KMK (Missing Optics and Pharm) Flashcards
Information is based on my knowledge
Lupus
- Butterly rash (malar rash)
- Dry eye
- High ANA ratio
- 10 to 1 in females
- 20 to 30 years of age
RA
- Morning joint pain
- Scleromalacia perforans (necrotizing scleritis without inflammation)
- Articular cartilage
- Females, ages 40 to 50
- Positive RF Test
JIA
- Females (ages 6 and below)
- Similar findings as RA, but have Uveitis
- A negative RF factor, but positive ANA factor
- Chronic, bilateral, non-granulomatous anterior uveitis
- Low grade fever
Sjogren’s syndrome
- dry mouth, arthritis, dry eye
Sarcoidosis
- African American Female
- Positive ACE test, chest X-ray
- Anterior granulomatous uveitis
- Bell’s palsy
- Vasculitis and Vitritis
- Dacryoadenitis
Ankylosing Spondylitits
- Bamboo spine
- Sacroilititis
- Uveitis
- aortic regurgitation
- Sacroiliac x-ray
- HLA-B27 testing
Reactive Arthritis (Reiter’s Syndrome)
- Can’t See, Can’t Pee, and Can’t Climb a Tree
- Uveitis
- Urethritis
- Arthritis
- Low Grade Fever
- Young males
- HLA - B27
Psoriatic Arthritis
- Joint pain with psoriatic lesions around knees, elbows and scalp
- Anterior Uveitis
- HLA- B27
- TX UV - B light exposure and methotrexate
Behcet’s Disease
- Recurrent Acute Hypopyon
- Recurrent oral aphthous ulcers
HIV and AIDS
- CD4 T cells: lower than 200 = AIDS
- ELISA: Screener
- Western Blot: Confirms ELISA
- CMV
- Pneumocystic Pneumonia
- Mycobacterium TB
- Karposi Sarcoma
Sturge Weber Syndrome
- Facial capillary malformation
- Port Wine Stain
- Glaucoma
- Neurological issues on the affected side of port wine stain
- Vascular issues of the eye
Tuberous Sclerosis
- Benign tumors grow in the brain
- Astrocytic Hamartoms
- Ash leaf spots (hypopigmented macules)
Down Syndrome
- 21st Chromosome
- Mental Retardation
- Epicanthal folds
- Congential Cataracts
- Glaucoma
- Strabismus
- Keratoconus
Von Hippel Lindau Disease
-Retinal Angioma (Can cause a RD, Glaucoma and loss or vision)
Marfan’s syndrome
Ectopic Lentis (Superior Temporal)
Huntington’s Chorea
- 30 to 50 year old
- Abnormal EOM’s
- 15 to 20 year survival rate
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)
- Gardner’s Syndrome
- Multiple CHRPE’s
- Polyps on the colon post-puberty
Name 3 AR systemic conditions.
1) Sickle Cell Anemia
2) PKU (Phenylketonuria)
3) Tay Sach’s
Name 2 X-linked genetic disorder’s
1) Fabry’s - lipid deposit in blood vessels
2) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
- Blue Sclera
- Keratoconus
- Megalocornea
Prenicious Anemia
B12 Deficiency
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
- Reed Sternberg cells
- Epstein Barr Virus (50% cases are associated)
- If diagnosed early, good prognosis
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
- Abdominal pain
- Bone marrow biopsy to determine T or B cell types
What type of cells is pre-dominate in Acute Leukemia?
Blast cells
Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia (AML)
- Infants and middle aged or older
- Normal WBC count w/ excessive myeloblasts
- Auer Rods seen within leukemic cells in the blood
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
- Peak age is 2 to 10 years
- Normal WBC count with lymphoblasts
Retinal hemorrhage with a white spot
Roth spot
a) Leukemia
b) Endocarditis
Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia (CML)
- 25 to 60 year old
- Poor prognosis 3 year survival
- WBC count 50,000 to 300,000 with increase granulocytes
- Philadelphia chromosome
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
- Greater than 50 years of age
- Male
- WBC count of 20,000 to 200,000 mature small lymphocytes
- 5 to 10 year survival rate
What is Virchow’s triad?
Theory of Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)
a) Alteration in blood flow (stasis)
b) Vascular endothelial injury
c) Alterations in the constituents of the blood through an inherited or acquired hypercoaguable state.
Venous thrombosis occurs most commonly in what 3 areas?
- Deep leg veins
- Heart
- Lungs
Arterial Thrombosis occurs most commonly in what 3 areas of the body?
- Brain
- Spleen
- Kidneys
What causes Anaphylactic shock?
Histamine release
What is the suspect of pupil involving CN III palsy?
Aneurysms
What are the lab results tell you with someone with Arthersclerosis?
High LDL
High CRP
Low HDL
What should WNL of total cholesterol?
200
What is the WNL of HDL?
40 or higher
What is the WNL of LDL?
130 or less ; if heart disease then 100
What is the WNL of triglycerides?
150 or less
What medication should be given if a pt has a MI?
325mg of Aspirin
Which eye will be impacted if Cartoid Artery disease is detected?
Ipsilateral.
Symptoms: Amaurosis fugax or complete loss of vision.
Sign: High pitched Bruit over the artery
What are 2 choroid findings associated with HTN?
- Siegrist streaks
- Elschnig spots
What stage do you find Papilledema when associated with HTN?
Stage 4
What happens in Left side heart failure?
Pulmonary edema ; fluids fills into lungs
What is the common cause and symptoms associated with Left CHF?
Ischemic Cardiomyopathy ; shortness of breath
What happens in Right CHF?
Inability to pump into the lungs and causing edema in abdomen and legs.
What is the common cause and symptoms in Right CHF?
Left CHF ; Pulmonary HTN, COPD and Right side MI’s.
What is the culprit for Rheumatic fever and what other 2 systemic conditions is it associated with?
Strep Pyogenes (Hemolytic streptococci) ; Reactive Arthritis and JIA
What does Rheumatic fever do to the heart?
Alter the heart valves ; usually mitral valve
What lab test will give you re-assurance its Rheumatic fever?
ESR testing
What are the signs and symptoms of a Cartoid Artery TIA?
- Contralateral hand.arm weakness
- Sensory loss to face or leg
- Ipsilateral Amaurosis fugax
What are the signs of a Vertebrobasilar TIA?
- Diplopia
- Unilateral or Bilateral visual loss
- Ataxia
- Vertigo
- Dysarthria
What kind of cardiovasulcar issue can spare the macula or involve it?
Stroke
If a stroke has happened, the macula is spared. What brain structure has been impacted?
Occipital lobe ; Middle or Posterior cerebral artery but NOT BOTH!
What type of testing is needed to determine size and location of a stroke?
CT scan
Macula only Homonymous Hemianopsia occurs due to?
Occlusion ; macula cortex blood supply has occurred due to a tumor
Most common type of stroke?
Ischemic ; Usually Embolism of an Arthersclerotic plaque
What is the most common type of hemorrhagic stroke?
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
What ocular finding is associated with a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
CN III palsy w/ Pupil involvement
What does the Anterior Cerebral artery supply?
Frontal lobe
What does the Middle Cerebral artery supply?
- Frontal lobe
- Lateral surfaces of the Temporal Lobe
- Lateral surfaces of the Parietal lobe
- Occiptal lobe
What does the Posterior Cerebral artery supply?
- Temporal lobe
- Occipital lobe
If the Anterior Cerebral artery impacts the frontal lobe, what is processes are impacted?
- Logical thought
- Personality
- Voluntary movement
If the Middle Cerebral artery impacts the 4 lobes, what processes are impacted?
- Primary motor of the face
- Primary sensory of the face
- Throat
- Hand and arm
- Speech
- Vision
What are the signs, when the posterior Cerebral artery is impacted?
- Contralateral hemiplegia
- Hemianopsia
- Color Blindness
- Verbal Dyslexia
- Opposite visual field defects
What are the signs associated with a Cluster headache?
- Red eyes
- Nasal stuffiness
- Transient or Permanent Ipsilateral Horner’s Syndrome
What is the classic triad for Meningitis?
Fever
Headache
Neck stiffness
What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?
Glioblastoma Multiforme
What is the most common benign brain tumor?
Meningioma
Which is the most common type of a functional pituitary adenoma?
Prolactin Secreting tumor
What type of visual field defect is common with a Pituitary Adenoma?
Bitemporal Hemianopsia
What are the ocular findings associated with Guilliam Barre?
- Adie’s Tonic
- Diplopia
- Facial Diplegia
- Papilledema
What type of tumor is associated with MG?
Thymoma (Thymic tumor)
What type of deposits are associated with Alzheimer’s?
Amyloid
What is the classical triad for Parkinson’s?
TRAP Tremor at rest Rigidity Akinensia Postural Instability
Which artery is impacted when a Epidural Hematoma occurs due to trauma?
Middle meningeal artery
What is the triad for Horner’s syndrome?
- Ptosis
- Miosis
- Anhydrosis ; absence of sweating on involved side
Which type of cells are destroyed in DM I?
Beta cells
What is lacking in Diabetes Insipidus?
ADH
What are the lab findings associated with Hypothyroidism?
- Increased TSH
- Decreased T3 and T4
What are the 2 main findings in Graves Ophthalmopathy?
1) Proptosis
2) Upper lid retraction
Hyperparathyroidism is marked by ________?
Hypercalcemia
What are the 3 ocular findings associated with Hypothyroidism?
- Cataracts
- Uveitis
- Blurry vision
What is the triad for Cushings?
- Moon face
- Buffalo hump
- Obesity
What is occurs in Acute Renal Failure?
Decreased GFR
Increase BUN
Increased Creatinine
What systemic condition is commonly associated with Chronic Renal Failure?
Diabetes
Nephrotic syndrome is associated with what product in the urine?
3.5 grams of protein
What is the ocular presentation in Chlamydia?
Inferior palpebral follicles
What do you treat Chlamydia with?
Azithromycin or Doxycyline
What does an ocular infection of Gonorrhea present?
Severe, Hyperacute and purulent discharge
What type of test confirms Herpes Simplex and which type of cells?
Wright-Giemsa stain and Multinucleated giant cells
What is the culprit in Syphilis?
Treponema Pallidum (Spirochete)
At what stage may the eye become involved in regards to Syhphillis?
Secondary
At what stage of Syphillis does the pupil become involved, what is the name of condition and signs?
Tertiary ; Argyll Robertson ; Bilateral CONSTRICTED pupils, with good response to accommodation.
What are three tests you could do for Syphillis?
a) Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)
b) Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
c) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
What are 3 good diagnostic tests for syphillis?
a) FTA-ABS
b) TPPA
c) MHA - TP
RPR-VDRL is negative but FTA-ABS is positive what does that mean?
FTA-ABS - pt had syphillis at one point in life.
RPR and VRDL - displays that if it is active or not.
Which medication causes floopy iris due to BPH?
Tamsulosin (Flomax)
What test indicates prostate cancer?
PSA
What 2 ocular conditions are associated with Wilson’s Disease?
- Sunflower cataract
- Kayser-Fleischer Ring
What is the medication used in Wilson’s Disease?
Cuprimine (Penicillamine)
What are the 3 major ocular side effects of Cuprimine?
- Ocular MG
- Ocular Pemphigoid
- Optic Neuritis
How is Hepatitis A acquired?
Fecal oral route
How is Hepatitis B acquired?
Blood, IV drugs and Sex
What is the Triad for Cholecystitis (Gall bladder inflammation)?
- Pain in right upper quadrant after meals
- Overweight females of child bearing age
- Murphy’s sign (Palpation hypersensitivity)
What is the leading cause of COPD?
Smoking
Pink puffers are for?
Emphysema
Blue bloaters are for?
Chronic Bronchitis
What is retinal finding in regards to TB?
CME
Carcinomas arise from what type of cells?
Epithelial cells
Sarcoma’s arise from what type of tissue?
Mesenchymal
What is the optic neuropathy sign for Alcoholism?
Toxic optic neuropathy = Bilateral temporal optic nerve pallor
Most common Alkali solution?
Sodium Hydroxide
What ocular findings are we worried about with someone who had a chest compression injury?
Purtscher’s Retinopathy
- Cotton Wool spots
- Exudates
- Diffuse Retinal Hemorrhages
Which sinus is commonly associated with Orbital Cellulitis?
Ethmoid
Most common agent in ADULT Orbital Cellulitis?
Staph Aureus
Most common agent in CHILD Orbital Cellulitis?
H. Influenza
What signals a Orbital Cellulitis vs. Preseptal Cellulitis?
Orbital will have: Decrease vision Pain on eye movement EOM restricition Proptosis
What is the strongest correlation of Thyroid ocular conditions?
Cigarettes
What are not impacted in Thyroid disease when evaluating EOM’s?
Tendon’s
Note: Psuedotumor - Involves EOM’s
What is the triad for Cartoid Cavernous Fistula?
Chemosis
Pulsatile Proptosis
Ocular Bruit
What is the most common cause of Steven Johnson Syndrome?
Medication - typically Sulfonamides
What is Meige’s syndrome?
BEB and lower facial abnormalities
Which muscle is impacted during Myokymia?
Orbicularis Oculi
What are the signs of Basal Cell Carcinoma?
- UV exposure
- Occasionally bleeds and won’t heal
- Fair skin
- Increased sun expsosure
- Central ulceration
- Shiny, Firm pearly nodule with superficial telangiectasia
Which carcinoma is more common?
BCC (40 times more)
Which carcinoma is more aggressive?
SCC
What is the biggest way to differentiate between SCC and BCC
BCC will have surface vascularization while, SCC does not
What is the classical presentation of Acute Dacryoadenitis?
S-shaped ptosis
Which race tends to be predominant with Conjunctival Melanoma’s?
Caucasian
What organ is the most common metastasis from, in regards to Conjunctival melanoma?
Liver
CIN is associated with what type of carcinoma?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
What are 2 signs that are NOT associated with Bacterial Conjunctivitis?
Corneal signs
Lymphadenopathy
What type of testing diagnosis is needed for Gonoccal Conjunctivits?
Thayer-Martin agar
What is the triad for PCF?
- Low Grade Fever
- Follicular Conjunctivitis
- Phyrangitis
Note: Swimming is usually associated with PCF
Important findings associated with EKC?
- Pain
- Corneal involvement
If a contact lens rides to high, what does that usually mean?
CTL Warpage
What is the NaFl staining pattern when the CTL’s rides too low?
3 to 9 o’clock staining
Superior Arcuate Epithelial Lesion (SEAL) is due to what CTL issue?
Tight fitting Hydrogel CTL
What is the most common culprit for Phylectenular Keratoconjunctivitis?
Blepharitis
Note: Most common in female teenager
Which layer of the conjunctiva is impacted in a pterygium/pinguecula?
Conjunctival stroma
Which layer is disrupted in a pterygium?
Bowman’s
What medication is used to determine episcleritis vs. scleritis?
Phenylephrine
What is the early sign in Keratoconus?
Fleicher’s ring
Where is the initial break in Keratoconus?
Bowman’s
Which layer do Vogt straie reside?
Stroma
Corneal hydrops occur in which layer?
Descemet
Haab Straie occurs in which layer?
Descemet
Culturing a fungus should be done with what test?
Sabourds Agar
What type of hypersensitivity is Staph Marginal Keratitis?
Type III
Salzmann plaques are derived of?
Hyaline
Band Keratopathy deposit is located?
Bowman’s (Anterior portion)
Which refractive surgery is known to create a hyperopic shift?
RK
What are the golden refractile particles in Synchisis Scintillians?
Cholesterol crystals
Where do BRVO’s occur the most?
Superior temporal
What is 90 day glaucoma?
Neo occuring in the angle after 90 days of the incident of CRVO
Which retinal vessels are autoregulated?
Arteries
What is the most common retinal atropy?
Retinitis Pigmentosa
Glaucomflecken causes what type of cataract?
ASC
What is the greatest threat during Acute Angle Closure?
CRAO
What signs occurs during Uveitic Glaucoma?
Iris Bombe
What type of bond is between the cornea and glycocalx?
Covalent
Where is the rRNA produced?
Nucleolus
Which cells in the body are multinuclear?
Osteocytes and Skeletal muscle cells
What is the most abundant protein in the blood stream?
Albumin
What are the most to least common WBC’s?
Neutrophils Leukocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils
Never Let Monkey’s Eat Banana’s
What is the hepatic triad?
Hepatic Artery
Portal Vein
Bile Duct
What does the Frontal lobe give personality?
Speech
Broca’s area (Frontal lobe); if impacted what will happen?
Speech issues
What happens when Wernicke’s is impacted? (Temporal lobe)
Word’s wont make sense
MLF and coordination of the VOR is done where?
Upper medulla
Where is respiration and sleep coordinated?
PONS
Where is the red nucleus located in the brain?
Upper midbrain
What gives rise to the diencephalon and cerebral hemispheres?
Forebrain
Sleeping behaviour, eating and body temperature is conducted by?
Hypothalamus
Which papillitis condition is considered reversible ischemia?
Diabetic Papillopathy
Syphillis can cause what pupillary condition?
Argyll Robertson
Neuroretinitis is most commonly associated with?
Cat Scratch Disease
What is the pathophysiology of an INO?
Defect in MLF
What is the sign of a INO?
Lack of adduction on the affected side and a nystagmus on the contralateral side
Most common intrinsic tumor of the ON?
Optic Nerve Glioma
Where is the most common area of impact with Orbital Cavernous Hemangioma?
Muscle cone posterior to the globe
What happens to the visual acuity in Papilledema?
Enlarged Blind spot
What is malignant HTN?
200/120
Which CN is impacted in IIH?
CN 6 ; causing an eso deviation
What type of VF defect is seen in Toxic neuropathy?
Centrocecal or central ; you’ll see temporal pallor
3 types of orthograde degeneration?
- PRP
- CRAO
- RP
What is the classical example of a retrograde degeneration?
Pituitary tumor
What is the VF defects (2) from a pituitary tumor?
Bitemporal Hemianopsia and Junctional scotoma
Where is the lesion in Foster Kennedy symdrome?
Frontal lobe
In a horner’s syndrome patient, if cocaine was instilled into the affected eye, what will happen?
No response.
Normal pupil will have a dilation occur
What would Hydroxyamphetamine do in a Horner’s patient?
Preganglionic: Pupil dilation
Postganglionic: No dilation
What are the 3 conditions associated with Argyll Robertson?
- Neurosyphillis
- Diabetes
- Alcoholism
What are the signs of Argyll Robertson?
- Miotic pupil
- Light-near dissociation (Light won’t constrict pupils but will with convergence and accommodation)
If you notice a CN3 palsy, without pupil impact, what is the follow up time frame?
1 week
What other symptom is associated with Adie’s Tonic?
Diminished deep reflex tendon
What Rx is need to diagnosis Adie’s Tonic?
0.125% Pilocarpine
Dilated pupil but with 0.125% Pilocarpine is constricts….what is the condition?
Adie’s Tonic
Dilated pupil and does nothing with 0.125% Pilocarpine. 1% pilocarpine causes constriction…what is the condition?
CN 3 Palsy
Dilated pupil and does not react to 0.125% and 1% pilocarpine… what is the condition?
Iris sphincter tear or pharmacologic dilation
What are the parasympathetic innervated items associated with the inferior division of CN3?
- Iris Sphincter
- Ciliary muscle
Pt comes in with CN4 palsy and a head tilt to the left. Which side is the lesion?
Right CN 4 Palsy
Lesion is on the opposite side away from the head tilt
A pt has a Thymoma, which condition is associated?
Myasthenia Gravis
Superior Tarsal AKA Muscle of Mueller is innervated by which system?
Alpha 2 - Sympathetic
Which layer of the conjunctiva has IgA and Lymphoid tissue?
Stroma
Which facial muscle is associated with showing aggression?
Procerus
Pulls the eyebrow muscles together
Which ganglion does the lacrimal gland recieve innervation from?
Pterygopalatine ganglion
What keeps the puncta open?
Lacrimal papilla
The nasolacrimal duct is adjacent to which structure?
Maxillary sinus
Which 2 EOM’s create the Ligament of Lockwood?
IO and IR
Where does the superior oblique originate?
Lesser wing of the Sphenoid and CTR
The superior lateral branch of the Ophthalmic artery supplies what EOM’s?
SR, SO and LR
The inferior lateral branch of the Ophthalmic artery supplies what EOM’s?
MR, IO and IR
Which Vein and 3 nerves travel through the SOF but above the CTR?
Superior Ophthalmic Vein
- Lacrimal Nerve
- Frontal Nerve
- Trochlear Nerve
What passes through the inferior orbital fissure and CTR is?
Inferior Ophthalmic Vein
The facial artery comes off the external carotid artery. What are the 3 terminal branches of the facial artery?
- Superficial temporal artery
- Maxillary artery
- Angular artery
What branch of the facial artery supplies the medical canthus?
Angular artery
What branch of the external carotid, gives way to another branch which supplies the IR and IO?
Maxillary Artery –> Infraorbital branch –> IOF –> IR and IO
What does the Infraorbital branch of the maxillary artery supply, name 4.
- IR
- IO
- Lower eye lid
- Lacrimal sac
What are the 2 vascular supply for MACI?
Long Posterior Ciliary Artery (LPCA)
Anterior Ciliary Artery (ACA)
What do the SPCA’s supply?
Macula and Choroid
What provides blood to the ON?
Circle of Zinn
What do the LPCA’s supply?
Anterior Choroid
Iris
Ciliary Body
What terminal branch of the OA supplies the Lacrimal Sac?
Dorsal Nasal Artery
What are the 4 structures where the Anterior Ciliary Vein takes blood away from?
- Iris
- Ciliary Body
- Conjunctiva
- Schlem’s Canal
Where does the blood supply from the CRV go to?
ONLY Superior Ophthalmic Vein
Where does the inferior branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?
Pterygoid Plexus
Where does the superior branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?
Cavernous Sinus
Which is the only layer of the cornea that has zonula occludens?
Superficial layer
What layer of the cornea increases with age?
Bowmans
What 3 conditions are associated with limbal stem cell deficiency?
- Aniridia
- SJS
- Alkali corneal burn
What type of collagen resides in Bowman’s?
Type 1
What type of collagen resides in the Stroma?
Type 1
Where does the orbital vein drain in to?
Middle temporal vein
Where does the common facial vein drain into?
Internal jugular vein
What has he strongest impact on corneal diopter?
air/tear film medium
What are the 3 H’s that occur in Descemet’s?
- Hassall Henle Bodies
- Haab’s Straie
- Hydrops
When the eyelids are closed, where does the cornea get its oxygen from?
Conjunctival vessels
What does the superficial conjunctiva carry, name 3.
- Microvilli
- Goblet cells
- Melanin Granules
Where are the Goblet cells densest?
Furthest away from the limbus
What is the thickest Basement membrane in the body?
Lens Capsule
What are the 2 main products the lens capsule is made of ?
GAG’s
Type 4 collagen
Where are the water crystallins located in the lens?
Lens Cortex
Note: Alpha, Gamma and Beta
What are the 2 areas of the sclera that hold elastin?
Scleral spur and Lamina Cribrosa
Anteriorly displaced Shwalbe’s line is considered what condition?
Posterior Embryotoxin
What Iris layer provides the definitive color to the Iris?
Anterior border layer
Vortex veins are located in what layer of the Choroid?
Haller’s
What is the vitreous composed of?
Hyaluronic acid
Type 2 collagen
The vitreous has what predominat type of cell and which layer are they located in?
Hyalocytes ; Vitreous Cortex
Which portion of the PR has mitochondria?
Ellipsoid
Which portion of the PR displays protein synthesis?
Myoid
At what wavelength does rhodopsin absorb light?
507 nm
Where does the first synapse in the visual system occur?
OPL
Note: OPL is the only layer that has a dual blood supply and is also the Henle’s layer
Lateral inhibition occurs with what retinal cell?
Horizontal cell
Which types, rods or cones, are not in the foveola. Pick 2.
Rods and Blue cones
The boundary between the fovea and parafovea is called?
Clivus
Cranial 10 palsy, Vagus nerve (Uvula), will deviate which side?
AWAY from the side of the lesion
Cranial 12 palsy, Hypogloassal (tongue) will deviate towards which side?
SAME side of the lesion
Left CN 3 palsy will lead to defect to which SR?
Right ; note it is contralaterally displaced
What is the sensory and motor innervation of the lacrimal gland?
Sensory: Lacrimal nerve V1
Motor: Zygomatic branch of the CN 7
A CN6 palsy, will display what type of sign?
Head towards the lesion
Which branch of CN 7 innervates the Orbicularis Oculi
Zygomatic
Removal of an acoustic neuroma, will result in the paralysis of?
The Parotid gland
Other than the Retina autoregulting its blood, what other structure does the same?
ON
A macula only VF defect is usually caused by?
a tumor
When does accommodation mature?
3 months
When does the vergence system mature?
2 months
When does stereopsis mature?
6 months
Grating acuity matures when?
3 to 4 years
Vernier acuity matures when?
6 to 8 years
Other than accommodation, vergence, and stereopsis, when do the visual attributes mature?
4 months
What is the most common type of color defect in the elderly?
Blue Yellow defects
What is the most difficult movement in the elderly?
upgaze
Where does glycolosis occur in the cell?
cytosol
What are the 2 processes that occur in the mitochondira?
Kreb’s cycle and Oxidative Phosphorylation
What is the medication to treat CMV?
Vitravene
Corneal ulcers and pediatric bacterial conj, is caused by?
Strep Pneumoniae
Corneal ulcer due to CTL wear is usually what rod?
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Otitis media which is often seen in conjunction with conjunctivitis?
H. Influenza
Ophthalmia neonatrum is associated with what STD?
Chlamydia
What is the triad for Ricketts?
Fever
Headache
Rash
What type of interferon is used to treat MS?
Beta Interferon
How do you treat chronic granulomatous ? Interferon?
Gamma
What are the first antibodies that reach the antigen’s?
IgG and IgM
Systolic pressure is based on?
Contraction of the ventricle
Based on QT on EKG
Diastolic pressure is based on?
Relaxation of the ventricles
Based on TR on EKG
What is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body?
Aniotensin II
Which hormone regulates water retention?
ADH (Vasopressin)
