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Adults Exam 2 > Kidney & Urinary Tract Function > Flashcards

Kidney & Urinary Tract Function Flashcards

1
Q

How many times per hour does total blood supply circulate through the kidneys?

A

12 times per hour

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2
Q

how many liters of blood does the kidney receive per minute?

A

1.2-1.3 L

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3
Q

what percent of Cardiac output goes the kidney pump?

A

25%

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4
Q

what 3 parts is the kidney divided into? briefly describe if necessary

A
  1. cortex
  2. medulla (middle)
  3. pelvis (inner part; threads down the urine into the ureters)
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5
Q

function of the afferent arteriole

A

supplies glomerulus w blood

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6
Q

function of the efferent arteriole

A

drains blood from the glomerulus

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7
Q

describe the nephron & its function

A

“the mall” of the kidney; fine tuning of where urine is created; functional unit of the kidney

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8
Q

about how many nephrons is each kidney composed of?

A

1 million

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9
Q

list & describe the roles of the 2 different types of nephrons

A
  1. Cortical (80%-85%): excretory & regulatory
  2. Juxtamedullary (15%-20%): concentration & dilution
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10
Q

glomerulus
- what is it & where is it located?
- function

A
  • specialized capillary loops at the beginning of the nephron
  • site of filtration; first process in urine formation
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11
Q

what is the rate of blood flow determined by?

A

BP

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12
Q

explain the meaning of glomerurular filtration rate (GFR)

A

how fast the kidney is filtering (volume of plasma filtered from the glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule each minute)

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13
Q

what is a normal GFR? what percentage of it is cardiac output?

A

125 ml/min; 20%-25% is CO

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14
Q

where is the site of reabsorption in the kidney?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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15
Q

where is the site of loop diuretic action in the kidney?

A

ascending Loop of Henle

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16
Q

where is the site of thiazide diuretic action in the kidney?

A

distal convoluted tubule & collecting duct

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17
Q

list 7 functions of the kidneys
“A WET BED”

A

A: acid-base balance
W: water balance
E: electrolyte balance
T: toxin removal
B: blood pressure control
E: erythropoietin
D: vitamin D metabolism

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18
Q

what is the function of the RAAS? which drugs work here?

A

regulates blood flow to the kidneys, BP, & GFR
ACE & ARB drugs work here!

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19
Q

list the 3 aldosterone functions & what this leads to

A

holds onto sodium, H2O follows sodium, releases K+ = increasing blood volume

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20
Q

list the 3 parts of the tubules

A
  1. proximal convoluted tubule
  2. ascending loop of Henle
  3. Distal convoluted tubule & collecting duct
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21
Q

what is the max capacity the bladder can hold? what is the acceptable amount of post void residual?

A

400-500 mL
<100 ml = acceptable post void residual

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22
Q

how many cm long are both female & male urethras?

A

females: 3-5 cm
males: 20 cm

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23
Q

when does a decline in kidney function typically begin?

A

35-40 years of age

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24
Q

list 5 age related changes in the kidneys

A
  1. glomerular sclerosis
  2. decreased blood flow
  3. decreased GFR
  4. altered tubular function
  5. acid-base imbalance
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25
Q

list 4 things a patient could be at risk for if they have age related changes in their kidneys

A
  1. adverse drug effects
  2. hypernatremia
  3. fluid volume imbalances
  4. urinary tract infections
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26
Q

urinalysis (UA) / urine culture (C & S)

A

urine in cup

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27
Q

BUN
- normal range
- what does it measure?

A

normal range: 10-20
measures the nitrogen in blood

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28
Q

creatinine
- normal range
- what does it measure?

A

normal range: 0.7-1.4
best indicator of how the kidneys are functioning (clearing waste products)

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29
Q

GFR
- normal range?
- what does it measure?

A

normal range: 125 ml / min
best indicator of how kidneys are filtering!

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30
Q

24 hour creatinine clearance
- what does it compare?
- what must a nurse have from the patient?

A

compares how much creatinine is in your blood w how much is in the urine
nurse must collect urine for 24 hrs

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31
Q

what does HGB & HCT help to diagnose R/T kidneys?

A

kidney function

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32
Q

which part of the kidneys are electrolytes cleared by?

A

tubules

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33
Q

what is the normal range for specific gravity?

A

1.005-1.025

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34
Q

what does protein in the urine indicate?

A

damage to the glomerulus

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35
Q

what does glucose in the urine indicate?

A

blood sugars are crazy high

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36
Q

what do ketones in the urine indicate?

A

could be a sign of diabetic kedoacidosis; body begins to tear itself down to give nourishment

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37
Q

what do RBCs in the urine indicate?

A

indicates if there is a UTI

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38
Q

what do WBCs & bacteria in the urine indicate?

A

indication of infection

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39
Q

what does leukocyte esterase show?

A

shows inflammation in the urinary tract

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40
Q

what does a renal angiography diagnostic test show?

A

indicates a blood clot; tells how much blood flow is getting to the kidneys

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41
Q

list 2 pre test interventions for a renal angiography

A
  1. kidney function
  2. hydration to encourage excretion
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42
Q

post test interventions for a renal angiography

A

monitor for bleeding

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43
Q

list 3 complications from a renal angiography

A
  1. hematoma
  2. damage to kidneys from dye
  3. blood clots
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44
Q

what should a patient be educated on after getting a renal angiography?

A

if still bleeding after 3 days, call MD!

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45
Q

what is a renal biopsy? what does it help diagnose? what is a patient usually given w this?

A

needle is stuck through back into the kidney; helps diagnose cancer or kidney failure; patient usually given a local anesthetic

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46
Q

what is a pre test nursing intervention for a renal biopsy?

A

look at clotting times; be sure patient is not at high risk for bleeding

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47
Q

list 5 post procedure interventions for a renal biopsy

A
  1. bleeding
  2. monitor BP & HR
  3. make sure patient is urinating properly
  4. if there is still blood in urine after 96 hours, call MD!
  5. adequate fluid intake
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48
Q

what should a patient be educated on after getting a renal biopsy?

A

if still bleeding after day 3, call MD!

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49
Q

what is a cystoscopy? how can this be helpful?

A

scope is threaded up urethra to view both urethra & bladder; can sample stones or a part of the kidney

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50
Q

what is a pre nursing intervention before a cystoscopy?

A

UA must be done before to be sure urine is clean

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51
Q

what is a post nursing intervention after a cytoscopy?

A

monitor for urinary retention

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52
Q

list 2 complications after a cytoscopy

A
  1. burning & painful urination
  2. blood tinged urine
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53
Q

what is an intravenous pyelography (IVP)?

A

tells the shape & size of kidneys; xray but w dye to see things better

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54
Q

what are 2 pre nursing interventions for an intravenous pyelography?

A

make sure they have an IV & that the patient is hydrated

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55
Q

what is a post procedure nursing intervention for an intravenous pyelography?

A

adequate fluid hydration to flush dye out

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56
Q

what 2 things should we educate the patient on after an intravenous pyelography is done?

A
  1. adequate fluid hydration
  2. call doc if bleeding 3 days or after
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57
Q

what can an ultrasound show?

A

shows shape of kidney & can reveal a mass or tumor

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58
Q

what is a KUB?

A

(Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder): like x-ray w out dye

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59
Q

what is an AKI?

A

acute kidney injury; sudden onset / reversible

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60
Q

list 4 causes of AKI

A

prerenal (before kidneys due to low blood volume), intrarenal (inside of the kidneys due to infection or short term damage because of dye), post-renal (after the kidneys), & nephrotoxins

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61
Q

list 2 s/sx of AKI

A

increase in BUN & creatinine, decrease in GFR

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62
Q

what is the goal for a patient who has AKI? list 4 interventions

A

keep patient alive until renal lesion heals! give pt fluids, short term hemodialysis, look at meds (avoid nephrotoxic ones), & watch electrolytes

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63
Q

what is CKD?

A

chronic kidney disorder (kidney damage or decrease in GFR > 3 months) ; slow progression / irreversible!

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64
Q

list 2 causes of CKD

A

diabetes & HTN (from repetition of pounding on glomerulus)
- most causes are unknown

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65
Q

what is the goal for a patient w CKD?

A

slow or prevent progression of failure w dialysis or transplant

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66
Q

list 6 risk factors for developing CKD

A

diabetes (primary cause), HTN (second leading cause), glomerulonephritis / pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney, heredity / congenital, renal cancers

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67
Q

list 6 s/sx of CKD

A

elevated serum creatinine & BUN, electrolyte abnormalities, anemia, metabolic acidosis, fluid retention, HF

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68
Q

list 4 interventions for CKD

A

renal diet, control HTN, control glucose levels, assess medications

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69
Q

what is a renal diet & what is the goal?

A

low protein, low potassium, low sodium (high causes HTN), low phosphorus
- fluid restriction in late stages (may be 1000-1500 ml/day)
goal: to decrease production of metabolism wastes & regulate electrolytes

70
Q

list 8 sources of high K+

A

salt substitutes, potatoes (unless dialyzed), oranges & OJ, bananas, prune juice, tomato, dried beans & lentils, nuts, chocolate, coconut

71
Q

list 8 sources of high phosphorus

A

milk, milk products, fish, chicken & beef liver, legumes, whole grain breads & cereals, peanut butter, colas

72
Q

list 5 types of meds that are considered nephrotoxic

A

ACE inhibitors (-prils), common antibiotics (Aminoglycosides), thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide), furosemide, NSAIDS

73
Q

list 6 nursing interventions / education for renal cancer patients

A

comfort measures, tube / drain management, assess incision (feel underneath patient), I’s & O’s*, coughing & DB

74
Q

list 3 tx options for renal cancer

A

surgery, radiation, chemotherapy (biologic response modifiers & immunotherapy
or combo of them all!

75
Q

list 4 diagnostic tests for renal cancer

A

physical exam, labs (CBC, BUN, creatinine), UA, x-rays (cystoscopy, renal biopsy: need actual tissue sample, ultrasound, CT scan

76
Q

where is renal cancer commonly found? what is it associated w?

A

commonly found in the renal pelvis & ureters; associated w bladder cancer

77
Q

when is renal cancer usually found & why?

A

usually found at the late stage due to one kidney functioning properly & picking up all the work from the other one

78
Q

list 4 tx options for glomerulonephritis

A

reduce inflammation w corticosteroids, immunosuppressive agents (stop clumps from forming), diuretics / antihypertensives, dietary restrictions (renal diet)

79
Q

list 4 nursing considerations for a pt w glomerulonephritis

A

monitor weight, I’s & O’s, vitals, & maintain fluid & electrolyte balance (usually on heart monitor as well)

80
Q

list 4 things that glomerulonephritis can be diagnosed w

A

UA, lab results (increased BUN & creatinine), elevated strep titer, decreased GFR

81
Q

list 6 s/sx of glomerulonephritis

A

hx of strep infection, periorbital & generalized edema (anasarca), edema, hematuria (cola colored urine), hypertension, azotemia (build up of toxins in the blood; gives itchy skin & neoemic frost)

82
Q

list 4 risk factors / causes of glomerulonephritis

A

strep infection, scarlet fever, pneumococcal infections, staphylococcal infections, SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)

83
Q

explain the pathophysiology of glomerulonephritis

A

antigen antibody complexes get trapped in the glomeruli after injection (can be acute or chronic)

84
Q

what is glomerulonephritis?

A

inflammation & increased cells in the glomeruli in both kidneys caused by an abnormal immune response

85
Q

which lab value would you expect to find after dialysis?

A

decreased BUN

86
Q

list 6 peritoneal dialysis nursing interventions

A

monitor “dry weight”, assess vital signs, assess catheter insertion site, assess fluid color & consistency, record amount of dwell removal & amount instilled (normal to have more out than in), patient / family education

87
Q

list 7 long-term problems from peritoneal dialysis

A

abdominal hernias, hiatal hernias, hypovolemia / hypervolemia, hyperglycemia, pain, respiratory distress, self concept

88
Q

list 3 acute complications of peritoneal dialysis

A

peritonitis: inflammation of the peritoneum; comes from bacteria introduced into the peritoneal cavity* (s/sx: abdomen pain, fever, abnormal urine color), bleeding, & leaking (3 L of fluid in slowly)

89
Q

list 7 advantages of peritoneal dialysis

A

steady state blood chemistries, convenience, patient / family can be taught process, fewer dietary restrictions, more control over daily life, can be used for hemodynamically unstable patients, circulatory system remains intact

90
Q

how does peritoneal dialysis work?

A

peritoneal cavity via a catheter placed in
the abdomen using the peritoneum as the dialyzing membrane

91
Q

what is the difference between continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis & continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis?

A

continuous ambulatory peritoneal: patients can be mobile
continuous cyclic peritoneal: plugs into machine while patient is sleeping; it’ll suck out fluid overnight (seen in many children & younger populations)

92
Q

what medication should be avoided when a patient is on hemodialysis??

A

magnesium-based antacids (mylanta)

93
Q

list 8 common medications in which a hemodialysis patient is on

A

erythropoietins, vitamin D analogs, renal vitamins, calcium & phosphate binders, iron replacement, electrolyte modifiers, anti-hypertensives, anticonvulsants

94
Q

which med should not be given before dialysis?

A

anti-hypertensive

95
Q

what is an electrolyte modifier in which patients that are on hemodialysis commonly take?

A

Kayexalate (poops out potassium)

96
Q

list 6 nursing considerations of hemodialysis

A

monitor “dry weight” - goal weight after dialysis, access vital signs (esp BP), monitor diet / fluid intake, pre dialysis meds, patient / family education

97
Q

what are meds that CAN be given before dialysis?

A

nausea meds, insulin if diabetic

98
Q

list 7 complications of Hemodialysis

A

hypotension due to loss of fluid, N/V, hemorrhage, muscle cramps, infection, cardiac dysrhythmias (esp. K+ & phosphorus), disequalibrium syndrome (risk for seizures!)

99
Q

when must a patient start dialysis?

A

in the ESKD stage or stage 5 kidney failure

100
Q

how does ESKD affect fluid / electrolyte imbalances?

A

increased Na leading to HF, K+ retention leading to hyperkalemia, high phosphorus & high calcium leading to fractures, lack of RBC leading to anemia

101
Q

how do labs change post dialysis?

A

decrease in weight, K+, phosphorus

102
Q

difference between an AV fistula & synthetic graft

A

AV fistula: sew vein & artery together
synthetic graft: plastic placed to strengthen up vessels because of the poking

103
Q

what 3 things MUST be assessed if a patient has an AV fistula?

A

bruit & thrill, radial pulse, & capillary refill

104
Q

how long should a synthetic graft be kept in for?

A

should not be used >14 days

105
Q

what is a high risk w a synthetic graft if not sutured in place?

106
Q

what is important if a patient’s synthetic graft is placed in femoral area?

A

pt. should not be up in a chair due to possibility of rupturing a vessel

107
Q

what is the most common nosocomial infection?

108
Q

what is the second most common infection in the body ?

109
Q

how are UTIs classified?

A

complicated & uncomplicated

110
Q

list the 3 types of upper urinary tract infections & describe them

A

Pyelonephritis: inflammation of the renal pelvis
Nephritis: inflammation of the kidney
Renal abscesses

111
Q

list the 3 types of lower urinary tract infections & describe them

A

Cystitis: inflammation of the urinary bladder
Prostatitis: inflammation of the prostate
Urethritis: inflammation of the urethra

112
Q

describe pyelonephritis

A

bacterial infection of the renal pelvis, tubules, and interstitial tissues in the kidneys of one or both kidneys (can be acute or chronic)

113
Q

describe the pathophysiology of pyelonephritis
- what is it associated with?
- what are nephrons replaced by in chronic infection?

A
  • associated w abscesses, obstructions, and tumors
  • nephrons are replaced by scar tissue in chronic infection
114
Q

list 5 possible causes of pyelonephritis

A
  1. E-coli infection
  2. renal calculi
  3. malignancy
  4. catheter / cystoscopy
  5. BPH
115
Q

list 7 ACUTE symptoms of pyelonephritis

A
  1. high fever / chills
  2. leukocytosis
  3. bacteriuria
  4. pyuria
  5. low back / flank pain
  6. cloudy . bloody, foul smelling urine
  7. painful urination
116
Q

list 4 CHRONIC symptoms of pyelonephritis

A
  1. may have no symptoms
  2. may have fatigue, HA, poor appetite, polyuria, excessive thirst, & wt. loss
  3. less painful
  4. discovered when HTN is being evaluated
117
Q

list 4 ways pyelonephritis can be diagnosed

A
  1. symptoms
  2. labs
  3. UA / C & S
  4. radiology
118
Q

list 8 nursing interventions for pyelonephritis

A
  1. vital signs
  2. I’s & O’s
  3. maintain fluid balance & electrolyte balance
  4. antibiotic therapy
  5. analgesics (phenazopyridine)
  6. antispasmodics
  7. increase fluid intake (3-4 L/day)
  8. renal diet
119
Q

describe cystitis

A

inflammation in the lining of the urinary tract caused by bacteria
“bladder infection”

120
Q

what is the most common type of UTI?

121
Q

what type of common bacteria is cystitis associated w?

A

E. Coli (80%)

122
Q

list 5 risk factors for cystitis

A
  1. inability to empty bladder completely
  2. obstructed urinary flow
  3. instrumentation of the urinary tract
  4. inflammation or abrasion of the urethral mucosa
  5. poor hygiene practices
123
Q

list 5 symptoms of cystitis

A
  1. pain
  2. burning
  3. bladder spasms
  4. frequency
  5. atypical for elderly
124
Q

list 3 diagnostic tools used for cystitis

A
  1. UA / C & S
  2. CT scan
  3. US
125
Q

which 3 types of medications are used to treat cystitis?

A
  1. antibiotics
  2. antispasmodics
  3. analgesics
126
Q

list 5 nursing interventions for cystitis

A
  1. strict aseptic technique w catheter insertion
  2. instruct on proper perineal hygiene
  3. I & O’s
  4. force fluids (3-4 L / day)
  5. educate
127
Q

list the 2 main types of urinary incontinence

A

stress incontinence & urge incontinence

128
Q

what are 5 possible causes of urinary incontinence in the elderly?

A
  1. UTI
  2. constipation
  3. medications
  4. decreased estrogen levels
  5. diabetes
129
Q

list 5 diagnostic tools used for urinary incontinence

A
  1. history
  2. I’s & O’s
  3. radiologic tests
  4. residual urine checks
  5. UA / C & S
130
Q

list 6 tx/nursing interventions for urinary incontinence

A
  1. electrical stimulation
  2. medications (oxybutynin, tolterodine)
  3. bladder training / timed voiding
  4. kegel exercises
  5. surgery
  6. fluid & dietary changes
131
Q

describe urolithiasis / nephrolithiasis

A

presence of a stone anywhere in the urinary tract / kidneys

132
Q

what can stones in the urinary tract / kidneys be composed of?

A

calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, or uric acid

133
Q

what percentage of stones in the urinary tract / kidneys are calcium based?

134
Q

list 9 risk factors of urolithiasis / nephrolithiasis

A
  1. men 30-50 years of age
  2. previous history
  3. dehydration
  4. living in “Stonebelt”
  5. diet high in purines
  6. UTI’s
  7. neurogenic bladder
  8. immobilization / sedentary lifestyle
  9. medications (esp. calcium supplements)
135
Q

list 10 S/Sx of urolithiasis / nephrolithiasis

A
  1. ***PAIN, PAIN, PAIN!!! in the flank area
  2. HTN
  3. Hematuria
  4. Urine retention, frequency, urgency
  5. pyuria
  6. fever / chills
  7. diaphoresis
  8. pallor
  9. N/V
  10. Oliguria / anuria
136
Q

list 2 ways to diagnose urolithiasis / nephrolithiasis

A
  1. UA
  2. Radiologic testing (CT, IVP)
137
Q

list 7 nursing interventions for urolithiasis / nephrolithiasis

A
  1. analgesics & NSAIDS
  2. antispasmodics (oxybutynin)
  3. antihyperurecemics (allopurinol)
  4. I’s & O’s
  5. strain urine
  6. antibiotics
  7. diet therapy
    - ** increased fluid intake*
    - avoid causative foods (calcium, purines, uric acid)
138
Q

list 4 tx procedures for urolithiasis / nephrolithiasis

A
  1. stent placement
  2. percutaneous lithotripsy
  3. extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
  4. open removal (rare)
    - ureterolithotomy
    - cystolithotomy
    - pyelolithotomy
139
Q

list 6 post procedural interventions for urolithiasis / nephrolithiasis

A
  1. manage pain
  2. monitor fluid / electrolyte balance
  3. monitor S/Sx of infection
  4. monitor kidney function
  5. assess urine / strain
  6. educate on possibility of bruising in the flank area for ESWL
140
Q

what age & gender is bladder cancer common in?

A

> 55 years of age; more common in men

141
Q

list 3 risk factors of bladder cancer

A
  1. tobacco use
  2. toxins
  3. family history
142
Q

list 3 s/sx of bladder cancer

A
  1. painless hematuria
  2. frequency, urgency, & dysuria
  3. changes in voiding patterns
143
Q

list 2 ways bladder cancer can be diagnosed

A
  1. radiologic
  2. Biopsy
144
Q

list 3 treatment options for bladder cancer

A
  1. cystectomy
  2. radiation therapy
  3. chemotherapy
145
Q

describe an ileal conduit

A
  • most common, permament urinary diversion
  • urine flows freely through stoma to a pouch
146
Q

describe a cutaneous ureterostomy

A

ureters are brought out to skin in one or more stomas

147
Q

describe a continent urostomy

A
  • ureters drain into reservoir that has a valved stoma
  • the stoma is cathed to remove urine
148
Q

list 5 pre-op / patient education of expectations for urinary diversions

A
  1. changes in body image
  2. show stoma pouches
  3. activities
  4. exercise, diet, clothing
  5. discuss site of ostomy
149
Q

list 5 post op / patient education for urinary diversions

A
  1. assess stoma site
  2. monitor I’s & O’s
  3. monitor for S/Sx of stoma obstruction
  4. education
  5. ostomy nurse
150
Q

list 4 complications of urinary diversions

A
  1. stoma ischemia / necrosis
  2. infection
  3. stoma - irritation - yeast infection
  4. skin breakdown
151
Q

describe benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
- who is it common in?

A

enlargement of the prostate gland (squeezes urethra so urine cannot pass through)
- men primarily over 40 years

152
Q

list 8 s/sx of BPH

A
  1. frequency / hesitancy
  2. hematuria
  3. inability to empty the bladder completely
  4. post void dribbling
  5. anuria
  6. bladder distention
  7. enlarged, firm, non elastic feeling upon digital exam
  8. elevated PSA
153
Q

describe a PSA (prostate-specific antigen) assay
what is normal?

A

blood work; enzyme that is released by the prostate
higher number = prostate enlarged
normal: <2.6

154
Q

list 5 diagnostic tools used for BPH

A
  1. digital rectal exam
  2. PSA
  3. Transrectal ultrasonography
  4. CT / MRI
  5. cystoscopy
155
Q

how do alpha 1 adrenergic blockers treat BPH?
list the 2 meds

A

relax smooth muscle of the prostate, bladder neck, & proximal urethra; block enzymes
1. doxazosin
2. tamsulosin

156
Q

how do alpha reductase inhibitors treat BPH?
list the med

A

slow production of DHT; stops growing prostate
1. finasteride

157
Q

describe a transurethral heat ablation

A

shoots heat waves up into urethra & kills prostate tissue
minimally invasive

158
Q

describe a transurethral incision of the prostate

A

incisions are made into the prostate so the urethra can expand more

159
Q

describe a prostatic stent

A

holds everything open; does not work as well because it can slide out

160
Q

prostate cancer is most common in what two types of ethnicities?

A

North American & north-western European men

161
Q

which population is at the highest risk & twice as likely to die from prostate cancer?

A

African American men

162
Q

list 7 risk factors for prostate cancer

A
  1. increases w age (60s)
  2. African American men at higher risk
  3. family history
  4. diet high in saturated animal fat
  5. vitamin D deficiency
  6. occupational risks (working w chemicals)
  7. high levels of testosterone
163
Q

what is considered an abnormal digital rectal exam for prostate cancer?

A

firm & nonelastic

164
Q

what age do screenings for prostate cancer usually begin?

165
Q

what can also be done during an ultrasound guided TRUS?

A

grabbing a biopsy as well

166
Q

list 9 s/sx of prostate cancer

A
  1. dysuria
  2. nocturia
  3. hematuria
  4. frequency
  5. abnormal prostate on digital exam
  6. bone pain, back pain, nerve pain
  7. bowel & bladder dysfunction
  8. weight loss
  9. fatigue
167
Q

list 4 diagnostic tests used to diagnose prostate cancer

A
  1. subjective s/sx
  2. prostate specific antigen, DRE
  3. TRUS exam
  4. tissue biopsy
168
Q

describe hormone deprivation therapy

A

androgen deprivation therapy; limits hormones & slows down growth of prostate

169
Q

what is an orchiectomy?

A

removal of the testicles; takes away 95% of testosterone which feeds the growth of the prostate

170
Q

list 7 complications of prostate cancer treatment

A
  1. hemorrhage
  2. infection
  3. venous thromboembolism
  4. catheter problems
  5. erectile dysfunction
  6. urinary incontinence
  7. urethral stricture (tightening)
171
Q

what is a transurethral resection of the prostate? (TURP)

A

goes into urethra & scraps out prostate tissue

Adults Exam 2 (4 decks)

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