KLUBSY: MICROSCOPIC ANALYSIS OF URINE Flashcards

1
Q

This is the first procedure to standardize the quantitation of formed elements; used a hemocytometer

A

Addid count

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2
Q

Addis count utilizes what instrument

A

Hemocytometer

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3
Q

What is the specimen used for the Addis count

A

12-hours urine preserved in formalin

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4
Q

What is the preservative used in Addis count?

A

Formalin

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5
Q

Normal value of Addis count for RBCs:

A

0 to 500,000 cells/uL

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6
Q

Normal value of Addis count for WBCs:

A

0 to 1,800,00 cells/uL

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7
Q

Normal value of Addis count for epithelial cells:

A

0 to 1,800,000 cells/uL

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8
Q

Normal value of Addis count for hyaline casts:

A

0 to 5000 cells/uL

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9
Q

T/F: To correct the differences in the diameter of centrifuge heads, RCF rather than revolutions per minute (RPM) is used.

A

T

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10
Q

This is a supravital stain consisting of Crystal vioelt abd safranin

A

Sternheimer-Malbin

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11
Q

What stain acts by delineating the structure and contrasting colors of the nucleus and cytoplasm

A

Sternheimer-Malbin

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12
Q

This stain identifies WBCs, epithelial cells, and casts

A

Sternheimer-Malbin

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13
Q

This is a metachromiatic supravital stain

A

0.5% Toluidine blue

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14
Q

This stain acts by enhancing nucelar detail

A

0.5% Toluidine blue

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15
Q

This stain differentiates WBCs and renal tubual epithelial (RTE) cells

A

0.5% Toluidine blue

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16
Q

This stain acts by lysiing RBCs and enhancing nuclei of WBCs

A

2% acetic acid

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17
Q

This stain distinguishes RBCs from WBCs, yeat, oil, droplets, and crystals

A

2% acetic acid

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18
Q

These are lipid stains in sediment stains

A

Oil Red O and Sudan III

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19
Q

These stains act by staining triglycerides and neutral fats orange-red

A

Oil Red O and Sudan III

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20
Q

This stain identifies free fat droplets and lipid containing cells and casts

A

Oil Red O and Sudan III

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21
Q

This stain acts by differentiating gram-POSITIVE and gram-NEGATIVE bacteria

A

gram stain

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22
Q

This stain identifies bacterial casts

A

gram stain

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23
Q

This stain acts by staining eosinophilic granules

A

Hansel stain

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24
Q

A Hansel stain composes of what

A

Methylene blue + Eosin Y

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25
Q

Methylene blue + Eosin Y =

A

Hansel stain

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26
Q

This stain idenfities urinary eosinophils

A

Hansel stain

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27
Q

This stain acts by staining structures containing IRON

A

Prussian blue stain

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28
Q

This stain identifies yellow-brown granules of hemosiderin in cells and casts

A

Prussian blue stain

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29
Q

This stain is a.k.a as the Modified Sternheimer Malbin

A

Sedi and KOVA stain

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30
Q

The Sedi and KOVA stain is a.k.a

A

Modified Sternheimer Malbin

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31
Q

This dye is absorbed well by WBCs, epithelial cells, and casts, providing clearer delineation of structure and contrasting colors of the nucleus and cytoplasm

A

Sedi and KOVA stain

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32
Q

In this stain, Hyaline casts appear as pink

A

Sedi and KOVA stain

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33
Q

In this stain, motile bacteria are unstained

A

Sedi and KOVA stain

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34
Q

In this stain, non-motile bacteria stains purple

A

Sedi and KOVA stain

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35
Q

In this stain, T. vaginalis stains as light blue-green

A

Sedi and KOVA stain

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36
Q

In the Sedi and KOVA stain, hyaline casts appear as what?

A

pink

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37
Q

In the Sedi and KOVA stain, these are unstained

A

Motile bacteria

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38
Q

In the Sedi and KOVA stain, non-motile bacteria stains as what?

A

purple

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39
Q

In the Sedi and KOVA stain, this bacteria stains light blue-green

A

T. vaginalis

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40
Q

In Oil Red O and Sudan III, cholesterol and cholesterol esters do NOT stain and must be confirmed by what?

A

By polarizing microscopy

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41
Q

With these stains, cholesterol and cholesterol esters do not stain and must be confirmed by polarizing microscopy

A

Oil Red O and Sudan III

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42
Q

These stains also distinguishes urinary eosinophils, but Hansel stain is preferred

A

Wright’s stain or Giemsa stain

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43
Q

This stain is preferred for distinguishing urinary eosinophils

A

Hansel stain

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44
Q

This plays an important role in the early detection of renal allograft rejection and in the differential diagnosis of renal disease

A

Cytodiagnostic urinalysis

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45
Q

This involves making a 10:1 concentration of a first morning urine specimen, followed by cytocentrifugation of the urine sediment and Papanicolaou’s staining

A

Cytodiagnostic urinalysis

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46
Q

In cytodiagnostic urinalysis, it involves making a concentration of what ratio of the first morning uring spx, followed by cytocentrifugation of the urine sediment and Papanicolaou’s staining

A

10:1 concentratio

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47
Q

What are the Commercial systems for Urine sediment preparation

A

-UriSystem
-KOVA system
-Count-10 system

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48
Q

this is designed such that after centrifugation, it can be decanted with a quick smooth motion and consistently retains 0.4 mL of urine for sediment resuspension

A

UriSystem

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49
Q

The UriSystem consistently retains how much of urine for sediment resuspension

A

0.4 mL of urine

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50
Q

This uses a specially designed pipette that snuggly fits the diameter and shape of the tube to retain 1 mL of urine during decanting

A

KOVA system

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51
Q

The KOVA system retains what volume of urine during decanting?

A

1 mL of urine

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52
Q

This system offers several options to retain 0.8 mL for sedimen resuspension

A

Count-10 System

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53
Q

The Count-10 System retains a volume of how much urine for sediment resuspension

A

0.8 mL for sedimen resuspensions

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54
Q

This technique is used for routine urinalysis

A

Bright field microscopy

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55
Q

With this technique, objects appear dark against a LIGHT background

A

Bright field microscopy

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56
Q

This technique is MOST FREQUENTLY used in the clinical laboratory

A

Bright Field Microscopy

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57
Q

This is the oldest and most common type of illumination system used on microscopes

A

Bright field microscopy

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58
Q

T/F: All other types of microscopes are adapted to bright-field

A

T

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59
Q

This tehcnique enhances visualization of elements with low refractive indices, such as hyaline casts mixed cellular casts, mucous threads, and Trichomonas

A

Phase contrast microscopy

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60
Q

Type of microscopy in which variations in the specime’s refractive index are converted into VARIATIONS IN LIGHT INTENSITY OR CONTRAST

A

Phase contrast microscopy

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61
Q

This is an adaptation of a bright-filed microscope with a phase-contrast objective lens and a matching condenser.

A

Phase contrast microscopy

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62
Q

This technique has 2 phase rings that appear as “targets” are placed in the condenser and the objective

A

phase contrast microscopy

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63
Q

this technique forms a halo of light around the specimen

A

Phase contrast microscopy

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64
Q

In phase contrast microscopy, light passes to the specimen through the clear circle in the phase ring in the condenser, forming a what?

A

forming a halo of light around the specimen

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65
Q

This aids in identification of cholesterol in oval fat bodies, fatty casts, and crystals

A

Polarizing microscopy

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66
Q

Polarizing microscopy aids in identification of what?

A

identification of cholesterol in OVAL FAT BODIES, FATTY CASTS, and CRYSTALS

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67
Q

In polarizing microscopy, a substance that rotates the plane of polarized light of how many degrees in a clockwise direction is said to have positive birefringence.

A

90 degrees

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68
Q

In polarizing microscopy, a substance that rotates the plane of polarized light of 90 degrees in what direction is said to have positive birefringence.

A

in a clockwise direction

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69
Q

In polarizing microscopy, a substance that rotates the plane of polarized light of how many degrees in a clockwise direction is said to have what?

A

positive birefringence

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70
Q

T/F: Brightfield microscopes can be adapted for polarizing micrscopy

A

T

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71
Q

In polarizing microscopy, 2 polarizing filters must be installed in what way?

A

in a crossed configuration

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72
Q

In polarizing microscopy, how many polarizing filters must be installed in a crossed configuration?

A

two polarizing filters

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73
Q

This aids in identification of spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum

A

Dark field microscopy

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74
Q

Dark field microscopy aids in identification of what?

A

spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum

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75
Q

T/F: Bright field microscope is easily adapted for dark-field microscopy by replacing the condenser with a dark-field condenser that contains an opaque disk

A

T

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76
Q

Brightfield microscope is easily adapted for darkfield microscopy. How is this done?

A

Replacing the CONDENSER with a dark-field condenser that contains an OPAQUE disk

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77
Q

In this technique, the specimen appears light against the BLACK background or dark field

A

Dark field microscopy

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78
Q

This technique produces a three-dimensional microscopy image and a layer-by-layer imaging of a specimen

A

Interference contrast micrscopy

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79
Q

Type of microscopy in which the difference in optical light paths through the specime is converted into intensity differences in the specimen image

A

Interference contrast microscopy

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80
Q

Two types of interference-contrast microscopy:

A
  • modulation contrast (Hoffman)
  • differential-interference contrast (Nomarski)

*brightfield microscopes can be adapted for both methods

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81
Q

What is required to convert a brightfield microscopy to differential interference contrast?

A

1- polarizer placed between the light source and condenser
2-special condenser containing a modified Wollaston prisms for EACH objective
3-Wollaston prism placed between the objective and the eyepiece
4-analyzer (polarizing filter) placed behind this Wollaston prism and BEFORE the eyepiece

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82
Q

Allows visualization of naturally fluorescent microorganisms or those stained by a fluorescent dye

A

Fluorescence microscopy

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83
Q

What is the use for the 2 filters in a fluorescence microscopy?

A

1-excitation filter - to select a specific wavelength of illumination light
2-barrier filter - to transmit the different, longer-wavelength light emitted from the specimen to the eyepiece for viewing

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84
Q

A microscope component that regulates the angle of light presented to the specimen

A

Aperture diaphragm

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85
Q

The ability of a substance to refract light in two directions

A

Birefringement / doubly refractile

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86
Q

Unequal refraction of light rays by a lens that occurs because the different wavelengths of light refract or bend at different angles

A

Chromatic aberration

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87
Q

Microscope component that gathers and focuses the illumination of light onto the specimen for viewing

A

Condenser

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88
Q

the microscope lens or system of lenses located closest to the viewer’s eye.

A

Eyepieve

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89
Q

It produces the secondary image magnification of the specimen

A

Eyepieve

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90
Q

Microscope component that controls/regulates the diameter of light beams that strike the specimen and hence reduces stray light

A

Field diaphragm

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91
Q

The circular field observed through a microscope

A

Field of view

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92
Q

Type of microscope illumination in which a a lamp condenser (located above the light source) focuses the image of the light source (lamp filament) onto the front focal plance of the substage condenser (where the aperture diaphragm is located)

A

Kohler illumination

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93
Q

Microscope component that holds the microscope slide with the specimen for viewing

A

Mechanical stage

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94
Q

The lens or system of lenses located closest to the specimen

A

Objectives

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95
Q

This microscopes component produces the primary image magnification of the specimen

A

Objectives

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96
Q

term describing objective lenses that RETAIN THE SAME FIELD OF VIEW when the user switches from on objective to another of a differing magnification

A

Parcenter

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97
Q

Term describing objective lenses that REMAIN IN FOCUS when the user switches from one objective to another of a differing magnification

A

Parfocal

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98
Q

Ability of a lens to distinguish two points or objects as separate

A

resolution

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99
Q

a technique used to produce permanent microscope slides of urine sediment and body fluids.

A

Cytocentrifugation

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100
Q

the end result of this technique is a monolayer of the urine sediment components with their structural details greatly enhanced by staining

A

Cytocentrifugation

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101
Q

Process of enlarging or magnifying an object’s size without affecting its actual or physical size

A

Magnification

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102
Q

T/F: Do not use the 10x and 40x objectives without oil

A

F.

Do not use the said objectives WITH oil

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103
Q

T/F: Always hold the microscope in a vertical position

A

T

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104
Q

Parts of a micrscope: Lens system

A
  • Oculars
    -objectives
    -adjustment knobs
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105
Q

Parts of a microscope: Illumination system

A
  • light source
  • condenser
  • stage field
  • iris diaphragms
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106
Q

Parts of a microscope: Body

A
  • base
  • body tube
  • nose piece
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107
Q

Initial/Primary magnification of sample occurs in the …

A

Occurs in the OBJECTIVES

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108
Q

Final/second magnification of sample occurs in the …

A

Occurs int he EYEPIECE

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109
Q

How to calculate for the TOTAL MAGNIFICATION

A

Eyepiece x Objective

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110
Q

What is the indiv. magnification for the eyepiece

A

10x

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111
Q

What is the indiv. magnification for the scanner

A

5x or 4x

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112
Q

What is the indiv. magnification for the LPO

A

10x

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113
Q

What is the indiv. magnification for the HPO

A

40x

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114
Q

What is the indiv. magnification for the OIO

A

100x

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115
Q

What is the total magnification for the eyepiece

A

N/A

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116
Q

What is the total magnification for the scanner

A

50x or 40x

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117
Q

What is the total magnification for the LPO

A

100x

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118
Q

What is the total magnification for the HPO

119
Q

What is the total magnification for the OIO

120
Q

This appears as smooth, non-nucleated, biconcave disk measuring approximately 6-8 um in diameter

121
Q

Size of RBCs

A

Approx 6-8 um in diamater

122
Q

This sediment in the urine is the MOST difficult to recognize

123
Q

The observation of this sediment is critical to the early diagnosis of glomerular disorders and malignancy of the urinary tracy and to confirm the presence of RENAL CALCULI

A

Observation of microscopic hematuria

124
Q

These cells may be seen following strenuous exercise

A
  • RBCs
  • hyaline
  • granular
  • RBC casts
125
Q

Erythrocytes may appear as faint, colorless circles or “shadow cells,” because??

A

because the hemoglobin may dissolve out if the specimen is NOT FRESH when it’s examined

126
Q

these are difficult to see using brightfield microscopy because their hemoglobin has been lost

A

Ghost cells

127
Q

Ghost cells are readily visible using these microscope techniques

A

-phase contrast
- interference contrast micrscopy

128
Q

What shape do RBCs make when viewed from the SIDE?

A

RBCs have an hourglass shape

129
Q

When viewed from above, RBCs appear as ..

A

appear as disks with a central pallor

130
Q

These promote the formation of ghost cells in urine

A

-hypotonic and alkaline urine

131
Q

Normal RBC in normal urine is …

A

0-2 cells/hpf

132
Q

How much more RBCs in the urine is considered abnormal

A

3 cells/hpf

133
Q

Source of identification error in RBCs

A

-yeast cells
- oil droplets
- air bubbles

134
Q

Look-alike crystal of RBCs

A

Monohydrate calcium oxalate crystals

135
Q

Urine condition: Crenated cells

A

concentrated urine / hypersthenuric

136
Q

Urine condition: Echinocytes

A

Concentrated urine / hypersthenuric

137
Q

Urine condition: Irregularly shaped

A

Concentrated urine / hypersthenuric

138
Q

In this condition, cells appear as small, rough cells with CRINKLED edges

A

Concentrated urine / hypersthenuric

139
Q

Urine condition: Ghost cells / swollen RBC

A

Diluted urine / Hyposthenuric

140
Q

Hyposthenuric / diluted urine appears as …

A

ghost cells / swollen RBCs

141
Q

Urine condition: Dysmorphic or distorted RBC

A

Glomerular bleeding

142
Q

This condition has cells that appear in varying size and are mainlly acanthocytes

A

Glomerular bleeding

143
Q

In this condition, cells appear as small, rough cells with CRINKLED edges

A

Concentrated urine / hypersthenuric

144
Q

In this condition, cells appear as CRENATED CELLS/ECHINOCYTES/IRREGULARLY SHAPED

A

Concentrated urine / hypersthenuric

145
Q

In glomerular bleeding, the cells appear as…

A

dysmorphic or distorted RBC

146
Q

This stain can be used to further analyze the dysmorphic RBCs

A

Wright’s stain

147
Q

Examples of ISOMORPHIC cells

A
  • Normal cell / Discocyte
  • Burr cell / Echinocyte or crenated cell
  • Ghost cell
148
Q

examples of Dysmorphic cells

A
  • Acanthocyte or G1 cell
  • Target cell / Codocyte
  • Schistocyte / Shizocyte
  • Stomatocyte
149
Q

This is a.k.a Burr cell

A

Echinocyte or crenated cell

150
Q

this is a.k.a G1 cell

A

Acanthocyte

151
Q

This is a.k.a codocyte

A

Target cell

152
Q

Bull’s eye appearance; can be bell- or cup-shaped

A

Target cell / codocyte

153
Q

Cell with central pallor that appears slitlike

A

Stomatocyte

154
Q

T/F: The shape change in stomatocytes is “reversible.”

155
Q

Cell fragment often with two or three pointed ends

A

Schistocyte

156
Q

Cell in a ring form (donut shape) with one or more cytoplasmic blebs (i.e., vesicle-shaped protrusions or bulges)

A

Acanthocyte

157
Q

Cell with thin membrane and WITHOUT hemoglobin

A

Ghost cell

158
Q

Cell with evenly spaced projections or spicules over cell surface; this “reversible” shape change progresses from a “crenated” disk to a “crenated” sphere

A

Echinocyte or crenated cell / Burr cell

159
Q

T/F: The shape change for Burr cells are irreversible

A

F.

Reversible

160
Q

T/F: WBCs are larger than RBCs

161
Q

Average measurement size of WBC diameter

A

12 um in diameter

162
Q

Term used to denote increase urinary WBCs and is associated with urinary tract infection (UTI), interstitial nephritis, and SLE

A

Pyuria or leukocytoruia

163
Q

This is the predominant WBC found in urine

A

Neutrophils

164
Q

T/F: Neutrophils lyse rapidly in dilute alkaline urine and begin to lose nuclear detail

165
Q

What happens to WBCs in HYPOTONIC URINE?

A
  • WBCs swells and become spherical balls
  • lyse rapidly as 50% in 2 to 3 hours at RT
166
Q

What happens to WBC in hypertonic urine?

A
  • leukocytes become smaller as water is lost osmotically from the cells, but they do not crenate
167
Q

These result from the breakdown of the cell membrane

A

Myelin forms

168
Q

The presence of these are primarily associated with drug-induced interstitial nephritis

A

urinary EOSINOPHILS

169
Q

T/F: Eosinophils are not normally seen in the urine

170
Q

T/F: the finding of more than 1% eosinophils is considered significant

171
Q

These cells predominate in urine from patients experiencing renal transplant rejection

A

Lymphocytes

172
Q

Normal WBC value in urine

A

male: 0-5 WBC/hpf
female: 0-8 WBC/hpf

173
Q

They are found in diluted or hypotonic urine

A

Glitter cells

174
Q

This is a WBC with sparkling appearance due to Brownian movement of the granules

A

Glitter cells

175
Q

Glitter cells are large cells that stain blue as opposed to the violet color usually seen with neutrophils

A

When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin

176
Q

T/F: Glitter cells are of no pathologic significance

177
Q

When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin, the large cells stain what color as opposed to the violet color usually seen with neutrophils

A

LIGHT BLUE

178
Q

Originates from linings of the vagina and female urethra and the lower portion of the male urethra

A

Squamous Epithelial cells

179
Q

these are the largest cells found in the urine sediment

A

Squamous epithelial cells

180
Q

These contain abundant, irregular cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus about the size of an RBC.

A

Squamous epithelial cell

181
Q

The may appear as flagstone-shaped with distinct cell borders

A

Squamous epithelial cells

182
Q

This is the point of reference in microscopic analysis

A

Squamous Epithelial cells

183
Q

They may occasionally appear folded, possibly resembling a cast, and will begin to disintegrate in urine that is not fresh

A

Squamous epithelial cells

184
Q

T/F: Increased amounts of squamous epithelial cells are more frequently seen in males.

A

F.

frequently seen in females

185
Q

These are pathologic squamous epithelial cell covered with the Gardnerella vaginalis coccobacillus

A

Clue cells

186
Q

Clue cells are pathologic squamous epithelial cells covered with what?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis coccobacillus

187
Q

To be considered a clue cell…

A

the bacteria should cover MOST OF THE CELL SURFACE and extend BEYOND THE EDGES of the cell

188
Q

Transitional Epithelial cells is a.k.a

A

Urothelial or BLADDER EPITHELIAL CELLS

189
Q

These cells originate from the lining of the renal pelvis, calyces, ureters, and bladder, and from the upper portion of the male urethra

A

Transitional epithelial cells

190
Q

These cells are smaller than squamous cells and appear in several forms, including spherical, polyhedral, and caudate. These differences are caused by the ability to absorb large amounts of water

A

Transitional epithelial cells

191
Q

What are the several forms of TRANSITIONAL EPITHELIAL CELLS

A
  • spherical
  • polyhedral
  • caudate
192
Q

They are 2 to 4 times as large as WHITE CELLS

A

Transitional epithelial cells

193
Q

These may be round, pear-shaped, or may have tail-like projections

A

transitional epithelial cells

194
Q

Occasionally, these cells may contain two nuclei

A

Urothelial

195
Q

What form of transitional epithelial cells are sometimes difficult to distinguish from RTE cells?

A

Spherical forms of transitional epithelial cells

196
Q

These can aid in in the differentiation of transitional epithelial cells

A

-presence of a centrally located rather then eccentrically placed nucleus
- supravital staining

197
Q

T/F: Increased numbers of transitional cells seen singly, in pairs, or in clumps (syncytia) are present following invasive urologic procedures such as catheterization and are of NO CLINICAL SIGNIFICANCE

198
Q

An increase in transitional cells exhibiting abnormal morphology such as vacuoles and irregular nuclei may be indicative of what?

A

indicative of malignancy or viral infection

199
Q

these cells vary in size and shape depending on the area of the renal tubules from which they originate

A

Renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells

200
Q

T/F: the cells from the PCT are SMALLER than other RTE cells

201
Q

They tend to have a rectangular shape and are referred to as COLUMNAR or CONVOLUTED CELLS.

202
Q

T/F: Cells from the DCT are SMALLER than those from the PCT, and are round or oval

203
Q

These cells are cuboidal and are NEVER ROUND.

A

Collecting duct RTE cells

204
Q

These are cells from the collecting duct that appear in groups of three or more

A

Renal fragments

205
Q

These are indication of severe tubular injury with basement membrane disruption

A

Renal fragments

206
Q

This condition is seen in the presence of more than 2 RTE/HPF

A

Tubular injury

207
Q

These are the MOST CLINICALLY significant of the epithelial cells

208
Q

The presence of increased amounts of RTE cells is indicative of what?

A

indicative of necrosis of the renal tubules

209
Q

These are the precurosr of oval fat bodies

210
Q

What are the 3 locations of RTE cell?

A
  • PCT
  • DCT
  • Collecting Duct
211
Q

What is the appearance of RTE cells located in the PCT?

A

Rectangular

212
Q

What is the appearance of RTE cells located in the DCT?

A

Round or oval

213
Q

What is the appearance of RTE cells located in the collecting duct?

A

Cuboidal and can be seen as large sheets of cells

214
Q

These are RTE cells containing large, nonlipid-filled vacuoles that is mainly associated with Acute Tubular necrosis

A

Bubble cells

215
Q

Bubble cells are RTE cells containing large, nonlipid-filled vacuoles that is mainly associated with what?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

216
Q

These appear to represent injured cells in which the endoplasmic reticulum has dilated prior to cell death

A

Bubble cells

217
Q

These are lipid-containing RTE cells

A

Oval fat bodies

218
Q

These are highly refractile RTE cells

A

Oval fat bodies

219
Q

They are usually seen in conjunction with free-floating fat droplets

A

Oval fat bodies

220
Q

How is the identification of oval fat bodies confirmed?

A

1- by staining the sedimen with Sudan III or Oil Red O fat stains
2- examining the sediment using POLARIZED MICROSCOPY

221
Q

In Oval fat bodies, the examination of the sediment using polarized light results in the appearance of characteristic what??

A

Maltese cross formations

222
Q

These cells are present in disorders such as: Nephrotic syndrom, DM, Severe Tubular necrosis, trauma cases that cause release of bone marrow fat from the long bones

A

Oval fat bodies

223
Q

T/F: In lipid-storage diseases, large fat-laden histiocytes may also be present in urine.

224
Q

How can large fat-laden histiocytes be differentiated from oval fat bodies?

A

By their large size

225
Q

These appear as small spherical and rod-shaped structures in the urine

226
Q

T/F: Bacteria are normally present in the urine

A

F.

NOT NORMALLY present

227
Q

To be considered significant for UTI, what should be present in the urine?

A

Bacteria accompanied by WBCs

228
Q

T/F: Bacteria in the urine are motile.

229
Q

They are useful from similar appearance, amorphous urates and phosphates

230
Q

T/F: The actual bacteria producing UTI cannot be identified with the microscopic examination

231
Q

These cells appear in the urine as small, refractile oval structures that may or may not contain a bud

A

Yeast cells

232
Q

In severe infections, these cells may appear as branched mycelial forms

A

Yeast cells

233
Q

Yeast cells, primarily this bacteria, are seen in the urine of diabetic, immunocrompomised patients and women with vaginal moniliasis

A

Candida albicans

234
Q

A true yeast infection should be accompanied by the presence of ….

A

presence of WBCs

235
Q

What is the FAVORABLE urine condition for yeast cells?

A

ACIDIC urine and with GLUCOSE

236
Q

Most frequent parasite encountered in urine

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

237
Q

Bladder parasite, associated with bladder tumors

A

Schistosoma haematobium

238
Q

Most common contaminant ova

A

Enterobius vermicularis

239
Q

Observed in urine sediments as the result of fecal contamination of infected individuals

A

Cyst of Giardia lamblia

240
Q

When NOT MOVING, this is more difficult to identify and may resemble a WBC, transitional/or RTE cell

A

Trichomonas

241
Q

The use of this microscope technique may enhance visualization of the flagella or undulating membrane

A

phase microscopy

242
Q

These are easily identified in the urine by their oval, slightly tapered heads and long, flagella-like tails

A

Spermatozoa

243
Q

T/F: Urine is toxic to spermatozoa

244
Q

T/F: Observation of exhibited motility are rarely obserbed when examining a semen specimen because urine is toxic to spermatozoa

245
Q

Spermatozoa are rarely of clinical significance except in cases of what?

A
  • male INFERTILITY
  • Retrograde ejaculation
246
Q

This is the term when sperm is expelled into the bladder instead of the urethra

A

Retrograde ejaculation

247
Q

This is a protein material produced by the glands and epithelial cells of the lower GENITOurinary tract and the RTE cells

248
Q

These appear microscopically as thread-like structures with a LOW REFRACTIVE INDEX

249
Q

The major constituent or matrix of the mucus

A

Uromoduliln / Tamm-Horsfall protein

250
Q

T/F: Mucus is more frequently present in male urine specimens.

A

F.
more frequently present in female urine specimens

251
Q

T/F: Increase in numbers of mucus are found in cases of UTI

252
Q

These are found in the urine sediment 2 to 3 days after a severe hemolytic episode (e.g., transfusion reaction, paroxysymal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)

A

Hemosiderin granules

253
Q

Hemosiderin granules are found in the urine sediment how many days after a severe hemolytic episode

A

2 to 3 days after a severe hemolytic episode

254
Q

These may be found free floating or within macrophages, casts, or tubular epithelial cells

A

Hemosiderin granules

255
Q

This is a.k.a Rous test

A

Prussian blue reaction

256
Q

The Prussian blue reaction is a.k.a

257
Q

This is used to identify hemosiderin in the urine sediment and in tissues

A

Prussian blue reaction/Rous test

258
Q

In a Rous test, how long should the urine stand at room temperature?

A

10 minutes

259
Q

In preparing a Rous test, the urine sediment is suspended in a freshly prepared solution of what?

A

solution of potassium ferricyanide-HCl

260
Q

presence of RBCs in urine

261
Q

what is the normal color of neutrophils in a sternheimer-malbin?

262
Q

What are the 2 possible appearances of RBCs in a hypotonic urine?

A

1-swells and becomes spherical balls
2- produces a Brownian movement, then has a sparkling appearance, and is then called a GLITTER CELL

263
Q

What WBC is predominant in interstitial nephritis?

A

eosinophils (>1% eosino)

264
Q

medical term for the presence of WBCs in the urine?

265
Q

What type of cells are these: monocytes, lymphocytes, macrophages, and histocytes

A

Mononuclear cells

266
Q

What are the mononuclear cells?

A
  • monocytes
  • lymphocytes
  • macrophages
  • histocytes
267
Q

Mononuclear cells are generally mistaken for what?

A

mistaken for RTE cells

268
Q

T/F: Lymphocytes resemble as RBCs

269
Q

These are seen in cases of early renal transplant rejection

A

Increased urinary lymphocytes

270
Q

These stains can be used to diff. mononuclear cells from RTE cells

A

supravital stain & acetic acid

271
Q

Considered as the largest sediment in urine

A

Squamous epithelial cells

272
Q

T/F: Squamous epithelial cells are significant when results are TOO NUMEROUS TO COUNT (tntc)

A

F.

Squamous epithelial cells are NOT significant kahit sobrang dami. Nagiging significant lang kapag merong kasamang bacteria na Gardnerella vaginalis

273
Q

What is the precursor of clue cells?

A

Squamous epithelial cells

274
Q

How to differentiate spherical transitional epithelial cells from RTE cells?

A

check the nucleus and can use a supravital stain

*for transitiona epithelial cells, the nucleus is CENTRALLY LOCATED. meanwhile, RTE cells have an ECCENTRIC nucleus

275
Q

out of the epithelial cells, these are considered SIGNIFICANT

A

Renal tubular epithelial cells

276
Q

what is the value of renal tubular epithelial cells that indicate tubular injury?

A

more than 2 RTE/HPF

277
Q

The most clinically significant of the epithelial cells

278
Q

Cuboidal RTE cells located in the collecting duct can be seen as large sheets of cells. The large sheet of cells is called …

A

renal fragments

279
Q

The largest RTE cell is found/located where?

280
Q

RTE cells located in the PCT are referred to as …

A

Columnar or convoluted cells

281
Q

Columnar or convoluted cells are located in the …

282
Q

DCT RTE cells can be mistaken for what?

A

WBCs and spherical transitional epithelial cells

283
Q

These are associated with SEVERE TUBULAR INJURY

A

Renal fragments

284
Q

These are seen in cases of salicylate poisoning

A

Single cuboidal RTE

285
Q

Single cuboidal RTE are seen in cases of what?

A

in cases of salicylate poisoning

286
Q

This is the precursor of oval fat bodies

A

RTE

*monocyte/macrophage (2nd ans)

287
Q

When the appearance of the RTE is highly refractile and lipid filled, this is called …

A

OVAL FAT BODIES

288
Q

when the appearance of RTE cells is vacuolated and non lipid-filled, this is called …

A

BUBBLE CELLS

289
Q

These are non lipid-filled RTE

A

Vacuolated RTE

290
Q

These are lipid-filled RTE

A

Highly refractile RTE

291
Q

How to differentiate oval fat bodies RTE from oval fat bodies macrophages (fat-laden histiocytes) ?

A

check the size

*fat-laden histiocytes are LARGER in size

292
Q

What to check if T. vaginalis is not motile?

A

1 - check for motility
2- checl the flagella or undulating membrane

293
Q

In a Prussian blue stain, what color is positive?