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REHS > Kimura Questions - Diseases > Flashcards

Kimura Questions - Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Define an epidemic?

A

Epidemic refers to an increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in that population in that area, “outbreak” can also apply.

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2
Q

Define an endemic, epizootic, sporadic and pandemic?

A

Endemic: a disease that is regularly occurring within an area or community.
Epizootic: Disease of animals. It can be in epidemic proportions but humans practically never develop an epizootic disease.
Sporadic: isolated incidence of a disease.
Pandemic: this is a disease that exists throughout a wide area, such as the cities, countries or the world.

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3
Q

Fully describe the hepatitis virus?

A

Hepatitis means inflammation of the liver caused by a virus leading to a range of heath problems that can be fatal.

Hep A: transmitted via fecal oral route, often through food items contaminated from sewage outfall. 15-50 day incubation period.

Hep B: transmitted via blood inoculation, often through sharing of needles/syringes. Incubation period 45-160 days.

Hep C: same shit as hep B. Of all hep types, hep A is the most infectious. Overall HBV is not a deadly virus if treated.

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4
Q

What is legionella pneumophila?

A

AKA legionnaires disease. Reservoir: Unknown, believed to stem from soil like environments. Air conditioners and other cooling equipment often impacted and spread though moist air. Symptoms: fever, chills, cough and abdominal pains, diarrhea. 15% fatality rate. “Pontiac Fever” in children.

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5
Q

Describe the Anthrax organism?

A

Bacillus anthracis is a spore forming bacteria that can survive in the ground and can survive very dry soil temperature conditions for many years. “Wool sorters disease”. Infection can be from inhalation of the spores, or through cuts and abrasions on the human. Or ingestion of an improperly cooked meal. Disease not transmitted from man to man.

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6
Q

Fully describe the plague bacteria?

A

Plague is caused by the bacteria Yersinia pestis, a zoonotic bacteria usually found in small mammals and their fleas. People infected with Y. pestis often develop symptoms after an incubation period of one to seven days. There are two main clinical forms of plague infection: bubonic (not contagious) and pneumonic (contagious).

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7
Q

Describe the different immune systems the human body can acquire.

A

Natural:
- Active: from an infection.
- Passive: maternal transfer (placenta) of antibodies (body acquired).

Artificial:
- Active: inoculation of killed agent or its products. The body reacts to the agent building antibodies. Example: vaccination (i.e., small pox).
- Passive: inoculation of antibodies or immune serum (artificial).

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8
Q

Describe the disease Tularemia?

A

Tularemia, also known as “rabbit fever,” is a disease caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. Symptoms depend on route of entry. If entered through skin will cause lymph nodes to swell and possibly ulcers. If inhaled then respiratory problems will ensue.

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9
Q

What is Cholera?

A

Cholera is an infection of the small intestine by some strains of the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. It is a bacterial disease usually spread through fecally contaminated water. Cholera causes severe diarrhea and dehydration. Man is the only reservoir.

Gram negative organism that survives in aerobic and facultative anaerobic environments. Toxin produced is heat labile enterotoxin.

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10
Q

Fully describe the Coxiella bacteria.

A

Coxiella burnetii (Rickettsia Burnetii) is an intracellular gram negative rod shaped bacterium that causes acute and chronic Q fever. It lives in cattle, sheep, goats, ticks and some wild animals. The bacteria can be transmitted through airborne contact as well as direct contact with animal wool, straw or fertilizer and the laundry of exposed persons. RAW MILK from infected cows is another source and improperly pasteurized dairy. Proper heating inactivates or kills the organism. The organism is considered the most heat tolerant pathogen, therefore, it is used as a biological indicator in the pasteurization of milk.

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11
Q

What animals are commonly implicated with Rabies? Describe the
disease.

A

Dogs, bats, skunks, warm blooded animals.

Rabies is an acute fatal viral disease also known as hydrophobia or acute encephalitis. A break in the skin is the common mode of transmission (animal bite; rabid saliva) but it can also be contracted through the inhalation of bat urine (rare). The disease causes headaches, fever, paralysis, spasms in the throat, saliva flows out (foaming at the mouth) referred to as “hydrophobia”. In its later stages, the virus attacks the CNS. The disease is 100% fatal but can be prevented if caught before clinical symptoms arise (3-6 week incubation), a cure is not guaranteed. Duck Embryo Vaccine (DEV) and Rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) are treatments. Negri bodies inside the brain will indicate the presence of the virus.

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12
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

An infection acquired at a hospital or healthcare facility that was not present during the time of admission. Staphylococcus Aureus and Streptococcus A. are examples.

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13
Q

What is known as the veterinarian disease?

A

Brucellosis (Undulant Fever, Bangs Disease, Kennel Cough). Domestic cattle, swine and wild caribou (reindeer) can be the main reservoir. (MILK)

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14
Q

What causes SCABIES?

A

Sarcoptes Scabei, a MITE. Burrows into skin and deposits eggs.

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15
Q

A person who has the disease but does not show symptoms is called?

A

Asymptomatic; Carrier

E.g. Typhoid Mary (“Mary doesnt carry”)

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15
Q

Infectious hepatitis is a disease which affects what human organ?

A

Liver

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16
Q

What are some common fecal-oral diseases?

A

E. Coli
Campylobacter Jejuni
Giardia
Hepatitis A
Salmonella
Shigella
Ascaris
Amebiasis
Cholera

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17
Q

What bird disease affects man?

A

PSITTACOSIS CHLAMYDIA; Parrot Fever

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18
Q

What are some common bacterial organism you will find on the skin?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus
Streptococcus A.
Fungi

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19
Q

What respiratory disease is associated with overcrowding housing?

A

Tuberculosis

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20
Q

What human disease is associated with brucellosis?

A

Undulant Fever

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20
Q

What disease can be implicated when a rat inhabits a food preparation area?

A

Leptospirosis

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21
Q

In the past, how was leptospirosis detected and why?

A

UV Light because the contaminated rat urine would fluoresce making it detectable. It was found however, that grease also fluoresced under UV light, giving a false positive result so they stopped using it as a method to detect it.

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22
Q

Scarlet fever and bovine mastitis is caused by this bacterial organism.

A

Streptococcus Pyrogenes

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23
Q

What is the path called when a disease is introduced into a human body?

A

Portal of Entry

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24
Q

What has the Legionnaires organism been classified as?

A

Gram negative rod causing a severe type of pneumonia.

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25
Q

Describe the intrinsic and extrinsic aspects of disease causation.

A

Intrinsic: Internal factor that you cannot control like age, sex, race, and genetic factors.

Extrinsic: External factors to the body that you can control like personal habits, nutritional state, psychological stress.

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26
Q

Give some examples of social environmental conditions which may lead to disease.

A

Religion
Occupation
Education
Customs
Socio economic status
Marital status
Place of residence

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27
Q

What is the synergistic, multiplicative, additive and accelerated effects of disease causation?

A

Synergistic: Two or more chemicals produce an effect different than either chemical produces alone.

Multiplicative: Two or more chemicals that produce an effect several times greater than that produced by either chemical alone.

Additive: Two chemicals that produce an effect approximately twice that of either chemical alone

Accelerated: One chemical enables or enhances the toxic effect of another chemical.

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28
Q

What is considered the most common occupational disease?

A

Dermatitis

29
Q

Define communicable disease.

A

Communicable diseases are those diseases that are transferable from one host to another (an infectious agent). Communicable
diseases occur in different phases and areas. Some diseases are not communicable or it can be communicable to certain living life
forms.

30
Q

What are some examples of common routes of exposures for humans.

A
  1. Flies (an excellent vector to spread disease).
  2. Hands (fingers).
  3. Water (untreated sources).
  4. Food.
31
Q

What are the 4 classification of diseases?

A

Acute
Chronic
Communicable
Non communicable

32
Q

Define infection.

A

Occurs when the infectious agent invades the animal or human tissue.

33
Q

Describe the 4 types of infections.

A

Bacterial
Viral
Parasitic
Plants (fungal)

34
Q

Describe the 3 types of symptoms.

A

Clinical (Symptomatic)
Carrier (Asymptomatic)
Subclinical (Incubation period)

35
Q

Describe the types of mode of infections.

A

Reservoir: Ideal location where organisms can live and multiply.

Direct contact: Spread of organism via touching, cuts, scrapes, kissing.

Indirect contact: Spread of organisms via fomites, contaminated objects harboring infectious agents.

Vehicle: How the infectious agent gets transported; food, water, milk, other biological products to host.

36
Q

What is the portal of entry, and how many does the human have?

A
  1. The skin (the body’s largest organ; dermatitis).
  2. The oral and digestive system (The second most common route of infection).
  3. The respiratory system (The most common route of infection).
  4. The eyes.
  5. Injections (“accidental, e.g., needle sticks)
37
Q

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

A

Active: Formed by the body that builds immunity
Passive: Received from others or another source

38
Q

What disease causes swelling of the brains tissue?

A

Encephalitis

39
Q

What vector is responsible for yellowfever?

A

Mosquito - Aedes Egypti

40
Q

Describe the cholera disease.

A

Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection caused by ingestion of food or water contaminated with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.

41
Q

Coxiella burneti can be a pasteurization control bacteria, why?

A

Because it is the most heat tolerant pathogen.

42
Q

Describe the LYMES disease.

A

A tickborne (Ixodes - Deer tick) spirochital zoonotic disease characterized by the skin lesion that forms (bullseye). the lesions are accompanied by malaise, fatigue, fever, headache, stiff neck, muscular pain, joint pain, or inflammation of the lymph nodes. These symptoms can last several weeks and may come before the skin lesions.

43
Q

Giardia can be spread by what means? How can you control it?

A

Drinking contaminated water, especially from mountain streams or lakes. Fecal orally of cysts from the infected individuals.

Proper hygiene practices in institutions and day cares where small children are cared for. The sanitary disposal of feces must be carefully monitored. The public water supplies must be protected from contamination. The organism can
pass through through certain water treatment sand filters (rapid and slow rate sand filters). Emergency water supplies should be boiled and then treated with chlorine or iodine. For chlorine, 4 to 5 drops of chlorine to a liter of water should be applied. For iodine, 0.5 ml per liter of water is recommended. The water should stand for at least 20 minutes before consumption. If the water temperature is cold, then the standing time period should be lengthened.

44
Q

What is one of the most common waterborne diseases caused by freshwater snails?

A

Schistosomiasis

45
Q

What are the cooking precautions for Trichinella.

A

Meats should be cooked at 137F-171F for 15 minutes or until the pink meat is a grey/white color. Alternatively, cold storage at -13F or lower for 10 days or longer. At 0F storage time should be 20 days or longer.

46
Q

Explain the beef or pork tapeworm infection.

A

Taeniasis; Taenia solium (pork), Taenia saginata (beef).

The larval forms develop in the animal flesh (beef or pork) and the infection starts by the consumption of raw or inadequately cooked
infected meat or by fecal oral route. The adult worm develops in the intestines. Human infections can also result from the direct
contamination of infected feces (viable eggs in the feces) to mouth. Cysticercosis is the larval infection stage.

47
Q

Can Enterobiasis can be spread to other animals?

A

No, it infects only man.

48
Q

Name the type of fleas and the diseases commonly associated with them.

A

Oriental rat flea: Plague, Rickettsia Prowazekii (endemic fleaborne typhus; Murine Typhus)

49
Q

What vector is responsible for Lymes disease?

A

Ixodes sp.; Deer tick

50
Q

What are fomites?

A

Contaminated inanimate objects harboring infectious agents

51
Q

River blindness is a result of what type of fly? Where do they commonly lay their eggs?

A

The bite of an infected female black fly. They lay their eggs in swift moving streams.

52
Q

What disease does the deerfly commonly transmit?

A

Tularemia (rabbit or deerfly fever)

53
Q

What disease is the blackfly associated with and where do they lay their eggs?

A

Onchocerciasis or River Blindness. They lay their eggs in swift moving streams.

54
Q

What is the most common mosquito-borne disease in the U.S.A. today?

A

West Nile Virus

55
Q

The common reservoir for rabies is?

A

Warm blooded animals.

56
Q

What is the vector for the plague?

A

Oriental rat flea (xenophylla spp.)

57
Q

What vector is responsible for the Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Dermacentor Andersonii - Deer/wood tick

58
Q

What vector is responsible for the epidemic typhus?

A

Body Lice (Pediculus Humanus)

59
Q

What vector is responsible for the Filariasis?

A

(Wucheria)

Caused by the bite of a infective Culex, Aedes and Anopholes mosquito harboring the infective larvae.

60
Q

Describe the A.I.D.S. virus and why is it so deadly?

A

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome is a severe bloodborne disease that can render a human bodies immune system and central nervous system defenseless whereas a common opportunistic infections can become a fatal infection. It is the most advanced stage of Human Immunodeficiency Virus. Death commonly results from opportunistic infections such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia or a rare cancer can develop known as Karposi sarcoma and other infections. The fatality rate for most populations indigenous to the disease is between 80 to 90%.

61
Q

Fully describe the Staphylococcus organism.

A

Staphylococcus is a genus of Gram-positive spherical bacteria that forms in grape like clusters. Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is probably the most common cause of food intoxication incidence. The contaminator is usually the food worker. Staphylococcus ~ or Staph. for short, is primarily found on humans. It is found in the oral, nasal and dermal areas of the human body. It is commonly found at skin irritations such as cuts, boils, pimples and the nasal passages. It is a
non-competitive organism. It avoids competition with other bacteria for space on food. Spoiled raw foods usually don’t have Staph.
on it. It usually prevails on cooked foods.

62
Q

Explain in detail the difference between food intoxication and food infection.

A

Intoxication (No fever: Bacterial food intoxications is a chemical reaction which produces illness symptoms from bacteria that produce chemical toxins. Usually does not produce fever because the toxin is acted immediately upon the body and does not give the body a chance to kick in their defense mechanisms.

Infection (Fever): Bacterial foodborne infections are infections carried by the food product. In some instances, food infection bacteria are not supported by the food product. The bacteria simply ride on the food until it is ingested by the human and begins to grow. Fever is caused by the body to fight off the infection, such as the case for a cold or flu infection.

63
Q

What is known as the cafeteria bacteria?

A

Clostridium Perfringens

64
Q

What pathogenic bacteria is commonly implicated in picnic’s, salads and custard pies?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

65
Q

Explain the Clostridium perfringens bacteria.

A

AKA Cafeteria bacteria. A spore forming anaerobic bacteria usually found in prepared meat products (or frijoles; refried beans) as their multiplying grounds. Releases an exotoxin that is heat labile. Causes nausea, ab cramps and diarrhea. Strives at temps of 65-120 F. pH 5-8.3. A gram positive, spore forming rod. Intoxication. Control method: proper cooling methods.

66
Q

Fully describe the BOTULISM organism.

A

Clostridium botulinum. Gram Positive, Rod shaped organism, spore forming and ubiquitous in the soil, classified as an intoxication. 60-100 F ideal temp. Produces an exotoxin, and commonly implicated in canned foods. The toxin is one of the most toxic poisons naturally produced. There are two important types: A (most common) and E (found in the intestinal tract of man and fish). Highly fatal. Control method: Proper canning methods.

67
Q

Fully describe the SALMONELLA organism and its symptoms.

A

A rod shaped, non-spore forming, gram negative bacteria. Common source: Fecal matter, rat, dog and cat’s feces. Commonly implicated in poultry and egg products and meat. Bacteria is heat labile; dies at 130 F. Symptoms include nausea, fever from infection, vomiting and diarrhea. Transmission: cross contamination, poor hygiene. Not very fatal. Control: proper personal hygiene and sanitation practices.

68
Q

What is the meaning of the term Heat Labile and Heat Stable. Give the bacterial examples which this phenomena occurs.

A

Heat labile: hot temperatures alters the chemical effect. The toxin deactivates and becomes harmless; e.g. clostridium botulinum.

Heat Stable: hot temperatures DO NOT alter the chemical effect. Stays toxic even after prolonged heating; e.g. staphylococcus aureus.

69
Q

How can you prevent the botulism poison from poisoning someone?

A

Thorough cooking and boiling will detoxify the toxin.

70
Q

The most common foods associated with salmonella food poisoning outbreaks are?

A

Poultry, egg, and meat products

71
Q

What is the danger zone for food bacteria?

A

41F to 135F

72
Q

What are the different levels of the scientific classification system?

A

Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species

REHS (3 decks)

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