Kissie Kissies from Phil Flashcards
1
Q
Safe Life
A
This is a life given to an aircraft during which it will not suffer catastrophic failure
2
Q
Failure probabilities
A
Minor - Probable
Major - Remote
Hazardous - Extremely Remote
Catastrophic - Extremely improbable
Anything above this is unacceptable.
3
Q
Design Limit Load (DLL)
A
This is the maximum load the designer expects the aircraft to experience in service. (Based on 2.5g for a transport aircraft)
4
Q
Design Ultimate Load (DUL)
A
Structure must withstand DUL without collapse. Regulations require safety factor of 1.5xDLL
5
Q
Fail Safe
A
This can be described as a structure in which a failure of a particular part is compensated for by an alternative load path provided by an adjacent part that is able to carry the load for a limited time period. Any single failure in any one structural member can safely be carried until the next periodic inspection.
6
Q
Duralumin properties
A
- Most common aluminium alloy
- Very good thermal and electrical conductivity
- Excellent strength to weight ratio
- More susceptible to corrosion (NOT poor) than pure aluminium
- Difficult to weld
7
Q
Alclad
A
Sheet of duralumin with pure aluminium coating on the surfaces.
8
Q
Typical uses for sandwich construction
A
- Flight control surfaces
- Flooring
- Fuselage panels
- Empennage skin
- Sound proofing for engines
9
Q
Stress Corrosion
A
Interaction between fatigue and corrosion. Result is stress corrosion cracking. Metals under stress corrode more quickly than those that are not stressed.
10
Q
Stress Corrosion Cracking (SCC)
A
The unexpected sudden failure of normally ductile metals subjected to tensile stress in corrosive environment.
11
Q
What type of aircraft is a monocoque design suitable for?
A
Small aircraft
12
Q
Semi-Monocoque properties
A
- Skin still takes the major load but is reinforced by frames, longerons and stringers
- Good strength to weight ratio
13
Q
Stringers
A
Give fuselage its shape
14
Q
Firewalls
A
Stainless steel or titanium alloy
15
Q
Max diff. for pressurised aircraft
A
9 psi for jet.
5 psi for turboprop.
16
Q
Attachment methods
A
- Riveting
- Welding
- Bolting
- Bonding
- Pinning
17
Q
Typical construction of large transport aircraft windscreen
A
Glass, heating element, vinyl (polycarbonate), glass.
18
Q
Nosewheel landing, damage to:
A
- Front pressure bulkhead
- Nosewheel drag and shock struts (possibility of nosewheel collapse)
19
Q
Tailstrike, damage to:
A
- Empennage structure
- Rear pressurisation bulkhead
20
Q
Typical hydraulic operating pressure
A
3000-4000psi
21
Q
Advantages of high pressure hydraulic system:
A
- size of actuators can be reduced (less fluid needed)
- pipes can be made smaller
- reduction in weight and saves space
22
Q
‘O’rings/Square section seals
A
Hydraulic pressure in both directions, backing rings to prevent extrusion
23
Q
Chevron seals
A
Effective in one direction only. Can be fitted in pairs back to back to seal in two directions.
24
Q
Skydrol
A
- Phosphate ester based synthetic oil
- Green or purple
- Irritant
- Fire resistant
- Less prone to cavitation
- high boiling point
- Seal material - butyl rubber
25
Mineral oil (DTD585)
* Flammable
* red
* seal material (synthetic rubber)
26
Where would you find a single-acting actuator...
Undercarriage door locks
27
Main disadvantage open centre system
only once service can be operated at a time
28
Large aircraft have constant pressure systems, what is the main advantage of this?
services can be operated simultaneously
29
Pressurisation of the reservoir, why and how?
* Prevents cavitation
* Pressurised using bleed air from the compressor stage of the gas turbine
30
Accumulator
* Charged with nitrogen at half system pressure (insufficient pressure, frequency and amplitude of fluctuations increase, chattering and hammering)
* Will be system pressure when system running
* Acts as store of hydraulic fluid under pressure (provides a limited supply of pressure if the pump fails)
* Damps out pressure fluctuations
* Gives initial impetus to the system when service selected
31
case drain filter purpose
monitor condition of the pumps
32
Mechanical overload protection/Flap load relief system
* Used in flap circuits or some spoiler circuits
* Flaps will retract to mid position, until you slow down when flaps will return to position selected.
* Blowback valve allows flaps to retract to mid position of airspeed exceeds a predetermined speed
33
Restrictors
* Allow fluid through one-way, restricts in the other (during up flap selection and gear down selection)
* physically fitted in up lines
34
Modulator
Specific (peculiar) to brake system
35
In addition to main wheel what load does nosewheel experience?
Shear (during towing)
36
Landing gear position warning will sound continously until:
Either the gear becomes locked down (three greens) or the throttles are advanced (as for go-around)
37
Nose wheel shimmy, what is it and what are the causes?
* Shimmy is the rapid sinusoidal oscillation of the nosewheel and is divergent in nature
Caused by:
* Uneven tyre pressures
* Unevenly worn tyres
* Unbalanced wheels
* Worn shimmy damper or wheel bearings
* Worn torque link will make things worse
38
Three types of wheel:
1. Well based
2. Loose or detachable flange
3. Divided or split
39
Prevention of creep:
1. **Knurled flange** (inner face is milled which enables the bead of the tyre to lock onto the wheel flange)
2. **Tapered bead seat** (gives a greater area)
40
Wheel materials:
1. Aluminium alloy - anodised
2. Magnesium alloy - chromate treatment
41
Tyres inflated with:
Nitrogen
42
Inflation valve:
Called a schrader valve, operates as NRV. Valve is not a perfect seal and has to be fitted with a cap.
43
Where are you likely to find a chined tyre?
on aircraft with fuselage mounted engines
44
Advantage of a Maarstrand tyre?
Anti-shimmy
45
Tyre speed rating denoted in:
MPH
46
Red spot/triangle on tyre indicates:
lightest area of tyre which is balanced against heaviest area of tyre
47
To minimise tyre wear it is recommended that taxi speeds be kept below:
25mph
48
For closed hydraulic system (ie. NWS) if there's air in the system bleed...
Dynamically
49
Brake Drag caused by
A wrongly adjusted or faulty brake adjuster.
50
Friction pads and plates on multi plate brake made of:
Plates- made of either heavy steel with specially case hardened surface OR carbon
Pads- a sacrificial inorganic friction material
51
Anti skid unit functions:
* Skid prevention (monitors decelaration rate of individual wheels)
* touchdown protection (weight on wheels sensed, signal from two seperate wheels)
* locked wheel protection (monitors individual wheels will reduce brake pressure on locked wheels)
* hydroplane protection (monitors all wheels on a bogey - reduces brake pressure to number of wheels if all lock)
52
Electronic anti-skid system advantage:
can be tested prior to use
53
What speed is anti skid system deactivated (either manually or automatically)
Slowed to approx. 20mph
54
RTO mode
With RTO selected **maximum** brake pressure will be applied automatically **when all thrust levers are closed at ground speeds above 85kts**
55
Disarming of autobrakes:
* Operation of the footbrakes
* advancing any thrust lever after landing
* moving speed brake lever down after speed brakes have been deployed on the ground
Normally disarmed by **non-handling pilot or flight engineer** as aircraft slows to approx 20kts
56
Three types of primary controls:
Manual = Reversible, No artificial feel
Power assisted controls = Reversible, No artificial feel
Fully power operated = Irreversible, Requires artifical feel
57
What controls range of movement of surfaces?
Primary stops
58
Temperature compensation
Increase in ambient temp., aluminium airframe expands more than steel cables, causing increase in cable tension
59
Range of control movement characteristics (primary vs secondary stop)
When primary stop is closed there will be a small clearance at the secondary stop (allows for thermal expansion)
60
Implication of using control disconnect to unjam control..
Control authority is reduced (i.e reduced roll rate)
61
Artificial Feel (Q-Feel):
* **duplicated** and fitted in **parallel** with control runs
* Senses dynamic pressure and control deflection in order to reduce chance of **overstressing the aircraft**
62
Trimming methods:
* Trimming tab
* Variable incidence stabiliser or tailplane
* CG adjustment
* adjustment of the artificial feel unit
63
Fixed tabs
Correct permanant out of trim condition
64
Trim switches
operate in pairs, one switch or lever controls the power, the other control the direction of movement of trimming device, both must be moved simultaneously.
This is to prevent "trim-runaway"
65
Airbus variable stops
* starts at 165kts
* series of stops on rudder pedals
66
Take Off Configuration Warning System (TOCWAS)
Intermittent warning sounds if some or all of following conditions exist:
* Control locks not fully unlocked, internal locks
* Stab trim outside safe range
* Trailing edge flaps not in T/O position
* LE lift devices not in T/O position
* Speed brake lever not in down position
* All doors are not fully locked
67
Flaps are protected against:
* asymmetric operation
* runaway
* uncommanded movement
* overspeed
68
Autoslats:
**Extend slats automatically from intermediate to fully extended** if a/c approaches stall angle of attack
69
Emergency operation of flaps by:
alternate hydraulic supply or an electronic motor
70
Deployment of speed brakes for a rapid deceleration required when?
To reduce speed to rough air speed
71
What prevents speedbrake system from operating spoilers in the air?
Ground spoiler shut off valve in conjunction with air/ground system
72
How are flight spoilers actuated in response to the movement of aileron controls?
Hydraulic PCUs on each spoiler panel provide spoiler movement proportional to aileron movement.
73
Flight spoiler hydraulic power is controlled by:
Electric motor driven valves
74
How does a large aircraft with an Engine Driven Compressor (EDC) provide a fixed mass of air under all circumstances?
Using a mass flow controller
75
What is the purpose of a choke valve and how does it work?
To raise temperature of air if required by applying back pressure to blower
76
Why is HPSOV designed to open relatively slowly on engine start?
To prevent surge of air pressure
77
What are over pressure conditions caused by?
Failure of the High Pressure Shut Off Valve (HPSOV)
78
Overheat action?
Close bleed switch and then open isolation valve to make up for the lost system
79
What is the risk regarding a heater muff?
heat exchanger could leak and allow CO into cabin
80
Purpose of air conditioning?
To supply a constant delivery of clean air, to the cockpit and cabin, within a set temperature range
81
Provision of fresh air, but how much?
* 1 pound of fresh air per seat per minute under normal circumstances
* 0.5 pound of fresh air per seat per minute following a failure of any part of the duplicated air conditioning system
82
Humidity of air
* 1-2% at 40,000ft
* Ideal figure 30%
83
Allowed carbon monoxide concentration
One part per 20,000
84
Temp range
18-24C
85
Mass flow controller:
Works in conjunction with a **spill valve** in systems that use a **blower**.
On **bleed air** systems the controller is used with a **variable orifice valve**
86
Bootstrap (air-cycle) system:
* System most efficient at high mass flow values
* Biggest temp drop in secondary heat exchanger (intercooler). (Air can be as cool as 2C on exit)
87
Two types of water separator:
Impingement and Centrifugal
88
What are safety valves and when do they open?
Prevent overpressure
Open at 0.25 above max diff.
89
Which gauges are affected if there is a blockage in the supply line?
All of them (cabin altimeter, cabin vertical speed, cabin differential pressure)
90
What pressure value do inward relief valves operate?
0.5-1 psi
91
What altitude is the AUTO FAIL light illuminated?
13,850ft
92
At high ALT in cruise cabin VSI shows -200fpm, pressure controller serviceable, pilot does nothing, what happens?
Max diff pressure capsule will send signal to outflow valve to maintain max diff.
If pressure controller u/s safety valves keep cabin 0.25 psi above max diff.
93
Types of ice
* Hoar frost (crystalline structure)
* Rime ice (cloudy conditions)
* Clear of glaze ice (cloudy conditions)
94
Effects of ice formation
* Change of aerodynamic shape of the wing
* Extreme roughness = Drag
* Reduction in coefficient of lift
* Increase in power required and stall speed
* Increase in weight
* Possible jamming of controls
95
Heated areas against ice
Entire leading edges including slats. NOT including kreuger flaps/camber flaps.
96
Ice detection devices
* **Hot Rod**
* **Vibrating**
* **Pressure**
* Rotary
* Inferential
97
Purpose of a head compensating valve?
Ensures fluid goes to all parts of the system
98
Panel distributors vs strip distributors
Panel distributors more economical than strip distributors
However not suitable for surfaces with double curvature
99
When would you not operate thermal anti-icing?
* On the ground
* On T/O or landing
100
Two sources of heated air
1. Bleeding air from turbine engine compressor
2. **Heating of ram air by passing it through a heat exchanger located in an engine exhaust gas system**
101
Prop Icing (effects and protection)
Effects:
* distortion to aerofoil section
* loss in efficiency
* causes imbalance
* vibration
Protection:
* anti-icing fluid system
* electrical thermal de-icing system
102
Electrical turbine engine de-icing achieved by:
Wire woven or **sprayed elements are also bonded to the front shell of the spinner**
103
Prop fluid system:
Fluid pumped to slinger ring from supply tank. Slinger tubes distribute fluid to blades by centrifugal action. Thin film of fluid on blades sometimes aided in distribution by rubber overshoes.
104
Jet B:
* Wide-cut gasoline/kerosene mix
* 0.77 SG at 15C
* Low flash point
* waxing point -60c
105
Twin a/c, too much fuel one side, banking. can you do anything?
Yes.
1. Booster pumps on in fuel tank you want fuel from
2. Open cross feed, turn off the other booster pump
3. Then turn pump back on and close cross feed valve
106
Booster fuel pump:
* LP Centrifugal Pump
* AC electric motor 115/200v, 400hz, 3 phase switched by DC
* Fuel cooled
* Pressure 25-50psi
* High flow rate capability
107
Prior to start where can you get the fuel from for the APU?
DC pump, from number one tank. All other pumps are AC so you can't get fuel from them until after start.
108
Volumetric shutoff purpose
Ensures theres 2% airspace in tank
109
Venting system purpose:
* Allows air to escape during refuelling
* Allows air to enter during fuel useage
110
Where is the ram air intake positioned?
underside of the wing in high pressure area towards tip
111
Properties of a jettison system
* Must be fitted when MTOM is significantly greater than MLM and it must be able to reduce weight to the latter within 15 minutes.
* After jettisoning there must be sufficient fuel to be able to climb to 10,000ft and then fly at range speed for 45 mins. (achieved using a low level float switch or preset switch...)
112
While fuel dumping you should (if time permits):
* Inform ATC
* Avoid areas of static and cloud
* do not fly in circles or turn down wind
* be at safe altitude and speed
* clean aircraft configuration
* no smoking
* non-essential electrical equipment - off
* No HF radio on
* use a designated dumping area
* ensure positive fuel feed to the engines
113
Baffle check valve?
Prevents flow of fuel towards the tip
114
Fuel temp sensor, where?
Out towards tip
115
Two principal types of smoke detection system:
Optical and Ionisation.
Set of bell and/or light
116
Fire detection/protection systems must be fitted in:
1. Engines
2. APU's
3. Cargo compartments
4. Main wheel wells
Such areas are defined as Designated Fire Zones
117
What is a Designated Fire Zone?
Areas where there is a percieved risk of fire following failure or leakage of any component or associated equipment.
It is a manufacturer designated area, could also include:
* hydraulic bays
* baggage holds
* toilets
* galley areas
118
Fire wires
Positioned around engine fire zones in a continuous double loops. Both loops having to detect a fire to initiate the warning. These need to give a rapid warning within 5 seconds.
_Negative coefficient of resistance_
Current increase, resistance decrease with increasing temperature. Automatically resets after approx 30 secs if temp. drops below preset value.
_Positive coefficient of capacitance_
Increase in temp causes increase in capacitance. Advantage is that it does not result in false warning and may be referred to asa FFFD (Fault Free Fire Detector)
119
Systron Donner (Gas filled system)
A system checks the responders unit electrical circuit and tests the sensor by heating it electrically.
120
Bimetallic overheat sensors (sometimes called differential expansion detectors)
Incorporates short time delay to prevent false warnings due to vibration.
121
Fire warning typical indications
1. **Red flashing** FIRE **master caution caption**
2. Fire warning bell and associated ENG 1 FIRE or ENG 2 FIRE caption
3. **Illuminates the extinguisher operating handle**
4. Displays warning on the EICAS or ECAM
122
Standard engine fire drill (gas turbine)
1. cancel the fire bell
2. close the throttle
3. shut the hp cock
4. pull the fire handle (lp cock off, hydraulic shut off, cock operated, generator offline, all bleeds off)
5. discharge fire extinguisher
If after 30 secs still illuminated use second extinguisher. Land ASAP
123
APU protection
APU's are self monitoring and will auto shut down in the event of:
* fire (plus auto firing of the fire bottle)
* oil pressure failure
* over-speed
* over-heat
* any malfunction of sensors as no means of monitoring itself
124
Toilet fire system required on aircraft with more than:
Capacity of 20 passengers or more
125
Crew Oxygen Supply stored at what pressure?
1800psi.
Reduced to 80-100psi for distribution.
Reduced to 8 to 10psi at each crew mask.
126
What should the crew select in case of smoke in the cabin in terms of oxygen supply?
_School Final_
Select emergency, then revert back to 100%
_EASA_
Just 100% oxygen
127
How long must pax oxygen last?
15 minutes
128
Chemical generator principle of operation
Sodium chlorate reacts with iron powder to give off O2 (at a steady rate).
129
Crew portable oxygen systems (same as portable first aid oxygen systems)
1800psi
120 litres capacity.
Two flow settings:
* Normal: 60 mins at two litres per min
* High: 30 mins at four litres per min
For first aid:
Must have sufficient on board for **2% of passengers carried when above 8000ft but never less than 2 units**
