?
PSA
100
What 2 ocular conditions are associated with Wilson's Disease?
- Sunflower cataract
| - Kayser-Fleischer Ring
101
What is the medication used in Wilson's Disease?
Cuprimine (Penicillamine)
102
What are the 3 major ocular side effects of Cuprimine?
- Ocular MG
- Ocular Pemphigoid
- Optic Neuritis
103
How is Hepatitis A acquired?
Fecal oral route
104
How is Hepatitis B acquired?
Blood, IV drugs and Sex
105
What is the Triad for Cholecystitis (Gall bladder inflammation)?
- Pain in right upper quadrant after meals
- Overweight females of child bearing age
- Murphy's sign (Palpation hypersensitivity)
106
What is the leading cause of COPD?
Smoking
107
Pink puffers are for?
Emphysema
108
Blue bloaters are for?
Chronic Bronchitis
109
What is retinal finding in regards to TB?
CME
110
Carcinomas arise from what type of cells?
Epithelial cells
111
Sarcoma's arise from what type of tissue?
Mesenchymal
112
What is the optic neuropathy sign for Alcoholism?
Toxic optic neuropathy = Bilateral temporal optic nerve pallor
113
Most common Alkali solution?
Sodium Hydroxide
114
What ocular findings are we worried about with someone who had a chest compression injury?
Purtscher's Retinopathy
- Cotton Wool spots
- Exudates
- Diffuse Retinal Hemorrhages
115
Which sinus is commonly associated with Orbital Cellulitis?
Ethmoid
116
Most common agent in ADULT Orbital Cellulitis?
Staph Aureus
117
Most common agent in CHILD Orbital Cellulitis?
H. Influenza
118
What signals a Orbital Cellulitis vs. Preseptal Cellulitis?
```
Orbital will have:
Decrease vision
Pain on eye movement
EOM restricition
Proptosis
```
119
What is the strongest correlation of Thyroid ocular conditions?
Cigarettes
120
What are not impacted in Thyroid disease when evaluating EOM's?
Tendon's
Note: Psuedotumor - Involves EOM's
121
What is the triad for Cartoid Cavernous Fistula?
Chemosis
Pulsatile Proptosis
Ocular Bruit
122
What is the most common cause of Steven Johnson Syndrome?
Medication - typically Sulfonamides
123
What is Meige's syndrome?
BEB and lower facial abnormalities
124
Which muscle is impacted during Myokymia?
Orbicularis Oculi
125
What are the signs of Basal Cell Carcinoma?
- UV exposure
- Occasionally bleeds and won't heal
- Fair skin
- Increased sun expsosure
- Central ulceration
- Shiny, Firm pearly nodule with superficial telangiectasia
126
Which carcinoma is more common?
BCC (40 times more)
127
Which carcinoma is more aggressive?
SCC
128
What is the biggest way to differentiate between SCC and BCC
BCC will have surface vascularization while, SCC does not
129
What is the classical presentation of Acute Dacryoadenitis?
S-shaped ptosis
130
Which race tends to be predominant with Conjunctival Melanoma's?
Caucasian
131
What organ is the most common metastasis from, in regards to Conjunctival melanoma?
Liver
132
CIN is associated with what type of carcinoma?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
133
What are 2 signs that are NOT associated with Bacterial Conjunctivitis?
Corneal signs
| Lymphadenopathy
134
What type of testing diagnosis is needed for Gonoccal Conjunctivits?
Thayer-Martin agar
135
What is the triad for PCF?
- Low Grade Fever
- Follicular Conjunctivitis
- Phyrangitis
Note: Swimming is usually associated with PCF
136
Important findings associated with EKC?
- Pain
| - Corneal involvement
137
If a contact lens rides to high, what does that usually mean?
CTL Warpage
138
What is the NaFl staining pattern when the CTL's rides too low?
3 to 9 o'clock staining
139
Superior Arcuate Epithelial Lesion (SEAL) is due to what CTL issue?
Tight fitting Hydrogel CTL
140
What is the most common culprit for Phylectenular Keratoconjunctivitis?
Blepharitis
Note: Most common in female teenager
141
Which layer of the conjunctiva is impacted in a pterygium/pinguecula?
Conjunctival stroma
142
Which layer is disrupted in a pterygium?
Bowman's
143
What medication is used to determine episcleritis vs. scleritis?
Phenylephrine
144
What is the early sign in Keratoconus?
Fleicher's ring
145
Where is the initial break in Keratoconus?
Bowman's
146
Which layer do Vogt straie reside?
Stroma
147
Corneal hydrops occur in which layer?
Descemet
148
Haab Straie occurs in which layer?
Descemet
149
Culturing a fungus should be done with what test?
Sabourds Agar
150
What type of hypersensitivity is Staph Marginal Keratitis?
Type III
151
Salzmann plaques are derived of?
Hyaline
152
Band Keratopathy deposit is located?
Bowman's (Anterior portion)
153
Which refractive surgery is known to create a hyperopic shift?
RK
154
What are the golden refractile particles in Synchisis Scintillians?
Cholesterol crystals
155
Where do BRVO's occur the most?
Superior temporal
156
What is 90 day glaucoma?
Neo occuring in the angle after 90 days of the incident of CRVO
157
Which retinal vessels are autoregulated?
Arteries
158
What is the most common retinal atropy?
Retinitis Pigmentosa
159
Glaucomflecken causes what type of cataract?
ASC
160
What is the greatest threat during Acute Angle Closure?
CRAO
161
What signs occurs during Uveitic Glaucoma?
Iris Bombe
162
What type of bond is between the cornea and glycocalx?
Covalent
163
Where is the rRNA produced?
Nucleolus
164
Which cells in the body are multinuclear?
Osteocytes and Skeletal muscle cells
165
What is the most abundant protein in the blood stream?
Albumin
166
What are the most to least common WBC's?
```
Neutrophils
Leukocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
```
Never Let Monkey's Eat Banana's
167
What is the hepatic triad?
Hepatic Artery
Portal Vein
Bile Duct
168
What does the Frontal lobe give personality?
Speech
169
Broca's area (Frontal lobe); if impacted what will happen?
Speech issues
170
What happens when Wernicke's is impacted? (Temporal lobe)
Word's wont make sense
171
MLF and coordination of the VOR is done where?
Upper medulla
172
Where is respiration and sleep coordinated?
PONS
173
Where is the red nucleus located in the brain?
Upper midbrain
174
What gives rise to the diencephalon and cerebral hemispheres?
Forebrain
175
Sleeping behaviour, eating and body temperature is conducted by?
Hypothalamus
176
Which papillitis condition is considered reversible ischemia?
Diabetic Papillopathy
177
Syphillis can cause what pupillary condition?
Argyll Robertson
178
Neuroretinitis is most commonly associated with?
Cat Scratch Disease
179
What is the pathophysiology of an INO?
Defect in MLF
180
What is the sign of a INO?
Lack of adduction on the affected side and a nystagmus on the contralateral side
181
Most common intrinsic tumor of the ON?
Optic Nerve Glioma
182
Where is the most common area of impact with Orbital Cavernous Hemangioma?
Muscle cone posterior to the globe
183
What happens to the visual acuity in Papilledema?
Enlarged Blind spot
184
What is malignant HTN?
200/120
185
Which CN is impacted in IIH?
CN 6 ; causing an eso deviation
186
What type of VF defect is seen in Toxic neuropathy?
Centrocecal or central ; you'll see temporal pallor
187
3 types of orthograde degeneration?
- PRP
- CRAO
- RP
188
What is the classical example of a retrograde degeneration?
Pituitary tumor
189
What is the VF defects (2) from a pituitary tumor?
Bitemporal Hemianopsia and Junctional scotoma
190
Where is the lesion in Foster Kennedy symdrome?
Frontal lobe
191
In a horner's syndrome patient, if cocaine was instilled into the affected eye, what will happen?
No response.
Normal pupil will have a dilation occur
192
What would Hydroxyamphetamine do in a Horner's patient?
Preganglionic: Pupil dilation
Postganglionic: No dilation
193
What are the 3 conditions associated with Argyll Robertson?
- Neurosyphillis
- Diabetes
- Alcoholism
194
What are the signs of Argyll Robertson?
- Miotic pupil
| - Light-near dissociation (Light won't constrict pupils but will with convergence and accommodation)
195
If you notice a CN3 palsy, without pupil impact, what is the follow up time frame?
1 week
196
What other symptom is associated with Adie's Tonic?
Diminished deep reflex tendon
197
What Rx is need to diagnosis Adie's Tonic?
0.125% Pilocarpine
198
Dilated pupil but with 0.125% Pilocarpine is constricts....what is the condition?
Adie's Tonic
199
Dilated pupil and does nothing with 0.125% Pilocarpine. 1% pilocarpine causes constriction...what is the condition?
CN 3 Palsy
200
Dilated pupil and does not react to 0.125% and 1% pilocarpine... what is the condition?
Iris sphincter tear or pharmacologic dilation
201
What are the parasympathetic innervated items associated with the inferior division of CN3?
- Iris Sphincter
| - Ciliary muscle
202
Pt comes in with CN4 palsy and a head tilt to the left. Which side is the lesion?
Right CN 4 Palsy
| Lesion is on the opposite side away from the head tilt
203
A pt has a Thymoma, which condition is associated?
Myasthenia Gravis
204
Superior Tarsal AKA Muscle of Mueller is innervated by which system?
Alpha 2 - Sympathetic
205
Which layer of the conjunctiva has IgA and Lymphoid tissue?
Stroma
206
Which facial muscle is associated with showing aggression?
Procerus
Pulls the eyebrow muscles together
207
Which ganglion does the lacrimal gland recieve innervation from?
Pterygopalatine ganglion
208
What keeps the puncta open?
Lacrimal papilla
209
The nasolacrimal duct is adjacent to which structure?
Maxillary sinus
210
Which 2 EOM's create the Ligament of Lockwood?
IO and IR
211
Where does the superior oblique originate?
Lesser wing of the Sphenoid and CTR
212
The superior lateral branch of the Ophthalmic artery supplies what EOM's?
SR, SO and LR
213
The inferior lateral branch of the Ophthalmic artery supplies what EOM's?
MR, IO and IR
214
Which Vein and 3 nerves travel through the SOF but above the CTR?
Superior Ophthalmic Vein
- Lacrimal Nerve
- Frontal Nerve
- Trochlear Nerve
215
What passes through the inferior orbital fissure and CTR is?
Inferior Ophthalmic Vein
216
The facial artery comes off the external carotid artery. What are the 3 terminal branches of the facial artery?
- Superficial temporal artery
- Maxillary artery
- Angular artery
217
What branch of the facial artery supplies the medical canthus?
Angular artery
218
What branch of the external carotid, gives way to another branch which supplies the IR and IO?
Maxillary Artery --> Infraorbital branch --> IOF --> IR and IO
219
What does the Infraorbital branch of the maxillary artery supply, name 4.
- IR
- IO
- Lower eye lid
- Lacrimal sac
220
What are the 2 vascular supply for MACI?
Long Posterior Ciliary Artery (LPCA)
| Anterior Ciliary Artery (ACA)
221
What do the SPCA's supply?
Macula and Choroid
222
What provides blood to the ON?
Circle of Zinn
223
What do the LPCA's supply?
Anterior Choroid
Iris
Ciliary Body
224
What terminal branch of the OA supplies the Lacrimal Sac?
Dorsal Nasal Artery
225
What are the 4 structures where the Anterior Ciliary Vein takes blood away from?
- Iris
- Ciliary Body
- Conjunctiva
- Schlem's Canal
226
Where does the blood supply from the CRV go to?
ONLY Superior Ophthalmic Vein
227
Where does the inferior branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?
Pterygoid Plexus
228
Where does the superior branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?
Cavernous Sinus
229
Which is the only layer of the cornea that has zonula occludens?
Superficial layer
230
What layer of the cornea increases with age?
Bowmans
231
What 3 conditions are associated with limbal stem cell deficiency?
- Aniridia
- SJS
- Alkali corneal burn
232
What type of collagen resides in Bowman's?
Type 1
233
What type of collagen resides in the Stroma?
Type 1
234
Where does the orbital vein drain in to?
Middle temporal vein
235
Where does the common facial vein drain into?
Internal jugular vein
236
What has he strongest impact on corneal diopter?
air/tear film medium
237
What are the 3 H's that occur in Descemet's?
- Hassall Henle Bodies
- Haab's Straie
- Hydrops
238
When the eyelids are closed, where does the cornea get its oxygen from?
Conjunctival vessels
239
What does the superficial conjunctiva carry, name 3.
- Microvilli
- Goblet cells
- Melanin Granules
240
Where are the Goblet cells densest?
Furthest away from the limbus
241
What is the thickest Basement membrane in the body?
Lens Capsule
242
What are the 2 main products the lens capsule is made of ?
GAG's
| Type 4 collagen
243
Where are the water crystallins located in the lens?
Lens Cortex
Note: Alpha, Gamma and Beta
244
What are the 2 areas of the sclera that hold elastin?
Scleral spur and Lamina Cribrosa
245
Anteriorly displaced Shwalbe's line is considered what condition?
Posterior Embryotoxin
246
What Iris layer provides the definitive color to the Iris?
Anterior border layer
247
Vortex veins are located in what layer of the Choroid?
Haller's
248
What is the vitreous composed of?
Hyaluronic acid
| Type 2 collagen
249
The vitreous has what predominat type of cell and which layer are they located in?
Hyalocytes ; Vitreous Cortex
250
Which portion of the PR has mitochondria?
Ellipsoid
251
Which portion of the PR displays protein synthesis?
Myoid
252
At what wavelength does rhodopsin absorb light?
507 nm
253
Where does the first synapse in the visual system occur?
OPL
Note: OPL is the only layer that has a dual blood supply and is also the Henle's layer
254
Lateral inhibition occurs with what retinal cell?
Horizontal cell
255
Which types, rods or cones, are not in the foveola. Pick 2.
Rods and Blue cones
256
The boundary between the fovea and parafovea is called?
Clivus
257
Cranial 10 palsy, Vagus nerve (Uvula), will deviate which side?
AWAY from the side of the lesion
258
Cranial 12 palsy, Hypogloassal (tongue) will deviate towards which side?
SAME side of the lesion
259
Left CN 3 palsy will lead to defect to which SR?
Right ; note it is contralaterally displaced
260
What is the sensory and motor innervation of the lacrimal gland?
Sensory: Lacrimal nerve V1
Motor: Zygomatic branch of the CN 7
261
A CN6 palsy, will display what type of sign?
Head towards the lesion
262
Which branch of CN 7 innervates the Orbicularis Oculi
Zygomatic
263
Removal of an acoustic neuroma, will result in the paralysis of?
The Parotid gland
264
Other than the Retina autoregulting its blood, what other structure does the same?
ON
265
A macula only VF defect is usually caused by?
a tumor
266
When does accommodation mature?
3 months
267
When does the vergence system mature?
2 months
268
When does stereopsis mature?
6 months
269
Grating acuity matures when?
3 to 4 years
270
Vernier acuity matures when?
6 to 8 years
271
Other than accommodation, vergence, and stereopsis, when do the visual attributes mature?
4 months
272
What is the most common type of color defect in the elderly?
Blue Yellow defects
273
What is the most difficult movement in the elderly?
upgaze
274
Where does glycolosis occur in the cell?
cytosol
275
What are the 2 processes that occur in the mitochondira?
Kreb's cycle and Oxidative Phosphorylation
276
What is the medication to treat CMV?
Vitravene
277
Corneal ulcers and pediatric bacterial conj, is caused by?
Strep Pneumoniae
278
Corneal ulcer due to CTL wear is usually what rod?
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
279
Otitis media which is often seen in conjunction with conjunctivitis?
H. Influenza
280
Ophthalmia neonatrum is associated with what STD?
Chlamydia
281
What is the triad for Ricketts?
Fever
Headache
Rash
282
What type of interferon is used to treat MS?
Beta Interferon
283
How do you treat chronic granulomatous ? Interferon?
Gamma
284
What are the first antibodies that reach the antigen's?
IgG and IgM
285
Systolic pressure is based on?
Contraction of the ventricle
Based on QT on EKG
286
Diastolic pressure is based on?
Relaxation of the ventricles
Based on TR on EKG
287
What is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body?
Aniotensin II
288
Which hormone regulates water retention?
ADH (Vasopressin)
289
Which CAI works on the PCT and possibly cause metabolic acidosis?
Acetazolamide
290
What is the only thing that leaves the DCT?
Water
291
What does not leave the ALOH?
Water
292
Which area of the Kidney does Furosemide work on?
Ascending loop
293
Where does HCTZ work on the kidney?
DCT
294
Which pitutary gland hormone has a diabeticogenic effect?
Growth Hormone
295
What is the main function of ADH?
Blood volume regulation
296
Which hormone regulates milk ejection?
Oxytocin
297
Which hormone is related to Diabetes Insipidus?
ADH deficiency
298
Where is the highest concentration of calcium intracellular and extracellular?
Intracellular: Mitochondria
Extracellular: Bones
299
What are 2 glucocortico steroids?
Cortisol and Corticosteroid
300
What are 2 mineral corticosteroid?
Aldosterone and Deoxycorticosterone
301
What GI organ is associated with second pass metabolism?
Rectum
302
What is the term for regular blinking, in the aid for tear film?
Spontaneous blinking
303
Auditory reaction is done by which CN and what type of blink?
CN 8 ; reflex
304
Which CN is impacted during a reflex blink, when something touches the cornea?
CN 5 ; Nasociliary of the Ophthalmic branch of the Trigeminal
305
Which portion of the Orbicularis is responsible for reflex?
Palpebral
306
What type of secretion is meibomian gland lipid release?
Holocrine
307
Which layer of the tearfilm is moved laterally by the upper eyelid??
Mucin layer
308
Through what system do the tears follow into the puncta?
Capillary attraction
309
What is the thickness of the tearfilm?
3um
310
What is the function of lyzozyme in the tear film?
Cleaves peptidoglycan of bacteria
311
What is the function of lactoferrin in the tear film?
Cheleats Fe2+ ; which is essential for bacteria
312
What is the function of Beta lysin in the tear film?
destroys bacterial membrane
313
Which aqueous producing items, assist in maintainence tears?
Krause and Wolfring
314
What is a higher concentration in the tears vs. blood plasma?
Potassium
315
Angular VOR movements are conducted at?
Semi-circular canals
316
The saccula and utricle are located in the Vestibulea. What are their functions?
Saccule: Verticle linear movement
Utricle: Horizontal linear movement
317
Saccades are controlled by the _______?
CONTRALATERAL Frontal eye field
318
Pursuits are controlled by________?
IPSILATERAL Parietal lobe
319
Where is vergence controlled?
Brainstem
320
Which wavelength is 99% transmitted through the cornea?
400nm
321
Which UV causes welder's flash?
UV-C
322
Movement of what ion into the Aqueous, will result in Cl- going to the tear film?
K+
323
What is the minimum partial required for the cornea?
15 to 20 mmHg ; the atmosphere O2 PP is approx 150 hhmg and when sleeping it goes down to 55mmHg
324
Which layer of the cornea stores glycogen the most?
Epithelium
325
Which 2 layers of the cornea can not regenerate?
Endothelium and Bowman's
326
What happens to the IOP when accommodatin kicks in?
Decreases
327
What is the primary oxidative protector in the lens?
Glutathione
328
What type of abberations are reduced based on a smaller pupil?
Chromatic and Spherical Abberations
329
Which layer of the Choroid increases with age?
Bruch's membrane
330
What are the 3 graded potential cells in the retina?
Bipolar cells
Photoreceptors
Horizontal cell
331
Which types of retinal cells have lateral inhibition?
Horizontal cells
332
Binocular processing occurs?
V1
333
What is the EOG for abnormal finding?
lower than 1.80
334
What is a normal VEP response?
<90msec
335
Which pathway is an anisocoria impacted?
Efferent
336
How long does it take for the entire Aquoues to be replaced?
100 minutes
337
What is the object location formula?
l = n1/L
Note: n1 = index of medium in which light travels before striking the optical system.
338
What is the image location formula?
l'=n2/L'
339
What is the primary focal length formula of an SSRi?
f= (-)n1/F
340
What is the secondary focal length formula of an SSRI?
f'= n2/F
341
What is the apparent depth formula?
n1/l = n2/l'
342
What is the Equivalent Power formula?
Fe = F1+F2 - (t/n2)F1F2
Note: This formula is used when comparing a thin lens to a thick lens
343
What is the formula for back vertex power?
Fv= (F2) + (F1/1-(t/n2)F1)
344
What is an aperture stop?
Limits the amount of light passing into an optical system when viewing an object
345
What is a field stop?
Limits the SIZE of the object that can be imagined by the system
346
What is an entrance pupil?
Image of the aperture stop formed by lenses in FRONT of it.
347
What is an exit pupil?
Image of the aperture stop formed by lenses BEHIND it.
348
Where is the exit pupil located in a Galilean telescope?
Inside
349
Where is the exit pupil located in a Kaplerian telescope?
Outside
350
What is an entrance port?
Image of the Field stop formed in front of it
351
What is an exit port?
Image of the field stop formed by lenses behind it.
352
Which acuity aid do we use when assessing depth of focus when the issue is refractive?
Pinhole.
353
Pantoscopic tilt of minus lens occurs at what axis?
180
Note: plus lens are opposite
354
Faceform tild of a minus lens occur at what axis?
90
Note: plus lens are opposite degree
355
Formula to calculate the power of a mirror?
F=2n/r
356
What is the Munnerlyn's equation for ablation depth per diopter?
I=(d^2)/3
d = ablation in mm
357
Malus law for incident light on a polarizer?
I=Intensity of the incident light / 2
358
Lensometer formula?
x = f^2 x Fv
359
Hand neutrilzation of a minus lens will display what type of motion?
With motion
360
Keratometer formula?
337.5/r
361
Lens clock formula?
F = (Lens - 1 / Lensclock -1) Power on the lens clock
362
Sag depth formula
((F1+F2)h^2) / 2n-1
363
Minimum Blank size formula?
M= ED + 2d +2mm
d= decentration per lens
364
Distortion can be minimized by what type of combination lens?
Orthoscopic Doublet
365
Prism Apex Angle formula
d=A(n-1)
366
Prism Power and thickness formula
Prism = (100g(n-1))/l
367
Shape factor formula?
1 / 1-(t/n)F1
368
Power factor
1/1-hFv
369
Transmittance formula?
Reflected= (n2-n1)^2 / (n2+n1)^2
Transmittance = 1-Reflected
370
Javals Rule
Arx = 1.25 x Astigmatism + (-0.50D x 090)
371
Usually the BC is changed, but if you increased the OZD by 1.2mm, how much should the BC changed?
Flatten by 0.75D
Note: Every 0.4mm in OZD change, 0.25D should be flattened of the BC.
372
When should a Bitoric design be recommended?
>2.50 astigmatism and NOT equaling 1.5D corneal astigmatism
373
What is the best fit for ATR GP fit?
Saddle fit
374
When is a Back surface toric CTL used?
>2.50 corneal astigmatism and equals 1.5 x corneal astigmatism
375
What is the function of prism ballasting?
Minimize CTL rotation during blinking
376
High water content, low silicone hydrogel = low permeability is what type of CTL?
SiHy
377
High water content = high permeability, what type of CTL?
Hydrogel
378
Which type of ametropia requires more accommodation with CTL's on?
Myope
379
Which type of ametropia requires spectacle magnication while wearing CTL's?
Myope
380
Which ametropia require more convergence with CTL's?
Myope
381
What is the formula for magnifcation of a stand magnifer?
M=F/1 +1
382
Formula for telecope magnification?
M= -Ocular/Objective
383
What is the maximum magnification of a Galilean telescope?
4x
384
To get rid of accommodation in a telescope what should be put in front of the ocular lens?
Reading cap
385
What is legal blindness in the USA?
20/100 in the better seeing eye or 20 degree or less of of visual field diameter in the better seeing eye.
386
What are the 3 types of Duane's retraction syndrome?
Type 1: aBduction
Type 2: aDduction
Type 3: Both
387
AC/A Ratio formula
AC/A = PD + NFD (Phoria at near - Phoria at distance)
PD: pupillary distance in CM
NFD: near fixation distance in METERS
Exo = +
Eso = -
388
Gradient AC/A
AC/A = (P1 - P2)/(S1-S2)
P1 and 2 = Phoria under 1st and 2nd condition
S1 and 2 = accommodative stimulus under condition 1 and 2
389
Sheards criterion formula
S=(2/3)D - (1/3)R
```
D= phoria demand
R= reserve
```
```
BI = Exo
BO = Eso
```
390
Percival's criterion
P = (1/3)G - (2/3)L
```
G = Greater of the 2 ranges
L = Lesser of the 2 ranges
```
Note: If (-) or zero; no prism is needed.
391
What is the most common type of Anisometroic Amblyopia?
Hyperopic Anisometropia
392
Which test is good for microstrabismus?
4 BO prism
393
During visuoscopy, you notice the center of the grid to be temporal to the FLR. What type of eccentric fixation?
Temporal eccentric fixation
394
Bagolini lens test reveals "/". What does this mean?
OS supression
395
Bagolini lens test reveals "X", what does this mean?
NRC if covertest shows no tropia
396
Bagolini lens test reveals "V". What does this mean?
Esotropia with NRC or UARC
397
A strict criteria will have what type of threshold?
Higher than expected.
398
Which color defect is usually acquired?
Tritanope (Blue yellow defect)
399
What are the 2 monocular depth cues?
Pictorial depth cues and Motion parallax
400
Which of the 4 purkinje images is real and inverted?
4
Only one created by a concave surface
401
Sulfonamides
MOA: Inhibit dihyroPTEROATE (First step of folic acid)
Bacteriostatic
Gram + and -
Ocular: Blepharitis and Conjunctivitis
Ocular side effects: Contact Dermatitis, burning, stining, suburn around eyelids
Systemic: Pyri/Sulfa = treat Toxo ; Sulfa-Meth/Trimeth = Bactrim
Systemic side effects: Myopic refractive changes, SJS (conjunctival lesions), Kernicterus
402
Trimethoprim
MOA: Inhibit dihydroFOLATE reductase (second step of folic acid)
Gram + and - ; BUT BAD AGAINST PSUEDOMONAS
Combined with Polymixin B (Good against -) = PolyTrim
Systemic: Oral treatment of ocular Toxoplasmosis
TMP = Treats marrow poorly ; causes aplastic anemia, granulocytopenia and leukopenia
403
Bacitracin
- MOA: Stops Bacterial cell wall synthesis
- Bacterialcidal
- Gram + ONLY
- Blepharitis
- Ointment only
404
Penicillin
MOA: Transpeptidase inhibitor
Gram + and Gram -
Amoxicillin + Clacvulanic Acid = Augmentin
Dicloxacillin = Good against MSSA but not against MRSA
Sideeffects:Hypersensitvity reactions
SJSJ is associated with Amoxicillin
Birth Control Pills are ineffective when using Penicillins
405
Cephalosporin
```
MOA: Transpeptidase inhibitor
-Gram + and -
First gen (+)
2nd gen (+) and small (-)
3rd gen (+) and (-)
```
Cephalexin: Dacryoadenitis, Preseptal Cellulitis
-Never for MRSA
Ceftriaxone: IM for gonorrhea and Gonococcal conjunctivitis
Sideeffects: Hypersensitivity, thinning of blood
406
Fluoroquinolones
MOA: Inhibit DNA gyrase and Topoisomerase 4
Ocular: Corneal ulcer, corneal abrasion and bacterial conjunctivitis
Systemic: Cipro ; gram (-) urinary and GI infections. Moxi ; pneumonia, sinusitis, intra abdominal and skin infections
407
What is the major side effect of an ORAL FLQ?
Tendinitis
408
If a FLQ is unavailable for a sight threatening corneal ulcer, which ocular med is next in line?
Cefazolin
409
What is a major side effect of an Aminoglycoside?
SPK
410
Pt with renal failure, requires an antibiotic. Which one would you consider?
Doxycycline
411
Name 4 bacteriostatic agents?
- Tetracyclines
- Erythromycin
- Sodium Sulfacetamide
- Trimethoprim
412
Extended usage of Chloramphenicol can lead to ?
- Aplastic Anemia
| - Optic Neuritis
413
Treatment for Chlamydial infections?
Azithromycin
414
What are the 3 recommended treating agents for MRSA?
- Bactrim
- Clindamycin
- Doxycycline
415
What are the 2 side effects of Rifampin?
- Orange tears or urine
| - Exudative conjunctivitis
416
Side effect of Isoniazid?
Optic neuritis ; possibly due to neurotoxicity
417
Whic TB drug causes bilateral Retrobulbar Optic Neuritis?
Ethambutol
418
What are 2 ocular side effects found with Zidovudine (Retrovir)?
CME
| Amblyopia
419
Which 2 Hep C medications display conjunctivitis as the most common side effect but retinopathy and retinal occlusions occur as well?
Ribavirin and Interferon
420
Which intraocular implant is used for CMV Retinitis?
Ganciclovir
421
If Ganciclovir fails for CMV, what is given next?
IV Foscarnet
422
What ocular condition is worsesome when a antifungal is ineffective?
Endophthalmitis
423
Risk of retinopathy for exceeding the usage of Plaquenil is at what amount?
400mg/day or 6.5mg/kg of body weight/day
424
What type of cataract forms from steroid usage?
PSC
425
Which NSAID causes Reye's syndrome?
Aspirin
426
Which cold medication is "cautioned" to patients with high IOP?
Psuedophedrine
427
Which NSAID is useful, when a pt has gastric issues?
Celecoxib
428
Which second generation H1 blocker has a side effect of ocular gyric syndrome?
Cetrizine (zyrtec)
429
What is the most common peptic ulcer cause?
H. Pylori
430
Which H2 blocker causes gynocomastia and loss of libido?
Cimetidine
431
Which short acting B2 agonist are to be used in caution with IOP?
Metaproteronol
Albuterol
Levalbuterol
Terbutaline
432
Which type of bronicodilator is a cause of concern in narrow angle glaucoma patients?
Muscarinic Antagonist ; Ipratopium
433
Which immunosuppressant is a cause of concern for Opportunisitic infections and lymphomas?
Methotrexate
434
Which drug has the potential of causing crystalline retinopathy and whorl keratopathy?
Tamoxifen
435
Non-opoid analgesic that is an Agonist MU receptor?
Tramadol
436
Sumitriptan can cause what vasoconstrictive condition?
NAION
437
What are the 3 pigmentary affects do anti-psychotics cause?
- pigment on corneal endothelium
- anterior stellate cataract
- hyperpigmentation of the RPE
438
Side effect of Bromocriptine?
Pitutary Adenoma - Prolactin
439
What is an ocular side effect of Donepizil?
IOP lowering
440
Name 1 SSRI?
Fluoxitine (Prozac)
441
Which type of medication do you not give to suicical pts?
TCA's (Amitriptyline, Imipramine)
442
MAOI's and what grocery products can cause a lethal hypertensive crisis?
- Dried Meats
- Wine
- Cheese
443
Which medication causes choroidal swelling?
Topiramate
444
Why is metformin a first line oral med for diabetes?
It prevents hypoglycemia
445
What is the side effect of metformin?
Lactic acidosis
446
Which diabetic med is a cause of ocular concern?
Pioglitazone : can cause Macular Edema
447
Which medications cause cyanopsia or NAION?
Sildenafil
448
Which alpha 1 blocked is profoundly known to cause floppy iris syndrome?
Tamsulosin (Flomax)
449
Medications, such as Lisinopril, can cause what type of side effect?
Cough
450
Which cardiac medication is beneficial in patients with low tension glaucoma?
Calcium Channel blocker
451
Which drug work on the ascending LOH?
Furosemide
452
Which drug works on the early DCT?
HCTZ
453
What are 2 unusual side effects of HCTZ?
- Transient Acute Myopia
| - Acute angle closure glaucoma
454
What works on the late DCT?
Spirnolactone ; also works on the collecting duct
455
What are the 3 ocular side effects of Digoxin?
- B/Y defect
- Retrobulbar optic neuritis
- Entoptic phenomenom
456
3 ocular findings associated with Amiodarone
- Whorl keratopathy
- NAION
- ASC lens deposit
457
Name the 7 side effects of Accutane?
- Dry eyes
- Blepharoconjunctivitis
- Pseudotumor cerebri
- lid edema
- color vision loss
- nyctolopia
- cataracts
458
What are the main side effects of Pilocarpine?
Browache, headaches and myopic shift
459
Which syndrome is associated with Atropine use?
Down syndrome
460
Fast onset and shortest duration for cycloplegia?
Cyclopentolate
461
Fast onset and shortest duration for mydriatic?
Tropicamide
462
What is a major side effect of Visine?
Fixed dilated pupil
463
What is the function of an alpha 2 agonist?
Increase uveoscleral outflow and decrease aqueous out flow
Names: Briminodine and Apraclonidine
464
Brimonidine is known to cause follicular conjunctivits, however which preservative decreased these signs?
Purite ; Alphagan-P
465
Major side effect of alpha 2 agonist (Brimonidine and Apraclonidine)?
Dry mouth
466
Which type of glaucoma medication that has a crossover effect?
Beta blocker
467
Which systemic conditions, pick 2, can be masked by Timolol?
Diabetes and Hyperthyroidism
468
Which beta blocker is good for pulmonary pts?
Betaxolol
469
Which macular condition is associated with PG's?
CME
470
Ocular anesthetics are amide or ester based?
Ester
471
What is the most common affect from an initial instillation of an NSAID?
Stinging
Note: Good for seasonal allergies without any corneal involvement
472
Parent derived steroids, are what type?
Steroid (Lipid soluble)
473
Norepi and epi are what type of steroid?
Amine based
474
What are the 3 peptide hormones?
ADH, Oxytocin and TRH
475
What are 3 granulocytes?
Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
476
Triglycerides moved from the intestines to the liver are carried out by?
Chylomicrons
477
Michealis menten formula
Vm (s) / Km + s = V
478
Which bacterial agent is associated in warmer climates?
H. Influenza
479
Rocky mountain fever, is associated with what agent?
Rickettesia - Gram -
480
Chocolate agar and Bacitraicin together well allow to allocate which bacterial agent?
Haemphilus
481
20/30 spatial acuity will display what CPD of spatial frequency?
20 CPD
600/30 = 20
482
Connective tissue mnemonic for Keratoconus
T-DOME
483
Which three (2 corneal layers) have type 1 collagen?
Bowman's
Sclera
Bones
484
Which layer of the cornea is impacted in Dellen?
Stroma (Dehydration)
485
What is the fulcrum of the levator?
Whitnall's
486
What is the mnemonic for secondary and tertiary function?
SIN RAD
Recti - Adduction
Superior's - Intortion
Note: Adduction or Abduction is a tertiaryor a primary action only
487
SPE
Residual/OR: <0.75 CT: >1.50
488
Spherical GP
Residual/OR: <0.75 CT: <2.50
489
Toric BC
Residual/OR: >0.75 CT: >1.50
490
Front Toric
Residual/OR: >1.00 CT: <1.00
491
CPE
Residual/OR: >0.75 CT: >1.50
492
Reduced Thickness
x = t/n
493
Real object and Negative lens
Virtual, Upright, Smaller image
494
Real Object, Between first focal point and Plus lens
Virtual, Upright, Enlarged
495
Lens power and Mirror combo
2D1 + P (n')
496
Ophthalmic Artery Branches
```
CRA
Lacrimal
Muscular
SPCA
LPCA
Supra
Ethmoid
```
497
Virtual Object; placed between focal point and minus lens
Real, Upright and Larger
498
Special Viseral Afferent CN?
CN 1, 2 and 8
499
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic are what system?
Visceral (Autonomic)
500
What controls balance and muscle movement?
Cerebellum
501
CSF travels through which layer?
Subarchnoid
502
Which layer of the Scalp is considered the danger area?
Loose Areolar Tissue
- Black eye
- Danger area of scalp (lead to dural sinuses)
503
Toughest bone in the skull
Zygomatic
504
Kreb's cycle
2 ATP
Aerobic
Matrix of Mitochondria
505
Glycolysis
```
Cytoplasm
2 ATP
Anaerobic
Can go to lactic acid fermentation
Glucose to Pyruvate
```
506
Electron Transport chain
34 ATP
Aerobic
Inner membrane of Mitochondria
507
What is the most potent ocular steroid?
Durezol
508
Which class of drugs decrease bronchoconstriction?
Lukast drugs
509
Why do steroid increase IOP?
Decrease the outflow through corneosclero outflow
510
What are the most common side effects of steroids?
```
Hyperglycemia
HTN
Peptic ulcers
Weaker bones
Decrease collagen (fibroblast)
```
511
Which NSAID is known for corneal melting?
Diclofenac
512
What NSAID causes a lot of bleeding in the and around the eye?
Indomethacin
513
Which 3 drugs are known for pigmentary retinopathy?
Thioridizine
Indomethacin
Chlorprimizine
514
MOA of FLQ?
DNA Gyrase and Topoisomerase 4
515
Which drugs are involved in delayed corneal healing and which layers are impacted?
Aminoglycosides (Tobramycin and Gentamycin) ; Epithelial and Bowmans
516
Which 4 drugs can cause Psuedotumor cerebri?
```
CANT
Contraceptives
Accutane
Naldixic Acid
Tetracycline
```
517
What is a major ocular side effect of Minocycline?
Blue sclera
Note: Scleritis can cause a blue sclera
518
Which ocular drug is known to cause conjunctival cysts?
Tetracycline
519
Doxycycline is used for which 2 ocular condition?
Dry Eye
| Chlymadia
520
Which ocular drug use to cause Aplastic Anemia, now is discontinued in the USA?
Chloramphenicol
521
Which 2 drugs are used for Gonnrhea Neonatrum?
Erythromycin and Silver Nitrate
522
What drug is used for systemic Gonnarhea?
Ceftriaxone
523
MOA of Rifampin?
RNA Polymerase
524
Which fungal mediation work on Microtubles?
Griseofulvin
525
Which one is the only H1 Blocker Antihistamine?
Emedastine
526
Which 4 drugs cause a depolarization of Ca+2 in a Basophil or Mast cell?
Cromlom, Ala, Alo and Alo
527
Which systemic allergic medication is known to cause pigmentary issues?
Promethazine
528
Which drug works on the MAO portion to inhibit the postganglionic adernergic portion?
Phenylzaline
529
What is the major SE of MG?
Diplopia
530
What are the 5 topical Cholenergic Antagonist?
ASHCT
531
Which respiratory drugs can cause an increase Aqueous prodction?
Beta 2
532
Minus Lens and Real Object?
ALWAYS, Virtual, Upright and Minified
533
Plus lens and Object at Infinity?
Real, Inverted and Smaller
534
Plus lens and Object at 2f?
Real, Inverted and Same size
535
Plus lens and Object between 2f and f?
Real Inverted and Larger
536
Plus lens and Object at f?
No image
537
Plus lens and Object between lens and f?
Virtual, Upright and Enlarged
538
Corrected refractive hyperope vs. Corrected refractive myope ; Which has a larger retinal image?
Corrected Refractive Hyperopia
539
For tight fitting CTL, when will the pt see better?
After blinking
540
Lateral magnification
m=hi/ho = l'/l
541
Relative Distance
DON
D=Original Distance/New Distance
542
Relative Size
SNO
S=New Size/Original Size
543
Hand Held Magnifer
F/4
544
Which magnifier requires more accommodation?
Stand ; No accommodation needed
545
Stand magnifer
F/4+1
546
What does it mean 5x45 telescope?
M=Ent/Exit
5=45/exit
547
How much prism do you want to give to your +10.00 pt?
12PD
10+2 = 12
548
0.4m/1.0M is what in snellen?
20/50
549
Where is the far point of a myope?
In front of the eye
550
Far point of a hyperope?
Behind the eye (Virtual)
551
What does Absolute Hyperopia mean?
Accommodation that cannot overcome hyperopia
552
Resolution acuity is what type?
Teller card
553
What type is recognition acuity?
Snellen acuity
554
Minimal detectable acuity vs. Snellen?
Minimal detactabke is better than Sneller
555
What is hyperacuity?
Vernier
556
Exo deviation will display which way, in regards to cover test?
Same as the paddle
557
How do you treat Eso pt's?
Plus lens
558
What mneumonic work when prescribing lenses or prism?
BIM BOP
559
What is the age for Anamolous Correspondance to occur?
Age 5
560
What coordinates the vestibular system?
Endolymph in the Semi-circular canalas
561
What is measured in the vestibular system?
Speed
562
Which system allow to monitor for constant motion?
OKN
563
Saccades have a______ velocity and _______ latency.
Fast Velocity
| Slow Latency
564
Vergence: Eye at rest?
Tonic
565
Vergence; Awareness of something is close?
Proximal
566
Vergence; Retinal Disparity
Fusional
567
Vergence; Retinal blur
Accommodative
568
Which law is disrupted in Duane's and Brown's?
Sherrington's
569
What is another issue with the globe in regards to Duane's?
Globe retraction
570
What is the major problem with Brown's?
Limited elevation in Adduction
Note: this is due to the SO not relaxing
571
Most plentiful antigen marker?
IgG
572
Made first antigen?
IgM
573
Mneumonic for a heart attack treatment?
MONA
Morphine
Oxygen
Nitro
Aspiring
574
BPH Meds like Terazosin or Tamsulosin can cause floppy iris syndrome. What is the MOA? What systemic condition can be caused?
Alpha 1 Antagonist ; Orthostatic Hypotension
575
Which condition is associated with Gluten?
Celiac Disease
576
Best way to differentiate between TMJ and GCA?
Jaw pain on movement in TMJ.
577
What 3 systemic conditions can cause Optic Neuritis?
MS, Sarcoid and Lupus
578
Phlyctenules are associated with what condition?
TB
579
What are the 3 main cell's associated with chronic inflammation?
Macrophages, Lymphocytes and Plasma cells
580
What major systemic condition is associated with decrease blood supply?
Diabetes
581
What Ion causes cell tissues death?
Na+
582
Coagulative necrosis occurs where?
Heart
583
Liquefactive Necrosis occurs where and is caused by?
Lungs ; Fungal
584
Caseous necorsis is?
Cheesy in lungs ; occurs due to TB
585
2 systemic conditions associated with Interstitial Keratitis?
Herpes and Syphillis
586
3 ocular conditions associated with syphillis?
Salt and Pepper fundus
Intersitial Keratitis
Uvities
Note: Neuroshyphillis could have been added too
587
2 conditionsthat cause infant cataract?
Rubella and Galactosemia
588
Skip lesions and Cobblestone are associated with which condition?
Crohn's
589
What is Meniere's triad?
Vertigo, Hearing loss and Tinnitus
590
ETDRS CSME classification
1) Thickening of the retina at or within 500 um
2) Hard exudate at or within 500 um with associated retinal thickening
3) Zone of 1 DD or retinal thickening, that is withing 1DD of the macula
591
HTN Retinopathy stages
Grade 0: No changes
Grade 1: Barely detectable arterial narrowing
Grade 2: Obvious arterial narrowing with focal irregularities
Grade 3: Grade 2 plus retinal hemorrhages, exudates, cotton wool spots, or retinal edema
Grade 4: Grade 3 plus papilledema
592
Chronic Arteriosclerotic HTN stages by Schieie
Stage 1: Widening of the arteriole reflex
Stage 2: Arteriovenous crossing sign
Stage 3: Copper-wire arteries (copper colored arteriole light reflex)
Stage 4: Silver-wire arteries (silver colored arteriole light reflex)
593
What is considered early NPDR?
Atleast 1 microanuerysm
594
Whats is Moderate NPDR?
Multiple heme's; cotton wool spots and venous beading
595
What is Severe NPDR?
4-2-1 rule
4 quadrants of hemes
2 quadrants of venous beading
1 quadrant of IRMA
596
Cholinergic agonist should be caution in?
Asthma pt's
597
Epipherine reveral occurs when epinephrine is given to a patient taking?
a1 blockers
598
Which drug is known to increase the metabolism of Warfarin?
Phenobarbital
599
Toxicity of heparin can be reversed by using?
Protamine
600
Which ligament is located anteriorly to the orbital septum?
Medial palpebral ligament
601
Which EOM is the only one that has its anatomic orgin anterior to the globe?
Inferior Oblique
602
Which two nerves form to make the Frontal nerve?
Supratrochlear and Supraorbital
603
Layers of the conjunctiva to the sclera.
Conjunctival Epi > Conjunctival Stroma > Tenon's Capsule > Episclera > Sclera
604
Which corneal layer cannot regenerate?
Bowman's
605
Definition of anterior boundary of the limbus?
Line from the Schwalbe line to the termination of Bowman's
606
What is the transition of Schwalbe's line?
Descemet's
607
Where is MACI located?
Ciliary body
608
Where is the minor arterial circle of the iris located?
Iris stroma
609
Anterior iris epithelium is composed of what special type of epithelium?
Myoepithelium
610
Where is the insertion of the longitudinal muscles of the ciliary muscle?
Anterior Choroid
611
Where is the orgin of the longitudinal muscles of the ciliary muscle?
Scleral Spur
612
The posterior choroid is supplied by the ?
Short Ciliary Arteries
613
Which layer of the retina provides the blood retinal barrier?
RPE
614
Optic radiations terminate ?
Visual cortex
615
Where does the lens placode develop?
surface ectoderm
616
Iris sphincter is derived from what developmental pathway?
neural ectoderm
617
Which germ layer produces the nasolacrimal drainage structures?
surface ectoderm
618
Neuroglial tissues of the optic nerve comes from which germ layer?
neural ectoderm
619
Most muscles and bones of ocular structure are derived from?
Mesenchyme
620
What is a good blood-aqueous-barrier in the iris?
Non fenestrated iris capillaries
621
Which ion is a higher concentration in the tears than plasma?
Cl-
622
Lactoferin is secereted by?
Lacrimal gland
623
What is the cause of lowered IOP during accommodation?
Decreased in outflow resistance
624
What are the 3 conditions Ceftriaxone is used for?
Gonerrhea, Syhillis and Lyme Disease
625
Which anesthetic is an amide based?
Lidocaine
626
Best topical medication for dendritic form of herpes simplex?
Trifluoridine
627
Which beta blocking agent is associated with causing granulomatous iridocyclitis?
Metipranolol
628
Which color testing is good to do for an acquired color deficiency?
Fransworth Munsell 100 Hue
629
What is static perimertry?
Bright light against a background
630
What is weber's law?
Constant porportion between Increment threshold = background luminance
631
Which type of cone does not play a role in luminosity?
S-cones
632
Dark adaption is related to the curve in what aspect?
If the field becomes larger = larger second portion of the curve. This is due to the fact more rods are used
633
Which condition shows no dark adaption after pre adapting light is turned off?
Oguchi's disease
634
Small variation in panum's fusional are called?
fixation disparities
635
Law that states afterimage is perceived as larger than onto a distant surface?
Emmert
636
Apparent luminance of an intermittent light stimulus when an alternation frequency above the CFF is which law?
Talbot-Plateau law
637
Brucke Bartley is associatted with what phenomenom?
Brightness
638
Resolving grating patterns, like black and white bars is what type of acuity?
Resolution
639
Name 3 static monocular cue's?
Interposition, Linear perspective and Texture Gradient
640
VOR latency is approx?
16 msec - very quick
641
What would happen to the VOR gain from distance to near?
Increase
642
What is the purpose of the VOR
Stablize vision during head movement
643
What is saccadic latency?
200 m/sec
644
What is supressed during a saccade?
Vision
645
Which type of PR decreased as we age?
Rods
646
Hardest type of virus to disinfect?
Non-enveloped
647
Major side effect of Benadryl?
Narrow angle closure
648
Ciliary muscle is what type of muscle?
Smooth muscle
649
Over correction of myopia will display what type of phoria?
Increased esophoria
650
What is generally absent in Latent hyperopia?
diplopia
651
What is the sequence of signal conduction in cardiac cycle?
SA>AV> purkinje fibers
652
Which phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the equator?
Metaphase
653
Sequence of pre natal development
Zygote>Morula>Blastocyst>Embryo>Fetus
654
What is the term when no punctum is present?
Punctal Atresia
655
Once fertilization of the egg has occurred what hormone is released to inhibit menstration?
HCG secreted by the blastocyst
656
Center thickness of GP lens formula
0.023 x CTL power +0.19mm
657
Myopes, do the accommodate more with glasses or CTL's?
CTL's ; this is due to the fact there is a mild BI in Specs, whereas CTL's don't.
658
Which hormone, secreted by the hypothalamus, decreases the productionof TSH?
Somatostatin
659
2 major side effects of Topamax (Anti convulsant)
Myopic shift
| Angle closure
660
LAX criterion will display what with the threshold and sensitivity?
Low threshold
| High sensitivity
661
Trolands are units for ?
Illuminance
662
Luminous power is measured as?
Lumens
663
Spatial summation will display?
High sensitivity and Poor resolution
664
Which product was added to decrease the chances of anemia in AREDS?
Copper ; this was due to the fact that zinc causes anemia and was added as a key ingredient into AREDS
665
What is the key for using potassium sparing diuertics?
1. Help control edema
| 2. Used for hyperaldoteroism
666
What is the terminal electron acceptor in the Electron Transport Chain?
Oxygen
667
How do you neutralize Esophoria?
BO prism
668
What is the common unit for radiant power?
Watt
669
For small angle to be reflected at a small angle. What is the name of this angle and how much of an angle degree is the threshold?
Paraxial ; 15 degrees
670
Least effective POAG med for IOP increase at night?
Timolol
671
Damage to the Efferent pathway will cause what type of pupil issue?
Anisocoria
672
Damage to the Afferent pathway will cause what type of pupil issue?
APD
673
Pons and cerebellum are located?
Metencephalon
674
Where is the midbrain located?
Mesencephalon
675
Where is the thalmus and hypothalamus located?
Dienchephalon
676
Where is the medulla located?
Myelencephalon
677
Which type of cell surround the ventricle of the CNS but also are part of the epithelial cells of the choroid plexus?
Ependymal
678
What type of junctions are present with Endothelial cells?
Macula Occludens, Zona Adherens, and Macula Adherens
679
What gives rise in development to Endothelium, Descemet's and Stroma?
Neural Crest
680
MBS formula
Ed + Total Decentration + 2mm
681
Impetigo occurs due to what two infectants?
Strep Pyogenes and Staph Aur
682
Where are the action potentials in the ear start?
Hairs of the organ of corti
683
Most frequent assocation with Normal Tension glaucoma?
Raynaud's phenomenom
684
Most common etiology of a CRAO?
Artherosclerosis related thrombus formation
685
Diffuse SPK is indicative of?
Viral or Toxic
686
Intrapalpebral SPK staining will be indicative of?
Lagophthalmos
687
Inferior third of SPK will be indicative of?
Bacterial
688
Which beta blocker is cardioselective?
Betaxolol
689
Which beta blocker is non-cardioselective?
Cartelol
690
Hepatitis C is contracted primarily?
Intervenous drugs
691
For a myopic patient, what will decrease on ERG?
B wave
Note: This is due to chorioretinal degeneration
692
Which product in AREDS helps with night blindness?
Zinc
693
Your using the lens and read 170 as an axis. What changes in the axis, when you flip the glasses around?
010 axis.
694
What consumes more oxygen, brain or Retina?
Retina
695
Which phenomenon is associated with seeing lighting streaks due to acceleration of the head?
Moore's lightening streak
696
How many months does it take for microcysts to form on a low Dk extended wear CTL?
2 months
697
If diastolic perfusion pressure decreases, what happens to the prevalence to POAG?
Increases
698
The most common type of excretory gland in which secretory products are excreted via exocytosis into a duct is known as?
Merocrine
699
Which group of hydrogel CTL's are known for high amounts of protein?
Group 4
700
Which vitamin is forbidden in AREDS for pt's who smoked before?
Vitamin A
701
Formula for AREDS 2
```
Copper
Zinc
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Lutein
Zeaxanthin
Omega 3 Fatty Acids
```
702
Visual Aura without a headache?
Acephalgic Migraine
703
Denial of vision loss in a pt with blindness is known as?
Anton's Syndrome
704
Psuedochromatic plates are hard to detect which type of color deficiency?
Blue and yellow defect
705
Retinal colobomas are due to ?
Incomplete closure of the optic fissure
706
Diabetes and Smoking have been known to be protective factors against what corneal condition?
Keratoconus
707
When does Seasonal Allergic Conjunctivitis get exacberated?
Summer and Spring time
708
Emotions are regulated by which brain structure?
Amygdala
709
Which telescope system has a real exit pupil?
Kaplerian
710
Majority of aqueous is taken away by which system?
Episcleral venous plexus
711
How does the addition of a competitive inhibitor change the Lineweaver-Burk plot of an enzyme?
Increase the slope
712
Which histamine receptor plays a role in ocular allergies?
H1
713
What lens material has the highest Abbe value, thus the lowest chromatic abberation?
Crown Glass - 59
CR 39 - 58
Trivex - 45
Polycarbonate - 30
714
Painless, ulcerative canchre sores are associated with which condition?
Syhphillis
715
Which organism is associated with Lyme disease?
Borrelia Burgdorferi
716
High NRA and low PRA mean?
Over minused
717
When does steropsis become adult like?
5 to 7 years of age but starts at 3 to 5 months
718
Cones vs. Rods; which displays better summation?
Rods. It is known that Cones are better with resolution, Contrast sensitivity
719
Keratometry utilizes what type of acuity system?
Vernier
720
What is true regarding mirrors?
The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
721
What type of cells in the retina display auto regulation?
Pericytes
