JVIM 2022 Flashcards
1
Q
In a study into serial analysis of blood biomarker concentrations in dogs with pneumonia, what was the time to maximal concentration of each of the following:
a) CRP
b) SAA
c) Haptoglobin
A
a) CRP - day 1
b) SAA - day 3
c) Haptoglobin - day 7
2
Q
In a study into serial analysis of blood biomarker concentrations in dogs with pneumonia, what was the median time to normalisation of each of the following:
a) CRP
b) SAA
A
a) CRP 7 days
b) SAA 6 days
3
Q
In quantitative bacterial culture of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid, which of the following (if any) was predictive of the requirement for antibiotics:
a) cfu/uml
b) TNCC
A
a) cfu/uml - NO
b) TNCC - Not when only bronchial disease considered
4
Q
What, if any, effect does inhaled albuterol have on the following in dogs:
a) HR
b) glucose
c) potassium
A
a) HR - no effect
b) glucose - no effect
c) potassium - decreased (
5
Q
In a study of videofluoroscopic swallow study abnormalities associated with airway penetration and aspiration, which of the following (if any) were associated with penetration aspiration?
a) clinical signs
b) pharyngeal dysphagia
c) oesophageal dysphagia
d) oral dysphagia
e) pharyngeal weakness
A
b) pharyngeal dysphagia
c) oesophageal dysphagia
e) pharyngeal weakness
6
Q
In a study of impact of cytidine diphosphocholine on oxygenation in client-owned dogs with aspiration pneumonia, was there any benefit noted in treated dogs?
A
CDP-choline administration resulted in rapid, progressive, and clinically relevant increases in oxygenation as determined by pulse oximetry and ratios of arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO2 mmHg) to fractional inspired oxygen (% FiO2) and decreases in alveolar-arterial (A-a) gradients that did not occur in placebo (saline)- treated animals.
7
Q
In a study into Utility of fungal polymerase chain reaction on nasal swab samples in the diagnosis and monitoring of sinonasal aspergillosis in dogs, what were the conclusions?
A
Aspfum and PanAsp on blindly collected nasal swabs can be useful for the detection of SNA at diagnosis and at cure, especially when more invasive methods are not available
8
Q
what % of chronically hypoxaemic dogs had polycythaemia?
A
8.5% (increased Hct)
26% (increased RBC)
9
Q
True or false - in a study of Polycythemia in dogs with chronic hypoxic pulmonary disease, Red blood cell parameters were associated with the severity of hypoxemia
A
FALSE
10
Q
True or false - In a study of Serial evaluation of thoracic radiographs and acute phase proteins in dogs with pneumonia, CRP and SAA normalised before radiographic resolution
A
TRUE
11
Q
True or false - In a study of Serial evaluation of thoracic radiographs and acute phase proteins in dogs with pneumonia, CRP and SAA normalised before antibiotics finished
A
TRUE
12
Q
What novel treatment was successful for management of pneumothorax in a Cavalier King Charles Spaniel puppy with multiple pulmonary blebs and bullae?
A
Allogenic blood patch pleurodesis
13
Q
In a study of ‘Antimicrobial discontinuation in dogs with acute aspiration pneumonia based on clinical improvement and normalization of C-reactive protein concentration’, Antimicrobials were discontinued after 1 week in what % of dogs?
A
70.6%
14
Q
In a study of ‘Antimicrobial discontinuation in dogs with acute aspiration pneumonia based on clinical improvement and normalization of C-reactive protein concentration’ Thoracic radiographs and LUS were useful during follow-up
A
FALSE
Thoracic radiographs and LUS were useful for diagnosis, but did not add additional information during follow-up, because image normalization lagged behind clinical improvement and serum CRP normalization
15
Q
What was the prevalence of lower respiratory tract disease in small-breed dogs with preclincial MMVD?
A
74.6%
16
Q
In a study of point-of-care lung ultrasound in small-breed dogs with myxomatous mitral valve disease, what was the false +ve rate when a previously reported criterion for cardiogenic pulmonary oedema was used? What factors increased the risk of false +ve?
A
False +ve 15.8%
higher in dogs with lower respiratory tract disease
17
Q
In a study of brachycephalic dogs, what was the association (if any) between the distal percentage time pH ≤4 and each of the following:
a) respiratory grade
b) gastrointestinal grade
c) laryngeal collapse grade
d) previous upper airway surgery
A
None with any of them
18
Q
Which of these disappears first in dogs with aspiration pneumonia:
Ultrasonographic shred sign
Ultrasonographic B-lines
Thoracic radiography abnormalities
A
Ultrasonographic shred sign
19
Q
In dogs evaluated for respiratory signs, which 2 concurrent resp disorders were associated with bronchomalacia?
A
Tracheal/bronchial collpase
Bronchiectasis
20
Q
In dogs evaluated for respiratory signs, how did age relate to bronchomalacia?
A
Dogs with bronchomalacia were likely to be older
21
Q
True or false - In dogs evaluated for respiratory signs, dogs with bronchomalacia were also more likely to have have pulmonary hypertension?
A
TRUE
22
Q
In a study into stereotactic body radiation for treatment of nasal and nasopharyngeal lymphoma in cats, what were the 2 negative prognostic indicators?
A
cribriform lysis
intracalvarial involvement
23
Q
In a study into stereotactic body radiation for treatment of nasal and nasopharyngeal lymphoma in cats, what % had signs consistent with chronic rhinitis on follow-up?
A
75%
24
Q
In a study into stereotactic body radiation for treatment of nasal and nasopharyngeal lymphoma in cats, when disease progression occurred was it more likely local or systemic?
A
Local
25
True or false - antineoplastic chemotherapy is a major predisposing factor for the development of positive urine culture
FALSE
26
True or false - in an investigation into UTI in dogs receiving chemo, most dogs with a positive urine culture had subclinical bacteriuria
TRUE
27
In an investigation into UTI in dogs receiving chemo, what was the most common pathogen?
Escherichia coli was the most common pathogen, isolated in 9/10 episodes
28
in cats with azotemic chronic kidney disease, what % that are normocalcaemic at diagnosis go on to develop hypercalcaemia?
26%
29
What % of cats were hypercalcaemic at time of diagnosis of azotaemic CKD?
20%
30
In azotaemic CKD cats, what was the relationship between ionised hypercalcaemia and each of the following:
a) PTH
b) potassium
c) sex
a) hypercalcaemic cats had lower PTH
b) hypercalcaemic cats had higher potassium
c) Ionised hypercalcaemia was more common in male cats
31
In cats who are normocalcaemic at time of diagnosis of azotaemic CKD, waht was the only risk factor for then developing hypercalcaemia?
Increased BCS
32
In a study of long-term outcome of dogs recovering from acute kidney injury, what % had normalisation of CREA?
75%
33
True or false - In a study of long-term outcome of dogs recovering from acute kidney injury, long-term survival was associated with creatinine normalization
FALSE
34
In a study of long-term outcome of dogs recovering from acute kidney injury, what aetiologies were associated with better survival?
Infectious
Nephrotoxicity
35
What was the most common category of AKI aetiology in dogs?
ischemic/inflammatory
36
What was the reported survival to discharge rate of dogs with AKI?
66%
37
In a 2022 study into AKI in dogs, was IRIS AKI grade associated with risk of death?
Yes
38
What was the biggest clinical risk factor for death on a study of AKI in dogs?
Anuria
39
In dogs with AKI, what was the survival for dogs that underwent haemodialysis?
60%
40
What was the reported treatment for a case of minimal change disease podocytopathy in a dog?
Mycophenolate and telmisartan
41
True or false - in 'The use of autologous skeletal muscle progenitor cells for adjunctive treatment of presumptive urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence in female dogs', the majority of treated dogs required additional medications to be continent?
TRUE
42
What, if any, was the effect of mineral oil as a lubricant to collect feces from cats for microbiome studies
No effect
43
Incidence of relapse of inflammatory protein-losing enteropathy in dogs and associated risk factors, what % of dogs did not ever achieve remission?
44%
44
For dogs with PLE, what was the main risk factor for dogs that achieved remission and subsequently relapsed?
Poor dietary complicance
45
In a study into 'Incidence of relapse of inflammatory protein-losing enteropathy in dogs and associated risk factors', what % responded initially but then had a relapse?
25%
46
What novel technique was described in a case report for reduction of an ileocecocolic intussusception in a puppy?
Noninvasive hydrostatic reduction (injection of saline)
47
True or false for each of the following: Serum MMA concentrations decreased with both oral and injectable B12 supplementation in dogs with....
a) Chronic enteropathy
b) EPI
a) Chronic enteropathy - TRUE
b) EPI - FALSE (oral only)
48
True or false for each of the following: Cobalamin concentrations increased with both oral and injectable B12 supplementation in dogs with....
a) Chronic enteropathy
b) EPI
TRUE for both
49
In dogs with vestibular disease, what if any effect did ondansetron have on AVP?
AVP decreased 4 hours after administration
50
In dogs with vestibular disease, what if any effect did ondansetron have on nausea behaviour?
Clinical resolution of nausea was observed 1 hour after administration
51
In 'Evaluation of proton pump inhibitor administration in hospitalized dogs in a tertiary referral hospital', what % of dogs in the hsopital had a PPI administered?
40%
52
In 'Evaluation of proton pump inhibitor administration in hospitalized dogs in a tertiary referral hospital', an adequate indication for use was identified in what % of dogs prescribed PPI?
27%
53
In 'Evaluation of proton pump inhibitor administration in hospitalized dogs in a tertiary referral hospital', an inadequate dosage was identified in what % of dogs discharged with PPI?
52%
54
True or false - oral inflammation is a risk factor for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in cats
False
55
True or false - tobacco smoke exposure is a risk factor for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in cats
True
56
In respect to environment, what are risk factors for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in cats
Rural environment and outdoor access are risk factors
57
In respect to diet, what is a risk factor for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in cats
Pet food containing chemical additives
58
For long-acting omeprazole injection, the mean number of days the dogs' pH met established goals for MPT pH ≥3 was what?
5 days
59
In dogs with sliding hiatal hernia, brachycephalic dogs were more likely to have which of the following (may be more than one)
a) Respiratory distress
b) Respiratory signs generally
c) Aspiration pneumonia
Brachycephalic dogs more likely to have respiratory distress and aspiration, but not resp signs geenrally
60
In dogs with sliding hiatal hernia, how does brachycephaly affect the age of presentation?
Brachycephalic dogs present with signs of sHH at a younger age
61
True or false - all dogs with sliding hiatal hernia and respiratory signs had abnormal thoracic radiographs?
False - only 50%
62
Which is superior for detecting sliding hiatal hernia - thoracic radiography or videofluoroscopy?
Videofluoroscopy
63
Which is the most common presentation for dogs ith sliding hiatal hernia - exclusively GI signs, exclusively resp signs or mixed?
Exclusively GI signs
(least common = exclusively resp)
64
In 'Clinical evaluation and microbiota analysis in 9 dogs with antibiotic-responsive enteropathy:', what, if any, specific change was noted in the microbiota of these dogs comapred to controls?
No specific characteristic of the microbiome
65
In 9 dogs administered tylosin, did alpha- or beta- diversity change in the 30 days after starting treatment?
Alpha diversity
66
True or false, dogs undergoing gastroscopy with gastric lymphofollicular hyperplasia are more likely to have Helicobacter-like organisms ?
TRUE
67
True or false - in dogs undergoing gastroscopy, younger dogs have less Helicobacter-like organisms?
FALSE - they have more
68
True or false - in dogs undergoing gastroscopy, Frecnh bulldogs were more liekly to have gastric lymphofollicular hyperplasia?
FALSE
69
True or false - in dogs undergoing gastroscopy, dogs with gastric lymphofollicular hyperplasia were more likely to have vomiting?
TRUE
70
True or false - in dogs undergoing gastroscopy, younger dogs were more likely to have gastric lymphofollicular hyperplasia?
FALSE
71
According to a case report, which vector-borne protozoal disease should be considered as a differential for chronic diarrhoea in endemic areas?
Leishmania
72
True or false - in dogs with pancreatic fluid accumulations, complications were sometimes seen after FNA of the fluid?
FALSE
73
in dogs with pancreatic fluid accumulations, what did fluid cytology reveal in every case?
Predominantly neutrophilic inflamamtion
74
True or false - medical management is a viable treatment option for dogs with pancreatic fluid accumulation
TRUE for some
75
In dogs with liver disease undergoing endoscopy, what % had gastroduodenal ulceration? What % had rosions?
10% ulceration
15% erosions
76
True or false - in a study into 'Gastroduodenal ulceration in dogs with liver disease, dogs with congenital disease were less likely to have ulcers/erosions than dogs with inflammatory hepatopathy and cirrhosis?
FALSE - no difference between (small) groups
77
What % of dogs with acute pancreatitis have ultrasonographic gastrointestinal wall changes?
47%
78
In dogs with acute pancreatitis, which part of the GIT was most affected by ultrasonographic gastrointestinal wall changes?
Duodenum
79
In dogs with acute pancreatitis, what was the only independent predictor of ultrasonographic gastrointestinal wall changes
Heart rate
80
In dogs with acute pancreatitis, what was the most common ultrasonographic gastrointestinal wall change?
Wall thickening
81
True or false for each of the following: compared to normocobalaminaemic dogs, dogs with severe hypocobalaminaemia had worse:
a) ileal histopathology scores
b) ileal endoscopy scores
TRUE for both
82
What serum metabolites moderately correlated with fPLI?
3 sphingolipids: 2 cerebrosides: HexCer and HexCer and 1 sphingomyelin: SM C18:0
83
True or false - in dogs with acute signs of large bowel diarrhea housed in an animal shelter, dogs fed a high-fibre diet had higher chance of resolution by the end of the study?
TRUE
84
In 'Evaluation of resting cortisol concentration testing in dogs with chronic gastrointestinal signs', what % of dogs had basal cortisol <55? What % of those still had cortisol <55 when basal cortisol was re-measured?
28% on initial testing
29% (of those 28%) on retesting
85
In 'Evaluation of resting cortisol concentration testing in dogs with chronic gastrointestinal signs', what was the true prevalence of hypadrenocorticism in the presented dogs?
0.3%
86
In dogs with abdominal oesophageal varices, what underlying condition did all dogs have?
Portal hypertension
87
In dogs with thoracic oesophegal varices, what underlying conditions did 9/11 cases have?
Pulmonary, caval, or systemic hypertension
88
How many dogs were euthanised or died as a direct result of oesophageal varices?
None
89
Which are younger - dogs with bony oesophageal foreign bodies or dogs with bony gastric foreign bodies?
Oesophageal
90
Which had bigger bones - dogs with oesophageal foreign bodies or dogs with gastric foreign bodies?
Oesophageal
91
What were two risk factors for Oesophageal erosions in dogs with bony oesophageal foreign bodies>
More distal entrapment
Longer duration of entrapment
92
Out of 45 bony oesophageal foreign bodies, how many were resolved non-surgically?
42
93
In healthy cats, what effect did azithormycin have on
a) gastric emptying
b) antral motility
Shorted gastric emptying
No effect on antral motility
94
In healthy cats, what effect did erythromycin have on
a) gastric emptying
b) antral motility
Shorted gastric emptying
No effect on antral motility
95
What was the odds ratio of dogs with AHDS developing chronic GI disease compared to controls?
2.57
96
What % of dogs with AHDS develop chronic GI signs?
28%
97
True or false - in dogs with GI signs, DGGR lipase does not correlate with ultrasonographic evidence of pancreatitis?
FALSE - weak correlation
98
How did DGGR lipase differ with duration of signs prior to presentation in dogs with GI signs?
Higher DGGR lipase in dogs with shorter duration of disease
99
In 'Effects of medical history and clinical factors on serum lipase activity and ultrasonographic evidence of pancreatitis: Analysis of 234 dogs', how did previous pancreatitis episodes relate to the following:
a) US diagnosis of pancreatitis
b) median DGGR lipase
Previous pancreatitis episodes were significantly associated with an US diagnosis of pancreatitis, but median lipase activities were not significantly higher
100
How does the imaging request form relate to an ultrasonograpic diagnosis of pancreatitis in dogs with GI signs?
Pancreatic US was significantly more often positive when the request contained “suspicion of pancreatitis” or “increased lipase”
101
True or false - dogs with Gi signs with peripancreatic mesentery cahnges had significantly higher DGGR lipase activities?
TRUE
102
Normalized urine 2,3-dinor-8-iso-prostaglandin F2α concentrations correlate with what other things in dogs with pancreatitis?
CAPS score
CRP
Spec cPLI
103
True or false - Reactive metabolite (RM) concentrations are higher in dogs with acute pancreatitis vs controls
TRUE
104
True or false - in dogs with acute pancreatitis, reactive metabolite (RM) concentrations correlate with length of hospitalisation?
FALSE
105
True or false - miRNAs were able to distinguis between chronic enteropathy and GI cancer
TRUE
106
True or false - The metabolic profile of dogs with CE is significantly different from that of healthy dogs
TRUE
107
Compared to twice-daily intermediate-acting insulin, what effect (if any) did once-weekly AKS-218d (ultra-long-acting insulin) have on the following:
a) fructosamine
b) clinical signs
c) mean interstitial glucose
No effect on any
108
After hypophysectomy in dogs with corticotroph adenomas, which is more common - hypernatraemia or hyponatraemia? What % does each occur?
Postoperative hypernatremia developed in 46.5% (57/127) of dogs and hyponatremia in 6.3% (8/127)
109
After hypophysectomy in dogs with corticotroph adenomas, what happens to potassium?
Plasma potassium concentration increased without exceeding the reference limit
110
After hypophysectomy in dogs with corticotroph adenomas, how soon do sodium concentrations normalise?
24-48h
111
After hypophysectomy in dogs with corticotroph adenoma, what effect (if any) did hypernatraemia have on risk of:
a) death
b) recurrence
No effect on either
112
What were the 2 risk factors for develoment of diabetes inspidius after hypophysectomy in dogs with corticotroph adenoma?
Longer duration of surgery
Enlarged pituitary glands
113
In dogs with chronic hepatopathy, vitamin D is positively correlated with what?
Albumin
114
In dogs with chronic hepatopathy, vitamin D is negatively correlated with what?
AST
Neutrophils
115
In dogs with chronic hepatopathy, what 2 things does CRP correlate with?
Overall histopathologic necroinflammatory activity
Fibrosis score
116
In dogs with chronic hepatopathy, Plasma vWF concentration positively correlated with what 2 things?
Fibrosis score
Prothrombin time
117
In dogs with chronic hepatopathy, Plasma vWF concentration positively correlated with what?
Albumin
118
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did age have on likelihood of developing iatrogenic hypothyroidism?
Cats that developed iatrogenic hypothyroidism were more likely to be older
119
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did sex have on likelihood of developing iatrogenic hypothyroidism?
Cats that developed iatrogenic hypothyroidism were more likely to be female
120
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did TSH have on likelihood of developing iatrogenic hypothyroidism?
Cats that developed iatrogenic hypothyroidism were more likely to have detectable serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) concentrations
121
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did unilateral or bilateral disease have on likelihood of developing iatrogenic hypothyroidism?
Cats that developed iatrogenic hypothyroidism were more likely to have bilateral nodules
122
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did disease severity have on likelihood of developing iatrogenic hypothyroidism?
Cats that developed iatrogenic hypothyroidism were more likely to have milder disease severity
123
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did disease severity have on likelihood of developing persistent hyperthyroidism?
Cats that developed persistent hyperthyroidism were more likely to have higher disease severity
124
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did age have on likelihood of developing persistent hyperthyroidism?
Cats that developed persistent hyperthyroidism were more likely to be younger
125
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did unilateral or bilateral disease have on likelihood of developing persistent hyperthyroidism?
No effect
126
In cats treated with RAI, what (if any) effect did TSH have on likelihood of developing persistent hyperthyroidism?
No effect
127
In Miniature Schnauzers, what was the relationship between serum glucose and calprotectin?
Serum glucose and calprotectin concentrations (shown to be higher in MS with HTGL than in MS without HTGL) were inversely correlated
128
In hypertriglyceridaemic miniature schnauzers treated with diet, what effect (if any) did normalsiation of TRIG have on insulin?
Dogs with complete resolution of HTGL after dietary intervention (5 dogs) had significantly lower serum insulin concentrations compared to baseline
129
In dogs receiving zolendronic acid, what was the most common adverse effect?
Azoatemia
130
True or false - in dogs receivving zolendronic acid, the change in serum creatinine concentration from dose to dose was related to the total dose received
False
131
True or false - CRH measurement was able to differentiate PDH from ADH in dogs
TRUE
132
What was the correaltion (if any) between CRH measurement and the following in HAC dogs
a) pituitary-to-brain ratio
b) adrenal size
CRH had no correaltion with either
133
What 3 factors are diagnostic for congenital hypothyroidism in cats?
Disproportionate dwarfism
abnormally high TSH
abnormally low to low-normal T4 concentrations
134
What enzyme is affected to cause congenital hypothyroidism in cats?
thyroid peroxidase
135
On standard clinical pathology (haematology/biochemistry), what 2 factors had best discrimination between dogs with glucocorticoid-deficient hypoadrenocorticism and healthy controls (in dogs being tested for this disease)?
Lymphocyte count
A:G ratio
136
Whats is sensitivity and specificity of small left adrenal gland (<0.4cm) for diagnosis for GC-deficient hypoadrenocorticism in dogs being tested for this disease?
80% sens
82% spec
137
True or false - in dogs being tested for GC-deficient hypoadrenocorticism, B12 is different between those with and those without the disease?
FALSE
138
True or false - in dogs being tested for GC-deficient hypoadrenocorticism, GI ultrasonography can differentiate FALSEbetween those with and those without the disease?
FaLSE
139
In 'Alendronate treatment in cats with persistent ionized hypercalcemia: A retrospective cohort study of 20 cases', what % of cats were azotaemic prior to treatment?
15/20 (75%)
140
In 'Evaluation of a machine learning tool to screen for hypoadrenocorticism in dogs presenting to a teaching hospital', what % of dogs eventually diagnosed with hypoadrenocorticism were missed by the machine learning model?
Nne
141
What % of hyperthyroid cats have abnormally low muscle mass when measured quantitatively by ultrasound?
64%
142
Successful treatment restores muscle mass in what % of RAI-treated cats?
85%
143
True or false - UCCR is significantly lower in dogs with hypoadrenocorticism compared to healthy controls
TRUE
144
True or false - UCCR is significantly lower in dogs with hypoadrenocorticism compared to dogs with disease mimicking hypoadrenocorticisim?
TRUE
145
True or false - dogs with diabetes mellitus are more likely to develop neoplasia generally?
FALSE
146
What neoplasms are more common in diabetic dogs compared to dogs without DM?
Adrenal mass
(Splenic mass too but did not reach significance)
147
Increase of which serum lipid was associated with increased risk of CaOx uroliths in dogs?
Triglycerides
148
In a case report, what non-adrenal tumour was associated with primary hyperreninism in a cat?
Renal sarcoma
149
Which of the following, if any, were higher in dogs with Neospora serology-positive meningoencephalitis compared to non-infectious meningoencephalitis?
a) CK
b) AST
Both were higher in Neospora
150
Which organ is most likely to yield a diagnosis of Cytauxzoon felis?
Spleen
151
What infectious disease has been associated with radiographic evidence of metaphyseal sclerosis in juvenile dogs?
Canine Distemper virus
152
Is the IMMY cryptococcal antigen lateral flow assay highly sensitive or highly specific?
Highly sensitive
153
In the USA, what types of dogs were less likely to be Bartonella-seropositive?
Toy breeds
154
In the USA are puppies more or less likely to be Bartonella-seropositive?
Less likely
155
Between blood, rectum and pharynx, which site had lowest sensitivity for canine Parvovirus in sick dogs via PCR?
Rectum/faeces
156
Between blood, rectum and pharynx, which site had highest false PCR positivity for canine Parvovirus post-vaccination?
Rectum/faeces
157
In 'Associations between presence of Bartonella species deoxyribonucleic acid and complete blood cell count and serum biochemical changes in client-owned cats', what, if any, other infectious diseases was Bartonella spp. DNA positivity associated with?
None others
158
In 'Associations between presence of Bartonella species deoxyribonucleic acid and complete blood cell count and serum biochemical changes in client-owned cats', were younger or older cats more likely to have DNA positivity?
Younger
159
In 'Associations between presence of Bartonella species deoxyribonucleic acid and complete blood cell count and serum biochemical changes in client-owned cats', what 2 haematology/biochemistry findings were positively associated with bacteraemia?
Neutrophilia
Decreased ALKP
160
In 'Associations between presence of Bartonella species deoxyribonucleic acid and complete blood cell count and serum biochemical changes in client-owned cats', what 2 haematology/biochemistry findings were negatively associated with bacteraemia?
Neutropenia
Hyperproteinaemia
161
True or false - in 34 dogs with disseminated aspergillosis in Australia, dogs treated with multimodal antifungals had longer survival than dogs treated with itraconazole alone
TRUE
162
In in34 dogs with disseminated aspergillosis in Australia, what was the main predictor for survival identified at diagnosis?
Serum creatinine concentration
163
In 'Evaluation by polymerase chain reaction assay of persistent shedding of pathogenic leptospires in the urine of dogs with leptospirosis', how many of the 32 dogs with AKI developed CKD?
2
164
True or false - in the USA, retired racing Greyhounds were more likely to be positive for vector-borne disease than show-bred Greyhounds?
TRUE
165
True or false - in the USA, microalbuminuria was associated with vector-borne disease positivity in Greyhounds
FALSE
166
True or false - Recurrent UTI was more prevalent in dogs with polymicrobial bacteriuria compared to the Enterococcal bacteria alone
TRUE
167
Escherichia coli from polymicrobial bacteriuria was more often resistant to which 2 antibiotics compared to monoculture E coli in dogs?
Doxycyline
Gentamicin
168
True or false - recurrent UTI dogs with polymicrobial cultures have more hospital visits than recurrent UTI dogs with monomicrobial culture?
TRUE
169
In dogs with ectopic ureters, what % required ongoing medical therapy post laser ablation?
55%
170
Overall, what % of ectopic ureter dogs were considered continent after laser ablation with or without adjunctive medical management
67.7%
171
What rare complication should be considered in cats with SUB device obstruction and a positive urine culture?
Gastrointestinal migration
172
What 3 things correlated with serum leptin in dogs with CKD?
Creatinine
SDMA
Systolic BP
173
In dogs with CKD, serum adiponectin was higher in what subpopulation?
Proteinuric dogs
174
What 2 cytokines are higher in proteinuric CKD dogs vs non-proteinuric CKD dogs?
IL-6
TNF-a
175
Which, if any, of the following were associated with higher SDMA vs healthy controls in cats
a) AKI
b) acute on chronic kidney disease
c) CKD
All associated with higher SDMA
176
True or false - AKI grade correlated with SDMA in cats
TRUE
177
Which other renal marker does SDMA correlated with in cats with AKI?
Creatinine
178
True or false - there was significant difference between the overall urogenital microbiome (assessed by alpha/beta diversity) in Miniature Schnauzers with and without calcium oxalate urolithiasis
FALSE
179
What bacteria had higher prevalence in the microbiome of urolith-forming Miniature Schnauzers?
Acinetobacter (assoictaed with uroliths in humans)
Geobacillus
Hydrogenophaga
180
What presentation did cystosocpy and ultrasonography have the best agreement for? And worst?
Best = recurrent UTI (87%)
Worst = Strangura (58%)
181
In dogs receiving renin-angiotensin system inhibitors for proteinuric chronic kidney disease, what % developed aldosterone breakthrough?
34-59%
182
True or false - in dogs receiving renin-angiotensin system inhibitors for proteinuric chronic kidney disease, aldosterone breakthrough was not associated with proteinuria outcome
TRUE
183
In 'Prevalence of aldosterone breakthrough in dogs receiving renin-angiotensin system inhibitors for proteinuric chronic kidney disease', what % of dogs had successful (>50%) reduction in proteinuria?
36%
184
True or false - dogs with MMVD had same urine NGAL as healthy dogs?
FALSE - MMVD had higher NGAL
185
True or false - urine NGAL correlates with ACVIm stage in dogs with MMVD?
TRUE
186
True or false - dogs with CKD have higher serum uromodulin than healthy dogs?
FALSE - dogs with CKD have lower uromodulin
187
True or false - serum uromodulin is more accurate at diagnosis of early CKD than SDMA?
TRUE
188
In 'Retrospective evaluation of risk factors for development of kidney injury after parenteral furosemide treatment of left-sided congestive heart failure in dogs', what % of dogs developed kidney injury (assessed by IRIS guidelines)
48%
189
In 'Retrospective evaluation of risk factors for development of kidney injury after parenteral furosemide treatment of left-sided congestive heart failure in dogs', which was more common - azotaemic or non-azotaemic kidney injury?
Non-azotaemic
190
In 'Diagnostic value of reticulocyte indices for the assessment of the iron status of cats with chronic kidney disease', what haematological variable had most utility for identifying iron deficiency?
corpuscular hemoglobin, CHr
191
In 'Retrospective evaluation of risk factors for development of kidney injury after parenteral furosemide treatment of left-sided congestive heart failure in dogs' what factor was associated with acute injury...
a) during hospitalization
b) after hospitalisation
a) high BP
b) PO furosemide dose
192
In 'Retrospective evaluation of risk factors for development of kidney injury after parenteral furosemide treatment of left-sided congestive heart failure in dogs' which of the following, if any, was associated with chances of kidney injury?
a) use of CRI furosemide
b) Baseline creatinine
Neither associated with risk of kidney injury
193
True or false - in 'Retrospective evaluation of risk factors for development of kidney injury after parenteral furosemide treatment of left-sided congestive heart failure in dogs' , the development of kidney injury was not associated with long-term outcome
TRUE
194
For cats with urethral obstruction, what was the rate of re-catheterisation in the UK?
30%
195
In obstructed cats in the UK, which had a higher re-catherisation rate: patients with indwelling catheters or those that had a catheter placed and then immediately removed?
Repeat catheterization at 48 hours was less frequent in patients with indwelling catheters (10.1%) vs those that had a catheter placed and then immediately removed (14.8%; P = .04)
196
What % of obstructed cats were administered antibiotics in the UK?
58%
197
Which of these (if any) was associated with increased chance of urine culture positivity:
a) UPC
b) Voided sample (vs cysto)
c) Older age
d) female sex
e) higher USG
Voided samples only
198
What (if any) is the difference between renal concentrations/transcript levels for each of the following, in cats wih CKD vs healthy controls?
a) Angiotensinogen
b) ACE
c) Angiotensin I
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Increased
199
In 'Risk factors and implications associated with renal mineralization in chronic kidney disease in cats', what 2 factors were associated with increased risk of nephrocalcinosis?
Higher baseline calcium
Feeding renal prescription diet
200
True or false - cats with more severe nephrocalcinosis has shorter MST compared to cats with milder nephrocalcinosis?
False - cats with milder nephrocalcinosis have shorter MST
201
What was the most common adverse effect of anthracycline overdoses in dogs?
Neutropenia (94%)
202
Out of 16 dogs with anthracycline overdose, how many died?
2
203
True or false - in anthracycline overdose, filgastrim seemed to mitigate neutropenia in dogs?
FALSE
204
In 'Etiology and outcome of extreme neutrophilic leukocytosis: A multi-institutional retrospective study of 269 dogs', which disease category, if any, had higher mortality than the others?
Neoplastic
205
In ' Etiology and outcome of extreme neutrophilic leukocytosis: A multi-institutional retrospective study of 269 dogs', what 2 factors were negatively associated with survival?
Neutrophil count
Weight
206
In lymphoma involving the nervous system in cats, what was more common - CNS or PNS involveemnt?
CNS
207
In lymphoma involving the nervous system in cats, what was more common - intracranial or spinal involvement?
Intracranial
208
What were the 2 main differences noted between dogs adminsitered doxorucin via IV catheter or via chemoemobolisation for nonresectable heptatic carcinoma
Chemoembolisation = lower serum concentrations, less haematological effects
209
In dogs with nodal small cell B-cell lymphoma, what effect (if any) did low nodal expression of Ki67 have?
Prolonged overall survival
210
In dogs with nodal small cell B-cell lymphoma, what effect did the following have on survival?
a) CD25 expression
b) CD 21 expression
c) MHC Class II
Shorter survival with:
a) Higher CD25 expression
b) Lower CD 21 expression
c) Lower MHC Class II
211
What form of lymphoma is more common in Miniature Dachshunds than other breeds in Japan?
GI lymphoma
212
Which form of lymphoma is most common in Miniature Dachshunds in Japan?
GI lymphoma
213
What was found in relation to age of Miniature Dachsunds diagnosed with lymphoma in Japan?
MDs were diagnosed with lymphoma <4yo more than other breeds
214
In Miniature Dachsunds diagnosed with GI lymphoma in Japan, was being <4yo associated with longer or shorter survival?
Longer (retrospective so could just be more likely to treat...)
215
True or false - dogs with carcinoma had higher thrombopoietin than healthy controls?
TRUE
216
True or false - in dogs with carcinoma, thrombopoietin was higher in dogs with thrombocytosis than those without?
FALSE
217
True or false - dogs with carcinoma had higher IL-6 than healthy controls?
FALSE
218
True or false - in 'Multicenter, randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled study of rabacfosadine in dogs with lymphoma', dogs receiving rabacfosidine had progression-free survival than dogs receiving placebo?
TRUE
219
In 'Multicenter, randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled study of rabacfosadine in dogs with lymphoma', what was the most common adverse effect?
Diarrhoea
220
What was prevalence of clinical acute hepatopathy in dogs administered zonisamide?
0.52%
221
In 382 dogs administered zonisamide long-term, how many developed clincial chronic hepatopathy?
None
222
In 'Treatment and outcomes of dogs with hepatocutaneous syndrome or hepatocutaneous-associated hepatopathy', what was overall MST?
359 days (about a year)
223
True or false - dogs with hepatocutaneous syndrome or hepatocutaneous-associated hepatopathy treated with optimal therapy lived longer than those treated with variable therapy?
TRUE
224
What stage/stages of GB mucocele are more likely to be associated with signs of biliary disease?
Stage V and VI (compared to I and III)
225
In GB mucocele in Asia, what were the 2 independent predictors of death after cholecystectomy?
Age
Intraoperative BP nadir
226
For pre- surgical control of clinical signs of cEHPSS in dogs, what combination of treatments was found to provide best control of signs?
Hepatic diet + lactulose
227
True or false - For pre- surgical control of clinical signs of cEHPSS in dogs, adding metronidazole to diet + lactulose did not result in further clinical score improvement
TRUE
228
In pre- surgical control of clinical signs of cEHPSS in dogs, what 2 other factors correlated with clinical scores?
Fasting ammonia
CRP
229
What % of dogs with aminoaciduric canine hypoaminoacidemic hepatopathy syndrome have superficial necrolytic dermatitis?
73%
230
In dogs with aminoaciduric canine hypoaminoacidemic hepatopathy syndrome, what was the main identified clinical parameter difference between dogs with and without fulminant skin lesions?
Dogs with fulminant skin lesions at diagnosis had significantly lower hematocrit
231
True or false - in dogs with aminoaciduric canine hypoaminoacidemic hepatopathy syndrome, there was a difference in amino acid profiles between those with and without skin lesions?
FALSE
232
What 2 serum amino acids and what 2 urine amino acids were useful markers for aminoaciduric canine hypoaminoacidemic hepatopathy syndrome?
Plasma 1-methylhistidine and cystathionine
Urine lysine and methionine
233
In canine hepatic biopsies undergoing copper quantification, what % were Cu > 1000 ppm
19%
234
In canine hepatic biopsies undergoing copper quantification, what 3 breeds were associated with high copper cocnentration?
Labrador
Doberman
WHWT
235
In canine hepatic biopsies undergoing copper quantification, what (if any) effect did age have on copper concentration?
Age negatively correlated with copper concentration
236
In canine hepatic biopsies, which of the following (if any) were histopathological predictors of higher copper concentration?
a) necroinflammation
b) cholestasis
c) cirrhosis
Necroinflammation
237
What Biliary protozoa was isolated in a dog with acute cholangiohepatitis fed a raw food diet (case report)?
Hammondia heydorni
238
In cats in Thailand testing positive for domestic cat hepadnavirus, what, if any, clincopathology changes were associated with positivitiy?
Higher AST
Higher ALT
239
In cats in Thailand testing positive for domestic cat hepadnavirus, what specific hepatic disease was associated with positivity?
Chronic lymphocytic hepatitis
240
In a study of progression of biliary sludge in dogs using ultrasonography, what 2 breeds were associated with progression to GBM?
Shetland sheepdogs
Border terriers
241
In a study of progression of biliary sludge in dogs using ultrasonography, aside from breed what was the other main risk factor for development of GBM?
Increased body condition
242
In a study of progression of biliary sludge in dogs using ultrasonography, what proportion of dogs developed non-gravity dependent sludge prior to GBM?
9/20
243
True or false - single-nucleotide polymorphisms in the NR3C1a glucocorticoid receptor gene in Cocker Spaniels with primary immune thrombocytopenia were associated with outcome?
FALSE
244
In 'Effect of leukoreduction on inflammation in critically ill dogs receiving red blood cell transfusions', differences in which of the following (if any) were found between dogs receiving luekoreduced transfusions vs non-leukoreduced?
a) WBC count
b) CRP
No difference for either
245
In 'Splenectomy in the management of primary immune-mediated hemolytic anemia and primary immune-mediated thrombocytopenia in dogs', which (if any) of the diseases appeared to benefit most from the procedure?
IMTP
246
True or false - urine 11-dTXB:Cr was higher in IMHA than healthy controls?
TRUE
247
True or false - IMHA dogs with higher urine 11-dTXB:Cr poorer survival than those without?
FALSE
248
True or false - IMHA dogs with higher urine 11-dTXB:Cr had higher risk of thrombotic disease than those without?
FALSE
249
Which lipoprotein was higher in dogs with sepsis vs healthy controls?
Low-density lipoprotein
250
Which of the following (if any) were higher in dogs with both sepsis and non-infectious inflammation compared to healthy controls?
a) SAA
b) CRP
Both CRP and SAA
251
Which APP correlates negatively with high-density lipoprotein?
SAA
252
True or false - IMHA dogs treated with high-dose Pentaglobin appeared to have survival benefit
FALSE
253
True or false - high-dose Pentaglobin was well tolerated in IMHA dogs
TRUE
254
True or false - in 'Alloimmunization in dogs after transfusion: A serial cross-match study', all dogs had positive crossmatch within 4 days?
FALSE
255
Which of the following (if any) affected the chances of developing alloantibodies or positive crossmatch after a transfusion?
a) Immunosuppressive Tx
b) Cause of anaemia (e.g. IMHA vs others
c) RBC storage time
d) Transfusion volume
None of them affected the development of alloantibodies in 21 dogs
256
True or false - Clotting times in the PT correlate with rivaroxaban levels?
TRUE
257
True or false - Prednisone had no apparent influence on the anticoagulant effects of rivaroxaban in healthy dogs
TRUE
258
True or false - a single wash of stored whole blood had no significant effect on extracellular storage lesions n canine blood
FALSE
259
What is the risk with more than one washing of canine RBC?
Haemolysis
260
What specific products did washing reduce in RBC canine units?
Potassium
Lactate
ppCO2
261
True or false - washing increased the MCV in canine blood products?
TRUE
262
What was the survival rate in 'Outcomes of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug toxicosis treated with therapeutic plasma exchange in 62 dogs'
98.4%
263
In 'Lipoprotein profile of pleural and peritoneal transudates in dogs and cats', what 3 diseases were associated with fluids rich in VLDL+IDL?
CKD
acquired PSS
PLE
264
In 'Lipoprotein profile of pleural and peritoneal transudates in dogs and cats', what 3 diseases were associated with fluids rich in higher-density lipoproteins?
CHF
Caudal vena cava syndrome
Intrcavitary neoplasia
265
Which disease is associated with triglyceride-rich transudates?
Pancreatitis
266
True or false - trazodone does not affect the results of neurological examination?
FALSE - up to 20% have worsening of deficits
267
In which breeds does ortostotic tremor occur later in life?
Retrievers
268
True or false - primary orthostotic tremor is usually progressive?
TRUE
269
Is primary orthostotic tremor a disease of young or old dogs? Small or large?
Young
Large/giant
270
What clinicopathology marker was useful for distinguishing MUO from hydrocephalus?
blood neutrophil-to-lymphocyte ratio
271
Which cytokines/adipokines are increased or decreased in the epidural fat of dogs with cauda equina syndrome?
Increased - TNFa, IL-10
Decreased - leptin
272
What MRI finding was found to be a predictor of lesion chronicity in focal IVDE?
Hydromyelia
273
In which breed is a focal myocolonus described manifesting typically as rapid blinking with head nodding and variable extension down the thoracic limbs? Are seizures usually associated?
CKCS
Seizures in 9/39 dogs
274
What is of interest in Pomeranians with epilepsy?
Focal epileptic seizures (FS) were the predominant type of seizure and almost all cases with FS showed limb contraction
275
In discospondylitis, is endplate erosion usually unilateral or bilateral?
Bilateral
276
True or false - in dogs with MUO, imaging evidence of compromised blood brain barrier had no effect on seizure prevalence?
FALSE - Dogs with BBBD had significantly higher seizure prevalence (72% vs 19%; P = .01) when compared to MUO dogs with no BBBD
277
What 4 factors were predictive of presence of spinal shock in dogs?
Higher chance of spinal shock:
1. Decreased weight
2. Shorter duration of signs
3. Increased pelvic limb tone
4. Decreased paraplegia
278
What factors were associated with short-term mortality in dogs with status epilepticus?
Starting outside hospital
Increased age
279
What factors were associated with recuurence in dogs with status epilepticus?
Prior history of pharmacoresistant epilepsy
Predominance of a focal seizure phenotype
280
What unusual neurological finding was associated with hereditary polyneuropathy in Alaskan malamutes?
Tongue atrophy
281
What disease was attributed in a dog with a LAMA2 gene deletion
Congenital muscular dystrophy
282
In 'Prospective evaluation of complications associated with transesophageal echocardiography in dogs with congenital heart disease', what GI signs were sometimes seen?
Areas of mucosal damage involving <25% of the lower oesophageal sphincter (4/40)
Nasuea (4/40)
283
What was survival to discharge in dogs with infectious endocarditis? Survival at 1 month?
70% survival to discharge
54% survival at 1 month
284
In a 2022 study, which of these were risk factors for death in infective endocarditis?
a) CHF
b) Thromboembolic events
c) Herat valve affected
d) Causative agent
e) AKI
CHF
Thromboembolic events
AKI
285
True or false - in infective endocarditis, administration of anti-thrombotics was associated with survival?
TRUE
286
In 'Natural history of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats from rehoming centers: The CatScan II study', what % of cats with HCM developed cardiovascular events?
21%
287
True or false - Intravenous administration of diltiazem improved markers of renal function in healthy dogs
FALSE
288
True or false - in dogs with subclincial cardiac abnormalities, high-sensitivity cardiac troponin I decreased after stopping grain-free diet?
TRUE
289
True or false - preoperative administration of atenolol to dogs with pulmonic stenosis undergoing interventional procedures led to improved outcomes
FALSE
290
Compared to healthy cats, cats with cardiomyopathy had increases in which of the following?
a) angiotensin I
b) aldosterone
c) plasma renin
All 3
291
Treatment with which of the following (if any) was associated with higher RAAS markers in cats with cardiomyopathy?
a) Furosemide
b) Amlodipine
Both were
292
Which dogs have worse RV function - those with precapillary pulmonary hypertension or postcapillary?
Precapillary
293
What was the half life of torasemide in healthy cats?
12.9 hours
294
In 'Transvenous embolization of moderate to large patent ductus arteriosus in dogs using the Amplatzer vascular plug II', what was the closure rate after 24 hours?
94.7%
295
What breed appeared over-represented in canine HCM?
Shih-tzu
296
What was the most common owner-reported clinical sign in canine HCM?
Exercise intolerance
297
True or false - inc nine HCM, CHF eventually develops in most dogs?
FALSE - most never develop CHF
298
True or false - in dogs diagnosed with DCM, stopping feeding of non-traditional diets was associated with improved echocardiographic parameters
TRUE
299
What spurious laboratory results were associated with immunoglobulin M gammopathy in a dog with multiple myeloma?
Hypoglycaemia
Antibody positivity to leishmania, Borrelia and Anaplasma
300
What effect (if any) did CDP-choline have in dogs with aspiration pneumonia?
CDP-choline administration resulted in rapid, progressive, and clinically relevant increases in oxygenation
Treatment with CDP-choline was also associated with less platelet consumption over the first 48 hours, but had no detectable detrimental effects
