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AGK Systems > Kissie Kissies from Phil > Flashcards

Kissie Kissies from Phil Flashcards

1
Q

Safe Life

A

This is a life given to an aircraft during which it will not suffer catastrophic failure

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2
Q

Failure probabilities

A

Minor - Probable

Major - Remote

Hazardous - Extremely Remote

Catastrophic - Extremely improbable

Anything above this is unacceptable.

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3
Q

Design Limit Load (DLL)

A

This is the maximum load the designer expects the aircraft to experience in service. (Based on 2.5g for a transport aircraft)

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4
Q

Design Ultimate Load (DUL)

A

Structure must withstand DUL without collapse. Regulations require safety factor of 1.5xDLL

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5
Q

Fail Safe

A

This can be described as a structure in which a failure of a particular part is compensated for by an alternative load path provided by an adjacent part that is able to carry the load for a limited time period. Any single failure in any one structural member can safely be carried until the next periodic inspection.

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6
Q

Duralumin properties

A
  • Most common aluminium alloy
  • Very good thermal and electrical conductivity
  • Excellent strength to weight ratio
  • More susceptible to corrosion (NOT poor) than pure aluminium
  • Difficult to weld
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7
Q

Alclad

A

Sheet of duralumin with pure aluminium coating on the surfaces.

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8
Q

Typical uses for sandwich construction

A
  • Flight control surfaces
  • Flooring
  • Fuselage panels
  • Empennage skin
  • Sound proofing for engines
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9
Q

Stress Corrosion

A

Interaction between fatigue and corrosion. Result is stress corrosion cracking. Metals under stress corrode more quickly than those that are not stressed.

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10
Q

Stress Corrosion Cracking (SCC)

A

The unexpected sudden failure of normally ductile metals subjected to tensile stress in corrosive environment.

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11
Q

What type of aircraft is a monocoque design suitable for?

A

Small aircraft

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12
Q

Semi-Monocoque properties

A
  • Skin still takes the major load but is reinforced by frames, longerons and stringers
  • Good strength to weight ratio
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13
Q

Stringers

A

Give fuselage its shape

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14
Q

Firewalls

A

Stainless steel or titanium alloy

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15
Q

Max diff. for pressurised aircraft

A

9 psi for jet.

5 psi for turboprop.

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16
Q

Attachment methods

A
  • Riveting
  • Welding
  • Bolting
  • Bonding
  • Pinning
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17
Q

Typical construction of large transport aircraft windscreen

A

Glass, heating element, vinyl (polycarbonate), glass.

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18
Q

Nosewheel landing, damage to:

A
  • Front pressure bulkhead
  • Nosewheel drag and shock struts (possibility of nosewheel collapse)
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19
Q

Tailstrike, damage to:

A
  • Empennage structure
  • Rear pressurisation bulkhead
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20
Q

Typical hydraulic operating pressure

A

3000-4000psi

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21
Q

Advantages of high pressure hydraulic system:

A
  • size of actuators can be reduced (less fluid needed)
  • pipes can be made smaller
  • reduction in weight and saves space
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22
Q

‘O’rings/Square section seals

A

Hydraulic pressure in both directions, backing rings to prevent extrusion

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23
Q

Chevron seals

A

Effective in one direction only. Can be fitted in pairs back to back to seal in two directions.

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24
Q

Skydrol

A
  • Phosphate ester based synthetic oil
  • Green or purple
  • Irritant
  • Fire resistant
  • Less prone to cavitation
  • high boiling point
  • Seal material - butyl rubber
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25
Q

Mineral oil (DTD585)

A
  • Flammable
  • red
  • seal material (synthetic rubber)
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26
Q

Where would you find a single-acting actuator…

A

Undercarriage door locks

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27
Q

Main disadvantage open centre system

A

only once service can be operated at a time

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28
Q

Large aircraft have constant pressure systems, what is the main advantage of this?

A

services can be operated simultaneously

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29
Q

Pressurisation of the reservoir, why and how?

A
  • Prevents cavitation
  • Pressurised using bleed air from the compressor stage of the gas turbine
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30
Q

Accumulator

A
  • Charged with nitrogen at half system pressure (insufficient pressure, frequency and amplitude of fluctuations increase, chattering and hammering)
  • Will be system pressure when system running
  • Acts as store of hydraulic fluid under pressure (provides a limited supply of pressure if the pump fails)
  • Damps out pressure fluctuations
  • Gives initial impetus to the system when service selected
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31
Q

case drain filter purpose

A

monitor condition of the pumps

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32
Q

Mechanical overload protection/Flap load relief system

A
  • Used in flap circuits or some spoiler circuits
  • Flaps will retract to mid position, until you slow down when flaps will return to position selected.
  • Blowback valve allows flaps to retract to mid position of airspeed exceeds a predetermined speed
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33
Q

Restrictors

A
  • Allow fluid through one-way, restricts in the other (during up flap selection and gear down selection)
  • physically fitted in up lines
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34
Q

Modulator

A

Specific (peculiar) to brake system

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35
Q

In addition to main wheel what load does nosewheel experience?

A

Shear (during towing)

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36
Q

Landing gear position warning will sound continously until:

A

Either the gear becomes locked down (three greens) or the throttles are advanced (as for go-around)

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37
Q

Nose wheel shimmy, what is it and what are the causes?

A
  • Shimmy is the rapid sinusoidal oscillation of the nosewheel and is divergent in nature

Caused by:

  • Uneven tyre pressures
  • Unevenly worn tyres
  • Unbalanced wheels
  • Worn shimmy damper or wheel bearings
  • Worn torque link will make things worse
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38
Q

Three types of wheel:

A
  1. Well based
  2. Loose or detachable flange
  3. Divided or split
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39
Q

Prevention of creep:

A
  1. Knurled flange (inner face is milled which enables the bead of the tyre to lock onto the wheel flange)
  2. Tapered bead seat (gives a greater area)
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40
Q

Wheel materials:

A
  1. Aluminium alloy - anodised
  2. Magnesium alloy - chromate treatment
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41
Q

Tyres inflated with:

A

Nitrogen

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42
Q

Inflation valve:

A

Called a schrader valve, operates as NRV. Valve is not a perfect seal and has to be fitted with a cap.

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43
Q

Where are you likely to find a chined tyre?

A

on aircraft with fuselage mounted engines

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44
Q

Advantage of a Maarstrand tyre?

A

Anti-shimmy

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45
Q

Tyre speed rating denoted in:

A

MPH

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46
Q

Red spot/triangle on tyre indicates:

A

lightest area of tyre which is balanced against heaviest area of tyre

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47
Q

To minimise tyre wear it is recommended that taxi speeds be kept below:

A

25mph

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48
Q

For closed hydraulic system (ie. NWS) if there’s air in the system bleed…

A

Dynamically

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49
Q

Brake Drag caused by

A

A wrongly adjusted or faulty brake adjuster.

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50
Q

Friction pads and plates on multi plate brake made of:

A

Plates- made of either heavy steel with specially case hardened surface OR carbon

Pads- a sacrificial inorganic friction material

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51
Q

Anti skid unit functions:

A
  • Skid prevention (monitors decelaration rate of individual wheels)
  • touchdown protection (weight on wheels sensed, signal from two seperate wheels)
  • locked wheel protection (monitors individual wheels will reduce brake pressure on locked wheels)
  • hydroplane protection (monitors all wheels on a bogey - reduces brake pressure to number of wheels if all lock)
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52
Q

Electronic anti-skid system advantage:

A

can be tested prior to use

53
Q

What speed is anti skid system deactivated (either manually or automatically)

A

Slowed to approx. 20mph

54
Q

RTO mode

A

With RTO selected maximum brake pressure will be applied automatically when all thrust levers are closed at ground speeds above 85kts

55
Q

Disarming of autobrakes:

A
  • Operation of the footbrakes
  • advancing any thrust lever after landing
  • moving speed brake lever down after speed brakes have been deployed on the ground

Normally disarmed by non-handling pilot or flight engineer as aircraft slows to approx 20kts

56
Q

Three types of primary controls:

A

Manual = Reversible, No artificial feel

Power assisted controls = Reversible, No artificial feel

Fully power operated = Irreversible, Requires artifical feel

57
Q

What controls range of movement of surfaces?

A

Primary stops

58
Q

Temperature compensation

A

Increase in ambient temp., aluminium airframe expands more than steel cables, causing increase in cable tension

59
Q

Range of control movement characteristics (primary vs secondary stop)

A

When primary stop is closed there will be a small clearance at the secondary stop (allows for thermal expansion)

60
Q

Implication of using control disconnect to unjam control..

A

Control authority is reduced (i.e reduced roll rate)

61
Q

Artificial Feel (Q-Feel):

A
  • duplicated and fitted in parallel with control runs
  • Senses dynamic pressure and control deflection in order to reduce chance of overstressing the aircraft
62
Q

Trimming methods:

A
  • Trimming tab
  • Variable incidence stabiliser or tailplane
  • CG adjustment
  • adjustment of the artificial feel unit
63
Q

Fixed tabs

A

Correct permanant out of trim condition

64
Q

Trim switches

A

operate in pairs, one switch or lever controls the power, the other control the direction of movement of trimming device, both must be moved simultaneously.

This is to prevent “trim-runaway”

65
Q

Airbus variable stops

A
  • starts at 165kts
  • series of stops on rudder pedals
66
Q

Take Off Configuration Warning System (TOCWAS)

A

Intermittent warning sounds if some or all of following conditions exist:

  • Control locks not fully unlocked, internal locks
  • Stab trim outside safe range
  • Trailing edge flaps not in T/O position
  • LE lift devices not in T/O position
  • Speed brake lever not in down position
  • All doors are not fully locked
67
Q

Flaps are protected against:

A
  • asymmetric operation
  • runaway
  • uncommanded movement
  • overspeed
68
Q

Autoslats:

A

Extend slats automatically from intermediate to fully extended if a/c approaches stall angle of attack

69
Q

Emergency operation of flaps by:

A

alternate hydraulic supply or an electronic motor

70
Q

Deployment of speed brakes for a rapid deceleration required when?

A

To reduce speed to rough air speed

71
Q

What prevents speedbrake system from operating spoilers in the air?

A

Ground spoiler shut off valve in conjunction with air/ground system

72
Q

How are flight spoilers actuated in response to the movement of aileron controls?

A

Hydraulic PCUs on each spoiler panel provide spoiler movement proportional to aileron movement.

73
Q

Flight spoiler hydraulic power is controlled by:

A

Electric motor driven valves

74
Q

How does a large aircraft with an Engine Driven Compressor (EDC) provide a fixed mass of air under all circumstances?

A

Using a mass flow controller

75
Q

What is the purpose of a choke valve and how does it work?

A

To raise temperature of air if required by applying back pressure to blower

76
Q

Why is HPSOV designed to open relatively slowly on engine start?

A

To prevent surge of air pressure

77
Q

What are over pressure conditions caused by?

A

Failure of the High Pressure Shut Off Valve (HPSOV)

78
Q

Overheat action?

A

Close bleed switch and then open isolation valve to make up for the lost system

79
Q

What is the risk regarding a heater muff?

A

heat exchanger could leak and allow CO into cabin

80
Q

Purpose of air conditioning?

A

To supply a constant delivery of clean air, to the cockpit and cabin, within a set temperature range

81
Q

Provision of fresh air, but how much?

A
  • 1 pound of fresh air per seat per minute under normal circumstances
  • 0.5 pound of fresh air per seat per minute following a failure of any part of the duplicated air conditioning system
82
Q

Humidity of air

A
  • 1-2% at 40,000ft
  • Ideal figure 30%
83
Q

Allowed carbon monoxide concentration

A

One part per 20,000

84
Q

Temp range

A

18-24C

85
Q

Mass flow controller:

A

Works in conjunction with a spill valve in systems that use a blower.

On bleed air systems the controller is used with a variable orifice valve

86
Q

Bootstrap (air-cycle) system:

A
  • System most efficient at high mass flow values
  • Biggest temp drop in secondary heat exchanger (intercooler). (Air can be as cool as 2C on exit)
87
Q

Two types of water separator:

A

Impingement and Centrifugal

88
Q

What are safety valves and when do they open?

A

Prevent overpressure

Open at 0.25 above max diff.

89
Q

Which gauges are affected if there is a blockage in the supply line?

A

All of them (cabin altimeter, cabin vertical speed, cabin differential pressure)

90
Q

What pressure value do inward relief valves operate?

A

0.5-1 psi

91
Q

What altitude is the AUTO FAIL light illuminated?

A

13,850ft

92
Q

At high ALT in cruise cabin VSI shows -200fpm, pressure controller serviceable, pilot does nothing, what happens?

A

Max diff pressure capsule will send signal to outflow valve to maintain max diff.

If pressure controller u/s safety valves keep cabin 0.25 psi above max diff.

93
Q

Types of ice

A
  • Hoar frost (crystalline structure)
  • Rime ice (cloudy conditions)
  • Clear of glaze ice (cloudy conditions)
94
Q

Effects of ice formation

A
  • Change of aerodynamic shape of the wing
  • Extreme roughness = Drag
  • Reduction in coefficient of lift
  • Increase in power required and stall speed
  • Increase in weight
  • Possible jamming of controls
95
Q

Heated areas against ice

A

Entire leading edges including slats. NOT including kreuger flaps/camber flaps.

96
Q

Ice detection devices

A
  • Hot Rod
  • Vibrating
  • Pressure
  • Rotary
  • Inferential
97
Q

Purpose of a head compensating valve?

A

Ensures fluid goes to all parts of the system

98
Q

Panel distributors vs strip distributors

A

Panel distributors more economical than strip distributors

However not suitable for surfaces with double curvature

99
Q

When would you not operate thermal anti-icing?

A
  • On the ground
  • On T/O or landing
100
Q

Two sources of heated air

A
  1. Bleeding air from turbine engine compressor
  2. Heating of ram air by passing it through a heat exchanger located in an engine exhaust gas system
101
Q

Prop Icing (effects and protection)

A

Effects:

  • distortion to aerofoil section
  • loss in efficiency
  • causes imbalance
  • vibration

Protection:

  • anti-icing fluid system
  • electrical thermal de-icing system
102
Q

Electrical turbine engine de-icing achieved by:

A

Wire woven or sprayed elements are also bonded to the front shell of the spinner

103
Q

Prop fluid system:

A

Fluid pumped to slinger ring from supply tank. Slinger tubes distribute fluid to blades by centrifugal action. Thin film of fluid on blades sometimes aided in distribution by rubber overshoes.

104
Q

Jet B:

A
  • Wide-cut gasoline/kerosene mix
  • 0.77 SG at 15C
  • Low flash point
  • waxing point -60c
105
Q

Twin a/c, too much fuel one side, banking. can you do anything?

A

Yes.

  1. Booster pumps on in fuel tank you want fuel from
  2. Open cross feed, turn off the other booster pump
  3. Then turn pump back on and close cross feed valve
106
Q

Booster fuel pump:

A
  • LP Centrifugal Pump
  • AC electric motor 115/200v, 400hz, 3 phase switched by DC
  • Fuel cooled
  • Pressure 25-50psi
  • High flow rate capability
107
Q

Prior to start where can you get the fuel from for the APU?

A

DC pump, from number one tank. All other pumps are AC so you can’t get fuel from them until after start.

108
Q

Volumetric shutoff purpose

A

Ensures theres 2% airspace in tank

109
Q

Venting system purpose:

A
  • Allows air to escape during refuelling
  • Allows air to enter during fuel useage
110
Q

Where is the ram air intake positioned?

A

underside of the wing in high pressure area towards tip

111
Q

Properties of a jettison system

A
  • Must be fitted when MTOM is significantly greater than MLM and it must be able to reduce weight to the latter within 15 minutes.
  • After jettisoning there must be sufficient fuel to be able to climb to 10,000ft and then fly at range speed for 45 mins. (achieved using a low level float switch or preset switch…)
112
Q

While fuel dumping you should (if time permits):

A
  • Inform ATC
  • Avoid areas of static and cloud
  • do not fly in circles or turn down wind
  • be at safe altitude and speed
  • clean aircraft configuration
  • no smoking
  • non-essential electrical equipment - off
  • No HF radio on
  • use a designated dumping area
  • ensure positive fuel feed to the engines
113
Q

Baffle check valve?

A

Prevents flow of fuel towards the tip

114
Q

Fuel temp sensor, where?

A

Out towards tip

115
Q

Two principal types of smoke detection system:

A

Optical and Ionisation.

Set of bell and/or light

116
Q

Fire detection/protection systems must be fitted in:

A
  1. Engines
  2. APU’s
  3. Cargo compartments
  4. Main wheel wells

Such areas are defined as Designated Fire Zones

117
Q

What is a Designated Fire Zone?

A

Areas where there is a percieved risk of fire following failure or leakage of any component or associated equipment.

It is a manufacturer designated area, could also include:

  • hydraulic bays
  • baggage holds
  • toilets
  • galley areas
118
Q

Fire wires

A

Positioned around engine fire zones in a continuous double loops. Both loops having to detect a fire to initiate the warning. These need to give a rapid warning within 5 seconds.

Negative coefficient of resistance

Current increase, resistance decrease with increasing temperature. Automatically resets after approx 30 secs if temp. drops below preset value.

Positive coefficient of capacitance

Increase in temp causes increase in capacitance. Advantage is that it does not result in false warning and may be referred to asa FFFD (Fault Free Fire Detector)

119
Q

Systron Donner (Gas filled system)

A

A system checks the responders unit electrical circuit and tests the sensor by heating it electrically.

120
Q

Bimetallic overheat sensors (sometimes called differential expansion detectors)

A

Incorporates short time delay to prevent false warnings due to vibration.

121
Q

Fire warning typical indications

A
  1. Red flashing FIRE master caution caption
  2. Fire warning bell and associated ENG 1 FIRE or ENG 2 FIRE caption
  3. Illuminates the extinguisher operating handle
  4. Displays warning on the EICAS or ECAM
122
Q

Standard engine fire drill (gas turbine)

A
  1. cancel the fire bell
  2. close the throttle
  3. shut the hp cock
  4. pull the fire handle (lp cock off, hydraulic shut off, cock operated, generator offline, all bleeds off)
  5. discharge fire extinguisher

If after 30 secs still illuminated use second extinguisher. Land ASAP

123
Q

APU protection

A

APU’s are self monitoring and will auto shut down in the event of:

  • fire (plus auto firing of the fire bottle)
  • oil pressure failure
  • over-speed
  • over-heat
  • any malfunction of sensors as no means of monitoring itself
124
Q

Toilet fire system required on aircraft with more than:

A

Capacity of 20 passengers or more

125
Q

Crew Oxygen Supply stored at what pressure?

A

1800psi.

Reduced to 80-100psi for distribution.

Reduced to 8 to 10psi at each crew mask.

126
Q

What should the crew select in case of smoke in the cabin in terms of oxygen supply?

A

School Final

Select emergency, then revert back to 100%

EASA

Just 100% oxygen

127
Q

How long must pax oxygen last?

A

15 minutes

128
Q

Chemical generator principle of operation

A

Sodium chlorate reacts with iron powder to give off O2 (at a steady rate).

129
Q

Crew portable oxygen systems (same as portable first aid oxygen systems)

A

1800psi

120 litres capacity.

Two flow settings:

  • Normal: 60 mins at two litres per min
  • High: 30 mins at four litres per min

For first aid:

Must have sufficient on board for 2% of passengers carried when above 8000ft but never less than 2 units

AGK Systems (2 decks)

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