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KIN 100 > KIN 100 Lab 2 Exam > Flashcards

KIN 100 Lab 2 Exam Flashcards

Muscles/Nerves/Arteries/Veins of Pelvic girdle and lower extremities

1
Q

What are the 3 bones that make up the Os Coxae (hip bone)?

A

Ilium, Ischium, Pubis

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2
Q

What is the site where these bones fuse together?

A

Acetabulum (hip socket)

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3
Q

What are some characteristics of male pelvis’?

A

Outlet is more heart shaped, pubic angle is an inverted V (smaller angle)

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4
Q

What are some characteristics of female pelvis’?

A

Ilia flair out (makes pelvis wider at top), outlet is more oval shaped, pubic angle is an inverted “U” (angle is greater than 100 degrees)

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5
Q

What does head of femur articulate w/?

A

Acetabulum of hip

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6
Q

What is the fovea capitis?

A

Site of attachment for ligamentum teres

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7
Q

What does the distal end of the Femur articulate with?

A

Head of Tibia and patella

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8
Q

Where is the intertrochanteric crest?

A

posterior side of femur, swoops b/t trochanters

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9
Q

Where is the intertrochanteric line?

A

anterior side of femur, line b/t trochanters

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10
Q

What is the orientation of the patella?

A

apex = bottom/inferior, pointed; base = top/superior, flat

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11
Q

How do you orientate the apex?

A

Apex away from you, posterior side (tented) down towards the table, whichever side it falls to = the knee it is from

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12
Q

What type of joint is the hip joint?

A

ball and socket

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13
Q

What tissue is the acetabular labrum composed of?

A

fibrous cartilage

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14
Q

What covers the center of the acetabulum?

A

A fat pad encased in synovial membrane

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15
Q

What does the Iliofemoral ligament connect?

A

Anterior inferior Iliac spine to intertrochanteric crest (thickening of the capsule)

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16
Q

What does the pubofemoral ligament connect?

A

Superior pubic ramus to anterior surface of femur (thickening of capsule)

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17
Q

What does the ischiofemoral ligament connect?

A

Posterior portion of acetabular rim (Ischium) to anterior surface of femur (thickening of capsule)

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18
Q

What 2 joints are within the knee?

A

Tibiofemoral joint (b/t tibia and femur) and patellofemoral joint (b/t patella and patellar surface of femur

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19
Q

What type of joint is the patellofemoral joint?

A

gliding joint (diarthrotic/free moving)

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20
Q

What type of joint is the tibiofemoral joint?

A

hinge joint (synovial)

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21
Q

What tissue are the menisci made of?

A

fibrous cartilage pads

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22
Q

Where are the menisci located?

A

b/t tibia and femur, lateral and medial sides

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23
Q

What are the 4 roles of the menisci?

A
  • cushion
  • conform to shape of articulating surfaces depending on movement of femur
  • increase surface area of tibiofemoral joint
  • provide lateral support
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24
Q

Where does the anterior curciate ligament (ACL) originate and insert? What does it prevent?

A

origin: anterior surface of tibia
insertion: lateral condyle of the femur
prevents the tibia from going forward

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25
Q

Where does the posterior curciate ligament (PCL) originate and insert? What does it prevent?

A

origin: anterior surface of medial condyle of femur
insertion: posterior side of tibia
prevents the tibia from going backwards

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26
Q

How many attachment sites does the PCL have?

A

2 on the posterior sites

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27
Q

What does the medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) connect?

A

Attaches from medial epicondyle of femur and medial proximal metaphysis of tibia

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28
Q

What does the lateral (fibular) collateral ligament (LCL) connect?

A

Attaches to epicondyle of femur and the fibula

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29
Q

What does valgus mean?

A

knocked-kneed

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30
Q

What does varus mean?

A

bow-legged

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31
Q

Where is the transverse ligament located?

A

b/t the menisci

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32
Q

Which tendon is above the patella?

A

Quadriceps tendon

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33
Q

What does the quadricep tendon become after being interrupted by the patella?

A

Patellar/patella ligament

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34
Q

What do the quadricep tendon and patella ligament support?

A

anterior surface of knee joint

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35
Q

What 2 muscles make up the iliopsoas?

A

Psoas major, iliacus

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36
Q

Psoas major

A

origin: anterior surface of thoracic/lumbar transverse processes
insertion: lesser trochanter
action: hip flexion
**sciatic nerve runs through/by

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37
Q

Iliacus

A

origin: iliac fossa
insertion: femur distal to lesser trochanter
action: hip flexion

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38
Q

sartorius

A

origin: ASIS
insertion: pes anserine
action: knee flexion/hip abduction/hip flexion, lateral rotation @ hip
**longest muscle in the body

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39
Q

tensor fasciae latae

A

origin: iliac crest/lateral surface of ASIS
insertion: iliotibial tract
action: knee extension/hip abduction/medial rotation @ hip
**indirectly support the knee

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40
Q

gluteus maximus

A

origin: Iliac crest, posterior gluteal line, lateral surface of ilium
insertion: Iliotibial tract (IT Band), gluteal tuberosity of femur
action: extension/lateral rotation at hip/hip abduction
**indirectly supports knee

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41
Q

Biceps femoris long head

A

origin: ischial tuberosity
insertion: head of fibula/lateral condyle of tibia
action: knee flexion/hip extension/ lateral rotation at hip

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42
Q

biceps femoris short head

A

origin: linea aspera of femur
insertion: head of fibula/lateral condyle of tibia
action: knee flexion/hip extension/lateral rotation at hip

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43
Q

semimembranosus

A

origin: ischial tuberosity
insertion: posterior surface of medial condyle of tibia
action: knee flexion/hip extension/medial rotation at hip

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44
Q

semitendonosus

A

origin: Ischial tuberosity
insertion: pes anserine
action: knee flexion/hip extension/medial rotation @ hip

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45
Q

gluteus medius

A

origin: anterior iliac crest/lateral surface of ilium
insertion: greater trochanter of femur
action: abduction/medial rotation of hip

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46
Q

piriformis

A

origin: anterolateral surface of sacrum
insertion: greater trochanter of femur
action: lateral rotation @ hip

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47
Q

superior gemellus

A

origin: ischial spine
insertion: medial surface of greater trochanter via obturator internus tendon
action: lateral rotation at hip

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48
Q

inferior gemellus

A

origin: ischial tuberosity
insertion: medial surface of greater trochanter via obturator internus tendon
action: lateral rotation at hip

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49
Q

obturator internus

A

origin: lateral/medial margins of obturator foramen
insertion: medial surface greater trochanter of femur
action: lateral rotation of hip

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50
Q

quadratus femoris

A

origin: lateral border ischial tuberosity
insertion: intertrochanteric crest of femur
action: lateral rotation at hip

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51
Q

adductor longus

A

origin: inferior ramus of pubis
insertion: linea aspera of femur
action: hip adduction/hip flexion

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52
Q

adductor brevis

A

origin: inferior ramus of pubis
insertion: linea aspera of femur
action: hip adduction/hip flexion

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53
Q

pectinius

A

origin: superior ramus of pubis
insertion: pectineal line
action: hip adduction/hip flexion

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54
Q

adductor magnus

A

origin: inferior ramus of pubis
insertion: linea aspera of femur
action: hip adduction (whole muscle)/ hip flexion (anterior)/ hip extension (posterior)

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55
Q

gracilis

A

origin: inferior ramus of pubis
insertion: pes anserine
action: knee flexion/hip adduction

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56
Q

What 4 muscles/ligaments make up the borders/floor of the femoral triangle?

A

lateral border: sartorius
medial border: adductor longus
superior border: inguinal ligament
floor: pectinius

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57
Q

What 4 muscles make up quadriceps femoris?

A

rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, vastus medialis

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58
Q

rectus femoris

A

origin: anterior inferior iliac spine/ superior acetabular rim of ilium
insertion: tibial tuberosity (via quadriceps tendon, patella, patellar ligament)
action: knee extension/hip flexion

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59
Q

vastus lateralis

A

origin: anterior/inferior to greater trochanter of femur/proximal half of linea aspera
insertion: tibial tuberosity via quadriceps tendon, patella, patellar ligament
action: knee extension

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60
Q

vastus intermedius

A

origin: anertolateral surface of femur/linea aspera (distal half)
insertion: tibial tuberosity via quadriceps tendon, patella, patellar ligament
action: knee extension
**deep

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61
Q

vastus medialis

A

origin: linea aspera of femur
insertion: tibial tuberosity via quadriceps tendon, patella, patellar ligament
action: knee extension

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62
Q

popliteus

A

origin: lateral condyle of femur
insertion: posterior surface of proximal tibial shaft
action: knee flexion

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63
Q

What kind of joint is the tibia and fibula?

A

syndemosis (connective tissue b/t bones)

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64
Q

What creates the lateral malleolus on ankle?

A

fibula

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65
Q

What creates the medial malleolus of ankle?

A

tibia

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66
Q

Which tarsal bone articulates with distal end of tibia?

A

Talus

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67
Q

Which tarsal bones create arch shape of foot?

A

Navicular, calcaneus, talus, medial cuneiform

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68
Q

What are the 3 arches of the foot?

A

transverse, medial longitudinal arch (more pronounced), lateral longitudinal arch

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69
Q

What does the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) connect?

A

talus to fibula

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70
Q

What does the posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL) connect?

A

talus to fibula

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71
Q

What does the calcaneofibular ligament connect?

A

Calcaneous to fibula

72
Q

What do the deltoid ligaments connect?

A

Tibia to tarsals

73
Q

Which bones make up the transverse arch?

A

Metatarsals

74
Q

fibularis (peroneus) longus

A

origin: head/proximal shaft of fibula
insertion: plantar surface of base of 1st metatarsal bone/medial cuneiform
action: eversion of foot/plantar flexion @ ankle

75
Q

fibularis (peroneus) brevis

A

origin: lateral surface of fibula
insertion: base of 5th metatarsal bone
action: eversion of foot/plantar flexion @ ankle

76
Q

Gastrocnemius medial/lateral head

A

origin: femoral condyles
insertion: calcaneus via calcaneal tendon
action: plantar flexion @ ankle/knee flexion

77
Q

soleus

A

origin: head/proximal shaft of fibula/posteromedial shaft of tibia
insertion: calcaneus via calcaneal tendon
action: plantar flexion @ ankle

78
Q

plantaris

A

origin: lateral supracondylar ridge (distal posterior shaft of femur)
insertion: posterior surface of calcaneus
action: plantar flexion @ ankle/knee flexion

79
Q

flexor hallucis longus

A

origin: posterior surface of fibula
insertion: inferior surface of distal phalanx of big toe
action: flexion at joints of big toe/plantar flexion @ ankle

80
Q

flexor digitorum longus

A

origin: posteromedial surface of tibia
insertion: inferior surface of distal phalanges toes 2-5
action: flexion at joints 2-5/plantar flexion @ ankle

81
Q

tibialis posterior

A

origin: interosseous membrane/shaft of tibia/fibula
insertion: navicular, all cuneiforms, cuboid, metatarsals 2-4
action: inversion of foot/plantar flexion @ ankle

82
Q

tibialis anterior

A

origin: lateral condyle/proximal shaft of tibia
insertion: base of 1st metatarsal/medial cuneiform
action: dorsiflexion @ ankle/inversion of foot

83
Q

extensor hallucis longus

A

origin: anterior surface of fibula
insertion: superior surface of big toe distal phalanx
action: extension at big toe joints/ dorsiflexion @ ankle

84
Q

extensor digitorum longus

A

origin: lateral condyle of tibia/anterior surface of fibula
insertion: superior surfaces 2-5 phalanges
action: extension toes 2-5/ dorsiflexion @ ankle

85
Q

fibularis (peroneus) tertius

A

origin: medial fibular shaft
insertion: dorsal surface of base of 5th metatarsal
action: dorsiflexion @ ankle/ eversion of foot

86
Q

extensor digitorum brevis

A

action: extension @ metatarsophalangeal joints of 1-4

87
Q

abductor hallucis

A

action: abduction @ metatarsophalangeal joints of big toe

88
Q

abductor digiti minimi

A

action: abduction/flexion @ 5th metatarsophalangeal

89
Q

flexor hallucis brevis

A

action: flexion @ big toe metatarsophalangeal joint

90
Q

What are the plexuses that innervate the lower body?

A

Lumbar, sacral

91
Q

What are the 2 main nerves that come from the lumbar plexus?

A

femoral N, obturator N

92
Q

What main nerve comes from the sacral plexus?

93
Q

What two nerves make up the sciatic nerve?

A

tibial N, common fibular N

94
Q

What are the 7 nerves needed to know?

A

sciatic N, tibial N, common fibular nerve, deep fibular N, superficial N, femoral N, obturator N

95
Q

What is the first artery in lower limb called before branching?

A

Common iliac a.

96
Q

What does the common iliac a. become after branching?

A

internal iliac a.

97
Q

What is the artery called once outside inguinal ligament?

A

external iliac a.

98
Q

What is the artery called below the inguinal ligament/inside femoral triangle?

A

femoral a.

99
Q

What does the femoral artery become once behind the knee?

A

Popliteal a.

100
Q

What does the popliteal a. split into?

A

posterior/anterior tibial a.

101
Q

Which vein is inside the femoral triangle?

A

femoral vein

102
Q

What are the 7 general structures of vertebrae?

A
  • body
  • spinous process
  • transverse process
  • articular process
  • vertebral foramen
  • vertebral arch
  • intervertebral foramen
103
Q

How many transverse processes per vertebrae?

104
Q

How many articular processes per vertebrae?

A

4; 2 superior, 2 inferior

105
Q

What structures make up the vertebral arch?

A
  1. pedicle- body to transverse process, thicker
  2. lamina- transverse process to spinous process, thinner
106
Q

What passes through intervertebral foramen?

107
Q

What passes through the vertebral foramen?

A

spinal cord

108
Q

What are the 3 special characteristics of cervical vertebrae?

A
  1. long, bifid spinous process
  2. small, oval body
  3. has transverse foramina
    **looks like sid the sloth
109
Q

What are the 3 special characteristics of C1/atlas vertebra?

A
  1. holds up skull, articulates w/ occipital condyles @ base of skull
  2. no body
  3. large articulating facets
    **allows yes motion of head
110
Q

What are the 2 special characteristics of C2/axis vertebra?

A
  1. pivot (synovial) joint
  2. process on posterior side (dens)
    ** allows for no movement of head
111
Q

What are the 4 special characteristics of the thoracic vertebrae?

A
  1. heart shaped body
  2. long, slender spinous process
  3. demifacets- where ribs articulate, 2/side
  4. articular surface on anterior side of transverse process
    **looks like a giraffe
112
Q

What are the 4 special characteristics of lumbar vertebrae?

A
  1. large oval body
  2. short blunt spinous process
  3. large blunt transverse process
  4. no articular facets or transverse foramen
    **side profile looks like a moose
113
Q

What are the 3 structures of the sacrum?

A
  1. sacral foramina- holes straight through bone (posterior to anterior)
  2. sacral canal- continuation of vertebral foramen
  3. Auricular surface- articulates w/ ilium
114
Q

Where do the ribs insert/originate?

A

origin: thoracic spine
insertion: sternum

115
Q

How many pairs of ribs? True? False?

A

12 pairs, 7 true pairs, 5 false pairs; 2 floating pairs

116
Q

What 2 structures are on the head of rib?

A

Articular surfaces and tubercle

117
Q

What is the angle of ribs in relation to head of rib?

A

Anterior and inferior to head of rib

118
Q

What do the articular surfaces on head of ribs and the tubercle articulate w/?

A

articular surfaces articulate w/ body of thoracic vertebra
tubercle articulates w/ transverse process of vertebra

119
Q

What are three parts of the sternum?

A
  1. manubrium
  2. body
  3. xiphoid process
120
Q

What is the clavicular notch?

A

Where the clavicles articulate w/ manubrium

121
Q

What is the sternal angle?

A

where the manubrium and body connect

122
Q

sternocleidomastoid

A

origin: sternal end of clavicle/ manubrium
insertion: mastoid process
action: together- neck flexion, alone- rotates neck to opposite side, laterally flexes neck to same side

123
Q

splenius capitis

A

origin: spinous processes/ligaments connecting cervical and thoracic vertebrae
insertion: mastoid process/occipital bone of skull/cervical vertebrae
action: extends neck (together)/rotates and laterally flexes neck to that side (alone)

124
Q

scalenes (anterior, middle, posterior)

A

origin: transverse processes of cervical spine
insertion: superior surface of rib
action: elevate ribs/neck flexion
anterior- laterally flexes and rotates neck to opposite side
middle/posterior- laterally flexes and rotates neck to same side

125
Q

quadratus lumborum

A

origin: iliac crest
insertion: rib/lumbrical transverse processes
action: depress ribs (together)/lateral flexion of vertebral column (alone)

126
Q

rectus abdominus

A

origin: superior surface of pubis
insertion: inferior surfaces of costal cartilages (ribs)/xiphoid process of sternum
action: depress ribs/flex vertebral column/compress abdomen
**each muscle seperated by tendinous inscription, split in half down midline by linea alba

127
Q

external oblique

A

origin: external/inferior borders of ribs
insertion: external oblique aponeuroses
action: compress abdomen/depress ribs/laterally flexes vertebral column to opposite side

128
Q

internal oblique

A

origin: inguinal ligament/iliac crest
insertion: inferior surfaces of ribs/costal cartilages/linea alba/pubis
action: compress abdomen/depress ribs/laterally flexes or rotates vertebral column to same side

129
Q

transverse abdominus

A

origin: costal cartilages/iliac crest
insertion: linea alba/pubis
action: compress abdomen

130
Q

what happens if internal/external obliques contract together?

A

cause lateral flexion on side that is contracting

131
Q

diaphragm

A

origin: xiphoid process of sternum/ribs and costal cartilages/anterior surfaces of lumbar vertebrae
insertion: central tendon sheet
action: contraction expands thoracic cavity, compresses abdominopelvic cavity

132
Q

external intercostals

A

origin: inferior border of each rib
insertion: superior border of more inferior rib
action: elevates ribs

133
Q

internal intercostals

A

origin: superior border of each rib
insertion: inferior border of more superior rib
action: depress ribs

134
Q

What is grey matter called in the spinal cord?

A

the horn (ventral (anterior), dorsal (posterior), lateral)

135
Q

What are the 3 plexi?

A

Cervical, lumbrical and sacral

136
Q

What is the center of the spinal column?

A

central canal

137
Q

What is the anterior exit of nerves from the spinal cord?

A

Ventral root

138
Q

What is the posterior exit of nerves from the spinal cord?

A

dorsal root

139
Q

Where are the ganglion, spinal cord?

A

enlargement of dorsal root

140
Q

What is the white matter of the spinal cord called?

A

Column (ventral, dorsal, lateral)

141
Q

What divides the spinal cord left and right?

A

Anterior median fissure (the crack), posterior median fissure (line)

142
Q

How many cranial and fascial bones are there?

A

cranial- 8, fascial- 14

143
Q

What are the 8 cranial bones, including pairs?

A
  1. frontal
  2. ethmoid
  3. sphenoid
  4. temporal (2)
  5. parietal (2)
  6. occipital
144
Q

What 2 structures can be found on the frontal bone?

A

frontal sinus, coronal sutures (seperate frontal and parietal bones)

145
Q

What 3 structures can be found on the ethmoid bone?

A
  1. olfactory foramina (ethmoid sinus)- tiny holes in cribriform plate)
  2. cribriform plate
  3. crista galli (part sticking up like a sail)
146
Q

What are the 4 structures found on the sphenoid bone?

A

1.sella turcica (turkish saddle, holds pituitary gland)
2. optic foramen (perfectly round hole, see when looking through eye socket at angle, medial and superior)
3. sphenoid sinus (posterior to frontal sinus, anterior to pituitary gland)
4. pterygoid process (pair of ridges on either side of vomer, inferior part of skull, posterior to roof of mouth

147
Q

What 3 structures can be found on the parietal bone?

A
  1. squamosal suture (more squiggly than other sutures, separates temporal from parietal and occipital)
  2. lambdoidal suture (separates parietal and occipital)
  3. sagittal suture (separates the 2 parietal bones)
148
Q

What 2 structures can be found on the occipital bone?

A
  1. foramen magnum (holds brain stem)
  2. occipital condyles (articulate w/ atlas)
149
Q

What 4 structures can be found on the temporal bone?

A
  1. mastoid process (bump behind ear)
  2. external acoustic (auditory) meatus (canal)
  3. internal acoustic (auditory) meatus (canal)
  4. zygomatic arch
150
Q

What are the 14 facial bones, including pairs?

A
  1. Mandible
  2. Vomer
  3. Maxillary (2)
  4. Zygomatic (2)
  5. Nasal (2)
  6. Lacrimal (2)
  7. Palatine (2)
  8. Inferior nasal conchae (2) **don’t need to know for exam
151
Q

What 3 structures can be found on the mandible?

A
  1. body (horizontal part with teeth)
  2. ramus (vertical part)
  3. angle (where it changes direction)
152
Q

What 2 structures can be found on the maxillary bones?

A
  1. palatine process (80% of roof of mouth)
    *if sticker on the roof of mouth asking for bone=maxillary, if asking for structure= palatine
  2. maxillary sinuses (space behind maxillary bones)
153
Q

What structure can be found on the zygomatic bones?

A

Zygomatic arch (cheek bone)

154
Q

What makes up the zygomatic arch?

A
  1. Temporal process of zygomatic bone (part of zygomatic bone “pointing” towards temporal bone)
    *if testing for, zygomatic side of suture asking for structure
  2. zygomatic process of temporal bone (part of temporal bone “pointing” to zygomatic bone)
    *if testing for, temporal side of suture asking for structure
155
Q

What structure is found on the lacrimal bones?

A

lacrimal sulcus (holds the tear duct, divet inside eye socket laterally/inferior to nasal bones)

156
Q

What structure can be found on the palatine bones?

A

horizontal plate
*will ask for structure if wanting this as answer
*suture splits palatine bone from palatine process/maxilla

157
Q

What forms the hard palate?

A

palatine process and palatine bone

158
Q

What are the folds of the brain called?

159
Q

What are the structures of the cerebrum?

A
  1. cerebral hemispheres (2)
  2. frontal lobe
  3. temporal lobes (2)
  4. parietal lobes (2)
  5. occipital lobe
  6. insula (grey matter within brain, within temporal lobe)
160
Q

Central sulcus (of Rolando)

A

only fold that lines up horizontally, separates frontal and parietal lobes

161
Q

Longitudinal fissure

A

splits the 2 hemispheres

162
Q

Lateral cerebral sulcus (of sylvius)

A

splits temporal and parietal lobes

163
Q

precentral gyrus

A

in front of central sulcus (in frontal lobe)

164
Q

postcentral gyrus

A

behind central sulcus (in parietal lobe)

165
Q

What makes up the diencephalon?

A

Thalmus, hypothalamus, pineal gland, pituitary gland

166
Q

What makes up the mesensephalon?

A

cerebellum, pons, medulla oblongata, midbrain

167
Q

What makes up the cerebellum?

A

Arbor vitae (tree of life) and cerebral peduncles (looks like music note)

168
Q

What connects the cerebellum to the brain stem?

A

Cerebral peduncles (superior, inferior, middle)

169
Q

What are the 2 main cranial nerves?

A

Olfactory (smell) n. and optic (sight) n.

170
Q

What are the ventricles of the brain?

A

Lateral (2), third and fourth

171
Q

Interventricular foramen

A

joins lateral ventricles and 3rd ventricular

172
Q

cerebral aqueduct

A

connects 3rd and 4th ventricle

173
Q

central canal

A

4th ventricle to spinal cord

174
Q

What are the 4 sections/names of the aorta?

A
  1. ascending
  2. arch of aorta
  3. descending aorta
  4. abdominal aorta
175
Q

how many lobes does the right lung have?

176
Q

How many lobes does the left lobe have?

177
Q

What is the air pathway when breathing?

A
  1. nasal cavity
  2. larynx
  3. pharynx
  4. trachea
  5. bronchi

KIN 100 (2 decks)

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