Key Facts Flashcards

1
Q

The transfer of PURE risk in consideration for a premium

A

insurance

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2
Q

The chance of loss without any chance of gain

A

Pure Risk

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3
Q

risk with the possibility for gan or loss and is NOT insurable

A

Speculative Risk

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4
Q

The Chance of loss

A

risk

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5
Q

a condition that could result in a loss

A

exposure

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6
Q

something that increases the chance of loss

A

hazard

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7
Q

The presence of a physical _______ increases the chance of a loss occuring.

A

hazard

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8
Q

a cause of loss, such as a fire

A

peril

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9
Q

To be insurable, losses myst be _______

A

calculable

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10
Q

the law of ________ allows insurers to predict claims more accurately

A

large numbers

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11
Q

The more people in the group, the more accurate the predictions are. (applies to groups of people, not individuals)

A

the law of large numbers

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12
Q

Most insurers buy ______ to protect themselves in the event of catastrophic loss.

A

resinsurance

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13
Q

True or False: Insurance laws are required to be uniform from one state to another.

A

False

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14
Q

A type of insurer that may pay dividends to its shareholders.

A

stock insurer

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15
Q

stock payouts from a stock insurer _____ guaranteed.

A

are not / may not be

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16
Q

An insurance company that s managed by an attorney-in-fact

A

reciprocal

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17
Q

An unincorporated association of individuals who insure each other

A

reciprocal insurer

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18
Q

The _______ offers insurance primarily based upon social needs, such as flood insurance and workers compensation, but does not offer insurance for the purpose of preventing fraud.

A

government

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19
Q

An insurance company who has their home office in another state

A

foreign

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20
Q

An insurer incorporated outside of the U.S. who sells insurance in the U.S.

A

Alien

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21
Q

A _____ may be personally liable when violating the producer’s contract.

A

producer

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22
Q

Represents the insurance company, not the insured.

A

producer

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23
Q

Own their own accounts and are not insurance company employees

A

independent producers

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24
Q

Producers have _____, ______, and ______ authority

A

express, implied, apparent

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25
Q

The authority a producer has that is written in his or her contract.

A

express

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26
Q

A producers binding authority (if any) is ______ (written dwn) in the producer’s contract with the ______ the producer represents

A

expressed / insurer

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27
Q

The authority no expressly (written) granted, but is actual authority the producer has to transact normal business activities

A

implied authority

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28
Q

Elements of a legal contract (COAL)

A

consideration, offer, acceptance, legal purpose and capacity

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29
Q

Offer and acceptance, or mutual agreement is required for a __________

A

valid contract

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30
Q

Advertising the availability of insurance is considered to be an offer. True/False

A

False

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31
Q

A specific and definite proposal to enter into a contract.

A

Offer

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32
Q

The consideration on a policy need not be ____

A

equal

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33
Q

A policy may not be ____ due to unequal consideration.

A

voided

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34
Q

under what clause must something of value be exchanged

A

consideration clause

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35
Q

Because insurance contracts are contracts of ____, policy ambiguities always favor the insured.

A

adhesion

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36
Q

Insurance policies are considered to be _____ contracts, in that only one party makes an enforceable promise to the insurer.

A

unilateral

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37
Q

States that the purpose of insurance is to restore the insured to the same position as before the loss occured.

A

principle of indemnity

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38
Q

States that all parties to an insurance transaction are honest

A

principle of utmost good faith

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39
Q

the truth to the best of one’s knowledge

A

representation

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40
Q

a sworn statement of truth, guaranteed to be true

A

warranty

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41
Q

a breach of warranty may ____ a contract

A

void

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42
Q

the failure to disclose a material fact

A

concealment

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43
Q

When an insurer voluntarily gives up the right to obtain information that they are entitled to

A

waiver

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44
Q

Insurance covers what two types of perils

A

accident and sickness

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45
Q

covers both on-and-off the job injuries (for those not covered by workers comp)

A

occupational coverage

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46
Q

covers off the job injuries only (for those covered by workers comp)

A

Non-occupational coverage

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47
Q

A policy that will pay the capital sum for loss of a limb, in addition to any medical insurance coverage that may apply.

A

AD&D

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48
Q

________ insurance will pay an insured’s car payments if the insured is sick or injured and cannot work.

A

credit disability

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49
Q

Policies that do not require individual applications, nor are certificates of insurance issued to those covered

A

blanket policies

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50
Q

a disability policy that may be written to cover passengers on a common carrier, an employee group, student group, debtor group or sports team.

A

blanket policy

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51
Q

True / False: Health insurance underwriters may discriminate based on an applicant’s health history.

A

True

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52
Q

An application must be ________ and will become a part of the policy when?

A

in writing / when issued

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53
Q

If an application is approved and a policy is issued, the producer must collect the _____ along with a statement of ____________

A

premium, statement of continued good health

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54
Q

Health insurance underwriters often order an ____________ report in order to determine an applicant’s current medical condition.

A

attending physician’s

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55
Q

Issuing a ________ starts coverage right away if all conditions have been satisfied.

A

conditional receipt

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56
Q

Mandatory provisions such as grace period protect the _______. Optional provisions, such as probationary periods, protect the _________

A

insured, insurance company

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57
Q

Except for fraud, health insurance policies are incontestable after they have been in force for ____

A

2 years

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58
Q

True or False; the probationary period is different from the time limit on certain defenses provision (incontestability)

A

True

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59
Q

The max. probationary period is usually ______ and the incontestability provision is usually _______

A

12 months / 2 years

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60
Q

Under this clause, the company may contest a claim for the first 2 years, but not thereafter unless i can prove fraud.

A

Incontestability clause

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61
Q

The incontestability clause protects whom?

A

insurance company

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62
Q

Insurance companies are reluctant to charge fraud since is requires _______ and is difficult to prove.

A

proof of intent

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63
Q

The time limit of certain defenses clause is another name for what?

A

The incontestability clause

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64
Q

If a reinstatement application is required, an _____ is reinstated when the company says or after ______, whichever comes first.

A

insured; 45 days

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65
Q

When an insured is reinstated, a ______ probationary period starts for ______ only

A

45 day, sickness

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66
Q

If no reinstatement application is required, an insured is reinstated effective when?

A

upon payment of the late premium to either the company or the producer.

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67
Q

Under what provision, if a claim is not paid immediately the claimant must wait how many days before filing a lawsuit for failure to pay?

A

legal actions, 60 days

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68
Q

Health insurers should pay individual claims as soon as possible, as specified in what provision?

A

Timely payment of claims

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69
Q

provision that allows the claims dept time to investigate. (Max time ____ days.)

A

timely payment of claims, 60

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70
Q

Claims may be denied if they occur after _______

A

policy expiration

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71
Q

Insurers do not have to pay _______ claims

A

unsubstantiated

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72
Q

After receipt of notice of a claim the insurer must do what?

A

Send out claim forms

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73
Q

If claims forms are not provided by the insurer within the time frame required, the insured can do what?

A

Submit proof of loss in writing

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74
Q

Which provision allows the insurer to change the benefit amount or premium should the insured change occupations during the coverage period?

A

change of occupation

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75
Q

Under the misstatement of age clause, is is the _____ that are adjusted, not the ______

A

benefits / premiums

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76
Q

Principle that prevents an insured from collecting more than they actually lost

A

principle of indemnity

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77
Q

A clause found in most disability income policies which requires insurers to share a claim proportionately

A

insurance with other insurers

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78
Q

If an insured pays the overdue premium on a lapsed health insurance policy and does not hear from the insurer, the insured is automatically reinstated in ________

A

45 days

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79
Q

What provision states that if an insured has a claim in the grace period, the insurer may subtract the overdue premium for the amount of the claim paid.

A

unpaid premium provision

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80
Q

under the unpaid premium provision, if an insured has a claim in the grace period, the insurer may subtract the overdue _______ from the amount of the claim paid.

A

premium

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81
Q

A cancellable health insurance policy may be canceled by whom?

A

The insurer or the insured

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82
Q

______ must be refunded to an insured who was canceled midterm.

A

unearned premium

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83
Q

a _____ refund is sent when the company cancels. A _____ refund is sent when the insured cancels.

A

pro-rata / short-rate

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84
Q

What effect will canceling have on an unpaid claim.

A

no effect

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85
Q

Which provision would allow an insurer to deny coverage if the insured became injured or died while committing a felony?

A

illegal occupations

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86
Q

a health insurance policy that can be non-renewed by the insurer at the end of any policy period

A

optionally renewable

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87
Q

a policy where the insurance company cannot change the coverage or the rates, but it does not have to offer renewal

A

noncancellable policy

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88
Q

With a noncancellable policy the insurance company does not have to offer renewal but it cannot change ____ or ____

A

rates / coverage

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89
Q

if a policy is _____ and ______ the company cannot change anything and it must offer renewal

A

noncancellable and guaranteed renewable

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90
Q

a policy where the insurance company cannot change the coverage, but it can change the rates by class (not individually)

A

guaranteed renewable

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91
Q

a guaranteed renewable policy is renewable at the option of the ______ (by paying the premium) up to a certain age (usually ____), but the insurer may change ____ by class.

A

insured, 65, rates

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92
Q

a policy that must be renewed if the insured meets the specified conditions

A

conditionally renewable

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93
Q

the typical definition of total disability on a disability income policy states that the insured is considered to be totally disabled if the insured cannot perform his or her own job for ________, and any job that the insured is suited to do thereafter.

A

2 years

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94
Q

Those collecting disability income insurance benefits may be required to take a physical exam every _____ at the _____ expense in order to prove they are still diabled.

A

6 months, insurers

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95
Q

Those who suffer from ____ disabilities, such as loss of eyesight, are not required to take a physical exam in order to prove they are still diabled.

A

presumptive

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96
Q

The primary purpose of ______ is replacement of lost wages, should the insured become disabled

A

disability income insurance

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97
Q

The most important factor to consider when writing disability income insurance is what?

A

The amount of wages that could be lost

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98
Q

On a disability income policy , a longer elimination (waiting) period will do what to the premium.

A

reduce

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99
Q

Like a deductible, but stated in terms of time rather than in dollars

A

waiting period

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100
Q

in disability the Waiting period starts when?

A

onset of disability

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101
Q

Short-term disability policies have ____ elimination and benefit periods than long-term disability

A

shorter

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102
Q

If a disability income policy has a 7 day elimination period and the insured is sick for 15 days, the insured would receive benefits for how many days.

A

8 days

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103
Q

The probationary period starts when?

A

When the policy is first issued.

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104
Q

a prior injury that reoccurs again. The elimination (waiting) period is _____

A

recurrent disability, waived

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105
Q

a disability that never goes a way

A

residual

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106
Q

Residual coverage pays the difference between what?

A

What you used to make and what you can make now.

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107
Q

If a disability policy contains an ______ means clause, there is no coverage if an insured is injured doing what?

A

something they meant to do

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108
Q

If a disability contains this clause, coverage applies as long as the injury was unintentional and unforseen.

A

accidental bodily injury clause

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109
Q

a rider on a disability income policy that allows the insured to purchase additional coverage at certain intervals, regardless of health.

A

guaranteed purchase option

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110
Q

a rider on a disability income policy that is designed to keep the policy limit up with the rate of inflation

A

cost of living

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111
Q

group disability income is written to cover a ____ of an employee’s gross earned income

A

percentage

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112
Q

GROUP disability income is written to cover only a percentage of an employee’s ________

A

percentage

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113
Q

INDIVIDUAL disability income is written to cover only a percentage of an insured’s ________

A

net (after tax) income

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114
Q

indemnifies the business for the loss of services of a key employee due to disability

A

key person

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115
Q

will cover the ongoing expenses of a self-employed person, such as rent or salaries, while the sole proprietor is disabled. _____ are tax deductible, but ______ are taxable

A

business overhead insurance ; premiums; benefits

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116
Q

a disability buy/sell policy could be structured to pay a monthly benefit to a coporation for up to ______ while waiting to see if a disabled person recovers. If not, then _____ is paid as a partnership buyout.

A

1 year, lump-sum

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117
Q

OASDHI stands for what

A

old age, survivors, disability and health insurance

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118
Q

acronym for social security

A

OASDHI

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119
Q

social security disability income benefits are ____ to obtain than benefits provided by private disability income insurers

A

harder

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120
Q

To have a fully insured status under social security for disability benefits, a worker must have contributed to social security for at least _____ quarter ( ___ years)

A

40 / 10

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121
Q

a disabled person must have what in order to be eligible for social security disability benefits

A

fully-insured status

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122
Q

The waiting period for social security disability benefits is ___

A

5 months

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123
Q

Social security disability benefits require that a disabled person cannot _____ and that the disability is expected to last _____ or ______

A

work ANY job; at least 1 year; result in death

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124
Q

Major medical insurance is considered to be a ______ plan

A

comprehensive

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125
Q

The purpose of _______ is to eliminate unnecessary treatment, thereby _____ premiums.

A

preadmission certification / lowering

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126
Q

Medical expense policies are required to cover the insured’s newborn child from _____

A

the moment of birth

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127
Q

On medical expense insurance, the scheduled benefit limit shows _____________.

A

The most that the insurer will pay

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128
Q

The term health care service organization (HCSO) may be used in place of the term _______

A

HMO - health maintenance organization

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129
Q

makes referrals, authorizes treatment, provides general care, and acts as the gatekeeper between members and their healthcare providers

A

HMO Primary Care Physician

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130
Q

Health care service organizations (HCSOs) stess _________

A

preventive care

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131
Q

HCSO’s pay reimbursements directly to the _____, not to the _____

A

provider / insured

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132
Q

When a doctor works in an independent group clinic on behalf of an HCSO is is known as what

A

a group practice model

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133
Q

HMO primary care physicians may include thos in family practice, pediatrics, obsterics, and gynecoogy, but not _____

A

internists

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134
Q

True / False; HMO’s usually dont cover adult hearing exams as a preventive care service

A

True

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135
Q

Except for ______, HMO must be provided in-network

A

emergencies

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136
Q

HMOs cover out-of-network emergency treatment without ________, although providers must ______ after the treatment has been rendered.

A

pre-authorization, notify the HMO

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137
Q

The term managed care includes medical services provided by HMO’s, PPOs and POS (point-of-service) plans, but does not include _______.

A

Indemnity plans

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138
Q

medical expense claims are often paid on a _______ basis

A

fee for service

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139
Q

______ policies often have a comprehensive calendar year deductible.

A

major medical expense

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140
Q

In utilization management, pre-certification is different than a concurrent review because ______ is done prior to treatment.

A

pre-certification

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141
Q

______ expense plans cover in-hospital only, with first dollar coverage. There is no ______ or ______ but coverage is subject to ______ (maximum) limits

A

Basic Medical, deductible, coinsurance, inside

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142
Q

_______ and _________ plans have deductibles and coinsurance requirements.

A

Major medical, comprehensive major medical (not basic)

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143
Q

The stop loss feature on a major medical policy applies after the insured ________.

A

pays the deductible

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144
Q

The stop loss feature, limits the amount of _______ the insured has to pay on a large claim

A

coinsurance

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145
Q

Medical expense policies are usually written as _______ which means the company can cancel at anytime as long as it gives _________

A

cancellable, advance notice

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146
Q

medical expense policies usually contain a _______ period that applies to pre-existing conditions, meaning they wont be covered if…. _____

A

probationary, they occur during this period

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147
Q

limits the total amount the family must pay during the year no matter how many family members become sick or injured

A

family deductible

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148
Q

assignment of benefits provision Facilitates claims handling by allowing the insurer to pay benefits directly to ______

A

the provider

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149
Q

When calculating how much the company will pay on a claim, always subtract the _______, first then apply the ______ percentage

A

deductible, coinsurance

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150
Q

PPO subscribers who go out of network for services will receive _______ benefits

A

reduced

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151
Q

To encourage an insured who is covered by POS plan to seek coverage in network, out of network coverage is often subject to _________ deductibles

A

higher deductibles

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152
Q

on medical expense plans a mandatory _________ requirement will result in fewer claims

A

second opinion

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153
Q

a carry-over deductible applies to claims that occur during _________ of the calendar year.

A

the last 3 months

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154
Q

the carry over from a carry over deductible carries over and applies to the next year’s ________

A

deductible

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155
Q

on noncontributory group plans ____ % of eligible employees must enroll.

A

100

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156
Q

On contributory group plans, usually ____ % of the eligible employees must enroll.

A

75

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157
Q

group participation requirements are designed to help prevent _____

A

adverse selection

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158
Q

a group insurance contract is between the _____ and the _______

A

employer, insurance company

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159
Q

In group insurance, the employer is issued a ______ policy and employees are issued individual ________

A

master policy, certificates of insurance

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160
Q

The state in which a group contract is ________ is generally held to have jurisdiction over all certificates of insurance issued under the contract.

A

delivered to the policyholder

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161
Q

Group underwriting takes into consideration the ______ of the group, the _____ of the group, and ______ factors.

A

age, health, persistency

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162
Q

Group coverage must be written for the benefit of _________ and cannot discriminate in favor of ________ workers

A

employees, highly paid

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163
Q

although there are strict regulatory requirements related to what an insurer can and cant do in regard to small group Insurance, an insurer ______ legally nonrenew or cancel a small group plan if the employer _______________.

A

can; stops paying the premium

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164
Q

offers group coverage employers in the same industry

A

METs (multiple employer trusts)

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165
Q

association group insurance has higher ________ than other types of group health insurance and is more subject to ________

A

administrative costs; adverse selection

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166
Q

dependents are elibible to enroll in a group plan when an employee _______

A

becomes eligible to enroll

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167
Q

employees ________ for group coverage even after attaining age 65

A

remain eligible

168
Q

True/False; employers who have 20 employees are required to offer the same health benefits to employees and their spouses who are age 65 or older that they offer to younger employees.

A

True

169
Q

Under _____ employers with 20 or more employees must allow terminated employees and their dependents to continue their group coverage by paying 102% of the group rate.

A

COBRA

170
Q

True/False; When an employee elects COBRA, the coverage is exactly the same as it was in the group. It is not reduced in any way.

A

Truth

171
Q

under cobra, The maximum period of coverage continuation for termination of employment or a reduction in hours of employment is ________

A

18 months

172
Q

under cobra, The dependents of a deceased or disabled employee may continue group coverage for another _____ months

A

36

173
Q

Qualifying events include. D—–, D—–, t of E

A

Death, disability, termination of employment

174
Q

If an employee elects to continue group coverage under COBRA, the employer may still convert to an individual policy without a _________when Cobra coverage ends.

A

physical exam

175
Q

In dental insurance, it would create an _________ situation for an insurer to offer more than one open enrollment period during the year

A

adverse selection

176
Q

To prevent adverse selection, most dental insurance is written on a _____ basis

A

group

177
Q

Dental insurance has ________ on diagnostic and preventive care

A

no deductible

178
Q

Dental insurance covers _________ care, such as fillings, inlays and crowns

A

restorative

179
Q

Dental insurance covers endodontics services, such as ________

A

root canals

180
Q

Dental insurance covers ____ problems, which is known as periodontics

A

gum

181
Q

Under dental insurance ________ includes bridgework.

A

prosthodontics

182
Q

The treatment of problems related to growth and development of the jaw using fabricated appliances, most often braces.

A

orthodontics

183
Q

On an integrated medical/dental plan, the deductible may be satisfied by either _____ or ______ expenses

A

medical, dental

184
Q

Dental ______ plans may be written as either scheduled (basic) or non-scheduled (comprehensive)

A

indemnity

185
Q

_____ dental insurance plans have first-dollar coverage, without a _____ or ______

A

basic, deductible, coinsurance

186
Q

_______ dental plans are similar to major medical expense plans, with a deductible and coinsurance

A

comprehensive

187
Q

True/False: Dental insurance may also be written as a prepaid service plan in the same manner as an HMO

A

True

188
Q

True/False: Most dental insurance plans cover cosmetic dentistry

A

false

189
Q

True/False: certain persons under age 65, who are disabled or have suffered kidney failure are also eligible for medicare

A

true

190
Q

On medicare, the difference between what the doctor bills and what medicare pays

A

excess charge

191
Q

Medicare Part A covers

A

Hospitals

192
Q

Medicare Part B covers

A

Doctors

193
Q

Medicare part A only pays for up to ______ days of inpatient psychiatric hospital services during the beneficiarys lifetime.

A

190 days

194
Q

Medicare part A cover skilled nursing facility care after a ______ minimum hospital stay, but not _____ care in a nursing home

A

3 day, custodial

195
Q

Medicare Part A covers a skilled nursing facility stay for up to _____ days in each benefit period

A

100

196
Q

Part ____ Medicare is partially funded by user premiums

A

B

197
Q

Medicare Part ___ has coinsurance (80/20) and a deductible

A

B

198
Q

The medicare part B is calculated as a percentage of Medicare’s _______, not the amount the doctor charges.

A

approved amount

199
Q

Medicare Part ___ has a premium, coninsurance, and a deductible which have amounts that are set how often?

A

B, Annually

200
Q

In medicare Part B the amount paid by social security is dependent upon the ____ of the insured

A

PIA - primary insurance amount

201
Q

Those who enroll in part C of Medicare do not need to purchase a ________

A

medicare supplement

202
Q

medicare Part C

A

medicare advantage

203
Q

Part ____ is the part of medicare that provides managed care

A

C

204
Q

In order to be eligible for Part D medicare, one must be enrolled in medicare Part ___, or in parts ___ and ____

A

A, A and B

205
Q

Part D Medicare covers ___

A

Rx (D for drug)

206
Q

Medicare supplements are sold by _____ companies and their agents

A

private insurance

207
Q

There is a ___ month open enrollment period for buying a medigap policy

A

6

208
Q

True or False: persons age 65 or older cannot be denied medigap coverage for health problems during open enrollment

A

True

209
Q

True or False: Medicare supplement plans are required to be approved by medicare

A

False

210
Q

Only ______ medigap plans may be offered

A

standard

211
Q

Medicare supplements are required to cover Medicare’s part A and B ______ and the first ____ pints of blood transfusion as basic or ____ benefits

A

coinsurance, 3, core

212
Q

True/False: it is unlawful to sell someone more than one medigap policy

A

True

213
Q

The max probationary period on medicare supplements policies is ___ months

A

6

214
Q

When selling a medicare supplement, agents must give out an outline of coverage no later than ________ and must obtain signed ____ from the applicant.

A

the time of application, receipt

215
Q

Medicare supplements have a ___ day free look period

A

30

216
Q

True / False: replacing one medicare supplement policy is permitted as long as it is not detrimental to the insured.

A

True

217
Q

True/False: Medicare supplement policies need to contain guidelines for medicare eligibility

A

false

218
Q

Medicaid eligibility is based upon _______. is there an age limit?

A

financial need. No

219
Q

Medicaid is funded by ____, local, and ____ monies

A

state, federal

220
Q

Medical welfare, available to low-income individuals and families.

A

Medicaid

221
Q

When an insured needs care, but not 24-hour care supervised by a doctor, the insured needs ______

A

Long term care

222
Q

Long Term care policies have a ____ day free look period

A

30

223
Q

Long term care insurance is underwritten based upon the applicant’s ability to perform _____

A

ADLs (activities of daily living)

224
Q

____ include mobility, dressing, bathing, toileting, eating.

A

ADLs

225
Q

True/False: LTC policies must cover alzheimers disease

A

True

226
Q

True/False: LTC insurance covers acute care

A

false

227
Q

True/False: LTC policies may not condition benefits on a prior hospital stay.

A

True

228
Q

______ include coverage for physical therapy, nursing care, home health aides, and homemaker services

A

LTC home health care services

229
Q

LTC coverage which covers meals, meaningful activities, and general supervision of adults in a professionally staffed non-residential facility

A

adult daycare

230
Q

LTC coverage that allows family members a reprieve or break from their caregiving responsibilities

A

Respite Care

231
Q

The period of time that a long term care policy will provide custodial care in a nursing home

A

benefit period

232
Q

LTC policies usually pay a ________ per day, while an insured is confined to a custodial nursing home.

A

fixed amount

233
Q

________ coverage includes home health care, adult day care, and hospice care.

A

optional LTC

234
Q

LTC rider that will refund some or all of the insured’s premiums to the insured’s estate or beneficiary if the insured dies prior to the age of 65

A

return of premium

235
Q

Insurers who write LTC insurance are usually required by state law to allow the insured to name a ______ who the insurance company would contact if the insured forgets to pay the premium

A

third party

236
Q

LTC insurers must include coverage for inflation protection unless the applicant _________

A

rejects it in writing

237
Q

______ may exclude pre-existing illness, acute care, mental disorders, alchoholsim, drug addiction, war related illness and self-inflicted injuries, but may not exclude alzheimers disease

A

LTC Policies

238
Q

True/False: on qualified LTC policies, insureds may add a nonforfeiture benefit.

A

True

239
Q

True or false: premiums for individual disability income or AD&D policies are tax deductible.

A

False

240
Q

Premiums paid on an individual disability income policy are or are not tax deductible? Benefits paid are taxable or tax free?

A

are not, tax free

241
Q

A self-employed sole proprietor may tax deduct ____ of the premiums paid for medical expense insurance.

A

100%

242
Q

True/False: Individual health insurance benefits are not taxable.

A

True

243
Q

Premiums paid for individual medical expense and qualified LTC insurance are tax deductible to the extent that they exceed 10% of an individuals ______

A

AGI - Adjusted gross income

244
Q

On group disability income insurance, if the employer pays 60% of the premiums, what percentage of the benefits payable would be taxable to the employees

A

60%

245
Q

If an employee pays 100% of the premium for group diesability income insurance, how many of the benefits paid are taxable?

A

none

246
Q

Premiums paid by an employer for a group health policy (such as medical expense or disability income) are or are not tax deductible, since they are fringe benefits for the employees.

A

are tax-deductible

247
Q

On group accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) insurance, benefits are or are not taxable if the employee pays the premium? If the employer pays the premium?

A

not taxable regardless of who pays premiums

248
Q

indemnifies the business for the loss of services of a key employee due to disability.

A

Key person disability

249
Q

in regards to key person disability insurance, are premiums tax deductible? Are Benefits taxable?

A

premiums: not tax deductible
benefits: not taxed

250
Q

Under the terms of a partnership buy/sell agreement, the proceeds of the policy are paid to the _______.

A

owner of the policy

251
Q

an agreement that provides insurance against a disabled business partner

A

partnership disability buy/sell

252
Q

On a partnership disability buy-out policy are premiums tax deductible? Are benefits Taxed.

A

premiums: not deductible
benefits: not taxed

253
Q

On an HRA (health reimbursement account), participants have ________ group medical expense insurance coverage, but the HRA is partially funded by ________

A

high deductible, their employer

254
Q

Available to any employer or individual who has a high deductible health plan (HDHP)

A

HSA (Health savings accounts)

255
Q

HSA contributions are made with ________ dollars, earnings grow on a __________ basis, and distributions used to pay qualified medical expenses are _______

A

before-tax dollars
tax deferred
tax free

256
Q

Employer contributions to an employee’s HSA are excludable from the employee’s _______, up to the max contribution limit for that employee.

A

federal gross income

257
Q

True/ false: an employee can deduct the employer’s HSA contributions.

A

False

258
Q

True/false: HSA contributions are not federally taxable to the employee.

A

True

259
Q

True/False: HSA contributions are not federally taxable to the employee nor are they subject to withholding from wages for federal income tax or other employment taxes.

A

True

260
Q

True/False: HSA contributions by employers are considered a type of benefit and are therefore tax-deductible or the employer.

A

True

261
Q

True/False: HSA’s are subject to year-end tax penalties

A

false

262
Q

Contributions to an HSA cannot exceed the participant’s ______, and are subject to _______

A

deductible, max limits

263
Q

Medical savings accounts (MSAs) may be set up only by whom?

A

small employers or individuals

264
Q

Contributions to an MSA (medical savings account) made by an eligible individual are limited to a percentage of what?

A

the annual deductible

265
Q

a nonprofit insurer who usually sells life and health insurance to its own members only

A

fraternal insurer

266
Q

an insurer who has a certificate of authority from the director

A

authorized / admitted

267
Q

Policies issued by stock insurers and never pay dividends to policy holders

A

non-participating

268
Q

policies which are issued by mutual insurers and may pay dividends to policy holders

A

participating

269
Q

all insurers except _____ and _____ need a certificate of authority from the idaho insurance director in order to sell insurance in the state

A

surplus lines and reinsurance carriers

270
Q

transacting insurance includes ____, _____, _____

A

soliciting, selling, negotiating

271
Q

Those who transact _____ are subject to the provisions of the state insurance code.

A

insurance

272
Q

Domestic, foreign, and alien insurers need to obtain _______ from the director in order to lawfully transact insurance in this state, unliss they are surplus lines insurers.

A

certificate of authority

273
Q

An insurer that is organized (incorporated) in Idaho

A

domestic

274
Q

an insurer that is organized in another state

A

Foreign

275
Q

an insurer that is organized in another country

A

alien

276
Q

The director is appointed by the _____ for a term of __ years

A

governor, 4

277
Q

The director’s main duty is to enforce and administer insurance laws to protect the ______

A

public

278
Q

True/False: the director does not make laws or pass statutes, the legislature does.

A

True

279
Q

The director may ____ policy forms if they are misleading, difficult to understand, or unfairly _______

A

disapprove, discriminatory

280
Q

Although insurers may have to file their ____ with the director for approval or disapproval, the director does not make _____

A

rates

281
Q

All ___________ forms must be filed with the director before they can be used.

A

insurance policy

282
Q

The director must examine (audit) all domestic insurers at least once ever ___ years

A

5

283
Q

True/false: the director has the power to examine and investigate every person engaged in the business of insurance in this state

A

true

284
Q

The director may examine (audit) and insurer _______ to protect the public

A

whenever neceassry

285
Q

______ must pay all expenses related to the cost of an examination (audit)

A

insurers

286
Q

If an insurer discovers that one of their producers has violated insurance code, they must notify both the _____ and the _______

A

producer, director

287
Q

The director must hold a hearing within _______ of receiving a request from a person who is aggrieved by his actions

A

30 days

288
Q

If the director suspects that a producer has violated the insurance code, they must provide the licensee and his appointing insurers at least _____ days in advance notice of the hearing as well as the charges.

A

20 days

289
Q

True/False: the director has the power to issue administrative orders, such as cease and desist orders

A

true

290
Q

A final action of the director at a hearing is subject to _____, also known as judicial review.

A

appeal

291
Q

The director, after a hearing, may suspend a producer’s license for up to _____ .

A

12 months

292
Q

The director, after a hearing may _____ to issue or renew the license of a producer who commits unfair trade practice.

A

revoke or refuse

293
Q

In addition to suspension or revokation, each violation of the insurance code may be punishable by a fine of up _____ for individuals ( _____ for agencies or insurers) or imprisonment in the county jail for a period of up to _______ or both, at the court’s discretion

A

$1000, $5000, 6 months

294
Q

The director may levy a find of up to _______ on any person who transacts insurance without a license

A

$15,000

295
Q

No producer may represent an insurer unless they are ______ by that insurer.

A

appointed

296
Q

When an appointment is terminated, the insurer must notify both the ______ and _____ within ____ days of termination.

A

director, producer, 30

297
Q

True/False: although producers must have at least one appoinment, they may have as many appointments as they want

A

true

298
Q

A producer’s license is the property of ______ and if terminated, must be returned.

A

the state

299
Q

True/false: producers may transact insurance while their license is expired.

A

false

300
Q

True/False: Limited lines producers, such as those who sell only credit inurance, may be exept from taking the state licensing exam if their insurer develops and approved training program.

A

True

301
Q

True/False; Producers may have a resident license in more than one state.

A

False

302
Q

With a resident Idaho producer’s license, an individual can sell insurance in Idaho only. The producer would need a _________ to sell in other states.

A

nonresident license

303
Q

To obtain a resident license in Idaho, the licensee must be ________. No idaho exam required.

A

licensed in their home state.

304
Q

Producers may have as many as _____ nonresident licenses.

A

49

305
Q

Idaho nonresident producers are required to satisfy the __________ requirements of their home state

A

CE

306
Q

to obtain a producer’s license an applicant must be at least age ____, be ______, pay the required nonrefundable fees, and pass the required exam.

A

18, fingerprinted,

307
Q

The directory may suspend for up to _____, or _____ any license, after a hearing, if the licensee is found guilty of a felony

A

12 months, revoke

308
Q

The director may not suspend or revoke a producer’s license without first doing what?

A

giving the opportunity to attend a hearing.

309
Q

The director may not reissue a license to any person whose license has been revoked for at least _______

A

one year

310
Q

failing to pay child support or state income taxes may lead to what?

A

producer’s license suspension

311
Q

True / false: being found guilty of a misdemeanor is grounds for license suspension or revocation

A

False, only if the misdemeanor reveals dishonesty

312
Q

The director may not suspend or revoke a license without first doing what?

A

giving them the opportunity to attend a hearing

313
Q

a producer acts in a _____ responsibility when handling premiums

A

fiduciary

314
Q

Any producer who misappropriates fiduciary funds to his own use will be guilty of what?

A

felony

315
Q

Insurers must pay covered claims within _____ after receipt of proper proof of loss.

A

30 day

316
Q

No person may pay a commission to an _________ producer, and no person may accept a commission unless they are properly ______ for that line of insurance.

A

unlicensed, licensed

317
Q

A retired producer may receive deferred commissions for selling insurance, as long as …..

A

they were properly licensed at the time of sale

318
Q

a producer must report to the director any ______ or _______ taken against the producer in the past 30 days

A

administrative action, ciminal prosecution

319
Q

Any minor who is at least ______ may contract for insurance on the own life, health, property, liabilities, or other interests.

A

15 years old

320
Q

True/False: It is an unfair trade practice to state that an insurance policy is similar to shares of stock.

A

True

321
Q

It is an unfair claims practice to deny a claim without conducting a ________

A

reasonable investigation

322
Q

It is an unfair trade practice to project____________ when selling nonparticipating policies.

A

future dividends

323
Q

giving part of one’s commission to a client as an inducement to the sale and is an unfair trade practice

A

rebating

324
Q

any type of inducement (such as paying part of one’e commission to a client) to buy or renew insurance that is not stated in the policy

A

rebating

325
Q

Dividends are or are not considered to be rebates, being that the policy states that the insured might receive them.

A

are not

326
Q

Misrepresentation is an unfair trade practice, including misrepresenting the financial condition of any insurer, which is also known as _______

A

defamation

327
Q

includes misrepresinting the benefits, conditions or terms of a policy that is comparable to one a producer are trying to sell

A

misrepresentation

328
Q

making incomplete comparisons for the purpose of inducing policy replacement

A

Twisting

329
Q

Replacement is not unlawful, but _____ is an unfair trade practice, since it is a form of misrepresentation

A

twisting

330
Q

Rates are made by insurers, based upon the _______ nature of the insurance business.

A

competitive

331
Q

being maliciousy critical of the financial condition of any insurer or producer.

A

defamation

332
Q

occurs when a financial institution requires a customer to purchase insurance from a particular insurere or producer as a condition to loan approval

A

coercion

333
Q

It is _________ when an insurer provides different benefits or charges different rates for individuals in the same class

A

unfair discrimination

334
Q

It is considered to be _____ when a producer gives a client false info in connection with a new application

A

misrepresentation

335
Q

the intent to deceive

A

fraud

336
Q

Any insurer who has facts to support a belief that a faudulent claim has been made must report the incident to the _____ who will report any alleged violations of the law to the ________

A

director, prosecuting attorney

337
Q

persons convicted of insurance fraud may be _____ and/or ______ and may be ordered to ______ the insurer for financial lostt

A

imprisoned, fined, reimburse

338
Q

If the director suspects a producer of using unfair or deceptive practices, he or she may do what.

A

ask the producer to appaear and show cause, as why their license should not be suspended or revoked

339
Q

If a producer violates their fiduciary duty by stealing customer funds (embesslement), the director may turn the fats of the case over to whom for criminal prosecution

A

state attorney general or county attorney

340
Q

A contact on which participating parties exchange unequal amounts. Ie. Insurance contracts because the amount an insured will pay is is unequal to the amount the insurer will pay in the event of loss.

A

Aleatory

341
Q

A federal requirement that employers who have 25 or more employees, who are within the service area of a qualified HMO, who pay minimum wage and offer a health plan must offer HMO coverage as well as an indemnity plan.

A

Dual choice

342
Q

Employer health plans must provide primary coverage for individuals with end stage renal disease before Medicare becomes primary for how many months?

A

30

343
Q

The provision that provides for the sharing of expenses between the insured and the insurance company

A

Coinsurance

344
Q

The planned assumption of risk, or acceptance of responsibility for loss by an insured through the use of deductibles, copayments, or self insurance.

A

Retention

345
Q

An agreement between an insured and insurer where the insurer agreed to indemnify the insured for specific losses in exchange for premium.

A

The insurance contract

346
Q

The max number of activities of daily living impairments an insurer may require in this state to trigger long term care benefits

A

3

347
Q

If a carrier decides to nonrenew all of its health benefit plans fmdelivered in the state the carrier will not be allowed to write new business in the individual market for how many years?

A

5

348
Q

The minimum number of credits required for partially insured status for social security disability benefits.

A

6

349
Q

A provision that is found in most disability income policies which specifies the conditions that will automatically qualify the insured for full disability benefits.

A

Presumptive disability

350
Q

What kind of coverage is characterized by High maximum limits, blanket coverage, coinsurance, and a deductible?

A

Major Medical Expense Policy

351
Q

What kind of plans were characterized by first dollar coverage (no deductible) and low dollar limits, meaning they offered no protection against catastrauphic expenses.

A

Basic medical expense plans

352
Q

Under the AD&D coverage, what type of benefit will be paid to the beneficiary in the event of the insureds accidental death?

A

Principal Sum

353
Q

I’m what kind of setting are Daily needs and pain relief provides for hospice patient but curative measures are not?

A

Cost-containment

354
Q

Bronze pays — %
Silver pays — %
Gold pays — %
Platinum pays — %

A

60
70
80
90

355
Q

Adults under what age and individuals who cannot obtain affordable coverage may be able to cover catastrophic plans that cover essential benefits.

A

30

356
Q

When an insurer offers services like pre admission testing, second opinions regarding surgery, and preventative care, what term describes this?

A

Case management provision

357
Q

To be eligible under hipaa regulations, how long should an individual converting to an individual health plan have been covered under the previous group plan?

A

18 months

358
Q

The amount of the deductible, the coinsurance percentage, the stop-loss amount, and the max amount of benefit all help to determine what in regards to major medical policies.

A

Premiums

359
Q

When health care insurers negotiate contracts with health care providers to provide services for subscribers at a favorable cost it is called a —-

A

Preferred provider organization (PPO)

360
Q

A joining together by employers to provide health benefits for employees. Provides benefits for a number of member groups.

A

MEWA (multiple employer welfare arrangement)

361
Q

According to OBRA, what is the minimum number of employees required to constitute a large group?

A

100

362
Q

Most LTC policies are _______ _______; however insurers do have the right to increase the premiums.

A

Guaranteed renewable

363
Q

What Act requires that large group health plans must provide primary coverage for disabled individuals under the age of 65 who are not retired?

A

OBRA

364
Q

A form of cafeteria plan.
Funded by salary reduction.
Subject to use-or-lose rule.

A

FSA

365
Q

Under which employer provided plan are the benefits taxable to an employee in proportion to the amount of premium paid by the employer?

A

Disability income

366
Q

True/false: benefits paid out from an LTC policy are received income tax free.

A

True

367
Q

An insurer has how long to notify director of a fraudulent claim?

A

60 days

368
Q

If a producers license has been revoked or non renewed a new license may be denied for a how long.

A

1 to 5 years

369
Q

True/false: the terms of a policy will state whether the policy is assignable and to what extent.

A

True

370
Q

Proof of a dependent child’s incapacity cannot be required more than how often?

A

Every 12 months

371
Q

An insurer must receive proof of a dependents incapacity within how many days of the limiting age?

A

31 days

372
Q

A small employer must have under how many employees?

A

50

373
Q

All disability policies covering injured or sick newborns must also cover adopted newborns who are placed with the adoptive insured within how many days of birth. More than this many days and the coverage begins at time of placement.

A

60 days

374
Q

Which renewal provision must be included in a long term care policy?

A

Guaranteed renewable

375
Q

A purchaser of an individual LTC policy has the right to return for a full refund if done within how many days of DELIVERY?

A

30

376
Q

An insurers disability income policy includes an additional monthly benefit rider. How many years can the insured expect to receive payment from the insurer before social security benefits begin.

A

1

377
Q

All of these conditions meet eligibility requirements for what?
- an individual who doesn’t qualify for Medicare
- the gap of coverage is a period of 63 days or less
- an individual who was previously covered by group health for at least 18 months
- an individual who has used up cobra

A

Conversion to an individual policy

378
Q

An insured has Medicare part D coverage. Upon reaching the initial benefit limit, what percentage of the rx cost is the insured responsible for paying?

A

25%

379
Q

Which of the following is not considered to be a basic benefit of an HMO?
Hospital inpatient, prescription drugs, preventive services, outpatient medical, emergency, diagnostic lab, out-of-area coverage.

A

Prescription drugs

380
Q

What documentation grants express authority to an agent?

A

Agents contract with principal

381
Q

Im forming an insurance contract, when does acceptance usually occur?

A

When and insurer’s underwriter approves coverage

382
Q

In insurance, the offer is usually made by the applicant when?

A

When the fill out the application

383
Q

Under “own-occupation”, if the insured cannot perform their CURRENT job for how long will disability benefits be issued?

A

2 years

384
Q

Under “own-occupation” if the insured is capable of performing another job utilizing similar skills, how are benefits paid out?

A

Receive disability for two years, then no longer paid

385
Q

True/false: hipaa prohibits employers from establishing waiting periods and pre-existing conditions exclusions.

A

False

386
Q

True/false: hipaa guarantees the right to buy individual policies to eligible individuals.

A

True

387
Q

True/false: hipaa prohibits discrimination against employees based on their health status.

A

True

388
Q

True/false: hipaa does not limit exclusions for pre-existing conditions.

A

False

389
Q

A member of an HMO can receive emergency care outside of their area. However, an effort will be made to her the member back into the service area so that care can be provided by _________ __________ physicians.

A

Salaried member

390
Q

What is the max period that an insurer would pay benefits in accordance with a monthly benefit rider?

A

1 year

391
Q

The additional monthly benefit rider stipulates that the insurer will pay benefits comparable to what ______ ______ would pay. After a year’s time, the insurer needs the benefit and assumes that _______ ________ will then begin the benefit payment.

A

Social security; social security

392
Q

The grace period for health insurance is — days if paid weekly, — days if paid monthly, and — days for all other modes.

A

7, 10, 31

393
Q

A policy must include coverage for mammograms if it includes coverage for what.

A

Mastectomies.

394
Q

If a policy contains a maternity deductible, the deductible applies only the the expenses resulting from what.

A

C-section

395
Q

The life and disability insurance guaranty association maintains funds in all of the following type of accounts except:

Annuities, disability insurance, casualty insurance, life insurance

A

Casualty

396
Q

After passing the state exam, an individual must apply for a license within how many days?

A

180; 6 months

397
Q

Which type of agent authority is also known as perceived authority.

A

Apparent

398
Q

What is the shortest possible elimination period for group short term disability benefits provided by an employer?

A

0 days

399
Q

Under the affordable care act a special enrollment period allows an individual to enroll in a qualified health plan which in how many days of a qualifying event?

A

60

400
Q

Under Medicare, treatment in a skilled nursing facility is covered in full for the first — days. From days — to —!the patient must pay the daily copayment. After — days there are no Medicare benefits paid.

A

20, 21-100, 100

401
Q

Permissable calling hours for telemarketers are

A

8am to 9pm

402
Q

On the FIRST page of a policy and lists losses that will be covered by the insurer.

A

Insuring Clause

403
Q

True/false: the agents report/statement is included in the entire contract.

A

False

404
Q

A self employed person is considering purchasing health insurance that would protect them in the event of serious sickness or accident but they feel they can handle any small health care expenses. What kind of policy would you likely recommend?

A

Major medical as is has high limits, copayments, blanket coverage and a deductible.

405
Q

A limited health j durable policy that will pay a lump sum to an insured diagnosed with a heart attack, stroke, or renal failure.

A

Critical illness insurance

406
Q

A coverage for specified diagnosis which pays a specified amount per day if the insured is hospitalized.

A

Dread disease

407
Q

An applicant completes an application for a disability policy and pays the initial premium. The producer gives the aoplicant a conditional receipt. Insurance coverage for the applicant will become effective when?

A

Immediately. The insurance company accepts the risk.

408
Q

True/false: an employee insured through a MET has a right of conversion upon leaving the group coverage.

A

False

409
Q

Under the mandatory uniform provision proof of loss, the claimant must submit proof of loss within what time period after the loss?

A

90 days

410
Q

True/false: group MEDICAL AND DENTAL expense benefits are received income tax free.

A

True

411
Q

HMO’s are known as what type of plans?

A

Service

412
Q

Diabetes is an example of what kind of hazard?

A

Physical

413
Q

Which of the following acts stated that the government would not negotiate insurance as long as the states did an adequate job of regulating the industry.

A

MF - McCartney Ferguson

414
Q

Guaranteeing future dividends is considered to be an unfair deceptive act known as…

A

Misrepresentation

415
Q

An important fact about the financial status of an insurer was deliberately withheld. Which term best describes this action?

A

False financial statement