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Revision > June 2020 Big Mock > Flashcards

June 2020 Big Mock Flashcards

1
Q

“____ ____” fundus is associated with CMV retinitis

A

Pizza pie

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2
Q

HIV is associated with ___ retinitis

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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3
Q

There are 4 ____ muscle surrounding the eye

A

rectus (superior, inferior, lateral, medial)

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4
Q

What is the LR _ , SO __ , AO __ eye nerve mnemonic?

A

LR6, SO4, AO3

Lateral Rectal CN6, Superior Oblique CN4, All Others CN3

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5
Q

Meningitis has ____ type rash.

A

Petechial

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6
Q

Henoch-Schölein Purpura has ____ type rash

A

Purpuric

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7
Q

The ____ flexure is a watershed area.

A

Splenic

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8
Q

_____ jaundice is seen > 24hr up to 7 days.

A

Physiological

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9
Q

Breast Milk Jaundice, Hypothyroidism, Galactosemia are all ______ jaundice.

A

Prolonged (> 2 weeks)

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10
Q

____ antibody test is sensitive in SLE.

A

ANA (Antinuclear Antibody)

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11
Q

_____ antibody test is specific in SLE.

A

Anti-dsDNA

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12
Q

Bronze diabetes, Hepatomegaly, Bronze Hyperpigmentation is a triad of _______.

A

Hereditary Haemochromatosis.

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13
Q

Hereditary Haemochromatosis consists of triad of _____, hepatomegaly, bronze hyperpigmentation.

A

Bronze diabetes. (Iron deposits)

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14
Q

Hereditary Haemochromatosis consists of triad of bronze diabetes, ______, bronze hyperpigmentation.

A

Hepatomegaly

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15
Q

Hereditary Haemochromatosis consists of triad of bronze diabetes, hepatomegaly, ___________.

A

Bronze hyperpigmentation

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16
Q

________ antibiotic is used in first trimester of pregnancy to treat UTI.

A

Nitrofurantoin

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17
Q

________ antibiotic is used in third trimester of pregnancy to treat UTI.

A

Trimethoprim

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18
Q

Initial test for Guillain-Barre syndrome is ________

A

Nerve conduction studies

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19
Q

Neuropathic pain in Gullian-Barre syndrome is treated with _______

A

Gabapentin

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20
Q

Serial Troponin is used to confirm _____.

A

MI

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21
Q

_____ peaks at 12 hours post-MI

A

Troponin T

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22
Q

Mechanism of action of Cabergoline is Dopamine _____

A

Agonist

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23
Q

Heinz bodies and bite cells are found on a blood smear in ________

A

G6PD (Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency)

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24
Q

Emergency management for Croup in a child is ________ nebulised and Oxygen

A

Adrenaline

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25
Q

Non-emergency management for Croup in a child is ____ dexamethasone

A

Oral

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26
Q

X-ray findings of croup is _______ sign.

A

Steeple

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27
Q

_______ virus causes Croup.

A

Parainfluenza

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28
Q

X-ray findings of Epiglottis is ______ sign.

A

Thumb

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29
Q

Red flag should be raised for walking or standing unsupported is at ____ months.

A

18 months

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30
Q

Red flag should be raised for meaningful speech is at ____ months.

A

18 months.

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31
Q

_______ are good for liver capsular pain.

A

NSAIDs (eg. Ibuprofen)

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32
Q

_______ is the most appropriate investigation for Acute Pyeonephritis.

A

Urine Culture

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33
Q

Unable to pass flatus (gas) + _____ bowel sounds are associated with Paralytic ileus.

A

absent bowel sounds.

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34
Q

Unable to pass flatus (gas) + _____ bowel sounds are associated with intestinal obstruction.

A

hyperactive bowel sounds.

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35
Q

Heart Failure medications include ____ and Beta-blockers.

A

ACE-inhibitors.

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36
Q

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP), rheumatoid factor, CRP, ESR are checked in _________.

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis.

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37
Q

Autosomal _______ inheritance pattern for Neurofibromatosis.

A

dominant.

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38
Q

Megaloblastic Anaemia (raised MCV) include Cobalamin (B12) and ________.

A

Folic Acid (B9).

39
Q

Recently becoming vegan is susceptible to ______ anaemia.

A

B12 anaemia.

40
Q

________, family history and peripheral blindness are signs of Retinitis Pigmentosa.

A

Night blindness.

41
Q

Drug user bites should be advised to _______ prophylaxis. Recheck serology in 3 months.

A

post-exposure

42
Q

_______ study is we study if patient with disease already have been EXPOSED or not.

A

Case-controlled study.

43
Q

______ study is when we expose patients and check if they have disease.

A

Cohort study.

44
Q

First generation anti-histamines are ______, include Chlorphenirame and _______.

A

drowsy, and diphenhydramine (benadryl).

45
Q

Second generation anti-histamine are ______, include Cetirizine and Loratidine.

A

non-drowsy

46
Q

In order to give patient comfort when he dies, 10mg subcut _______ and 10mg subcut ___________.

A

morphine and midazolam.

47
Q

Which is the more potent steroid? Mometasone or Clobetasone?

A

Mometasone.

Clobetasone is moderate steroid

48
Q

Shiny, red nodule which is slow growing, central depression is ______ ________ carcinoma.

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma.

49
Q

If ph > 5.5 in NG tube aspirate, we do the definitive test __________ to check placement of NG tube.

A

Chest X-ray.

50
Q

Long term management of TIA in patient with A fib include _________ and atorvastatin,

A

Warfarin.

51
Q

Which is the more potent steroid? Hydrocortisone butyrate or hydrocortisone acetate?

A

hydrocortisone BUTyrate.

52
Q

Cafe-au-lait, frecking armpit, tumours of peripheral nerves are the autosomal dominant condition _______________ type 1.

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1.

53
Q

Acoustic Neuroma, Tumours of schwann cells are the autosomal dominant condition Neurofibromatosis type ____.

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 2.

54
Q

What type of epithelial metaplasia is associated with Barret’s oesophagus?

A

Squamous to columnar.

55
Q

Laxative to use with Impacted stool is ________ enema.

A

Phosphate enema

56
Q

Laxative to use with _______ stool is stool softeners eg: docusate.

A

Hard stool.

57
Q

In constipation with soft stools, 1st line laxative to use is a stimulant called __________

A

Senna.

58
Q

2nd line laxative to use in constipation of soft stools is _________ or Macrogol.

A

Lactulose.

59
Q

In pregnancy, Lactulose should be treated _____ line for constipation.

A

1st line.

60
Q

PC-DL When to test
_______:Cyclosporin - Digoxin:Lithium
Prior to next dose - 6 hours:12 hours post dose

A

Phenytoin.

61
Q

PC-DL When to test
Phenytoin:Cyclosporin - Digoxin:Lithium
Prior to next dose - _______:12 hours post dose

A

6 hours post dose.

62
Q

PC-DL When to test
Phenytoin:Cyclosporin - Digoxin:Lithium
Prior to next dose - 6 hours:_______ post dose

A

12 hours post dose.

63
Q

Hyperkalaemia, Hypotension, Hyponatremia are signs of __________ disease.

A

Addison’s disease.

64
Q

___________, Hypotension, Hyponatremia, are signs of Addison’s disease.

A

Hyperkalaemia.

65
Q

Hypertension and Hypokalaemia are signs of ________ syndrome.

A

Conn’s syndrome.

66
Q

Dark pigmentation on neck and severe acne are signs of _________ syndrome.

A 
Cushing's syndrome. 
Dark pigmentation (acathosis nigrans)
67
Q

Medications to treat menopausal symptoms in previous breast cancer patient include SNRI such as _________.

A

Venlafaxine

hormones contraindicated in breast cancer history!

68
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis for close contacts include 1st line oral ___________. 2nd line Rifampicin.

A

1st line Ciprofloxacin.

69
Q

Codeine, Furosemide, Spironolactone and Fluoxetine all causes side effect of _________ dysfunction.

A

Erectile dysfunction.

70
Q

Oligospermia is the side effect of 5’ ASA eg ___________.

A

Sulfasalazine.

71
Q

Post-myocardial infarction pericarditis occurs within a few ________.

A

days. (1-3 days)

72
Q

Post-MI ______ ________ aneurysm occurs 4-6 weeks.

A

Left Ventricular aneurysm.

73
Q

Central (eg brain tumour) cause hiccups 1st line is _________ and 2nd line is haloperidol.

A

Chlorpromazine.

74
Q

Phrenic nerve irritation causing hiccups we give __________.

A

Metoclopramide.

75
Q

Prolonged bleeding time and aPTT, reduced Factor VIII levels is associated with ______ _______ disease.

A

von Willebrand disease.

76
Q

Treatment of Lyme disease in normal patient is the antibiotic _______.

A

Doxycycline.

77
Q

In pregnancy Lyme disease is treated with _________.

A

Amoxicillin.

78
Q

Next line investigation if anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies is inconclusive for Coeliac disease is ______ __________ antibodies.

A

anti-endomysial antibodies.

79
Q

Bilateral serous otitis media (glue ear) is _________ hearing loss.

A

Conductive hearing loss. (CHL).

80
Q

L3,L4 ______ jerk.

A

knee jerk.

81
Q

S1, S2 _______ jerk.

A

ankle jerk.

82
Q

Relief for cluster headache is nasal _________.

A

nasal sumatriptan.

83
Q

Prevent ongoing episodes of cluster headaches is _________.

A

Topiramate.

84
Q

Low ADAMTS13 level, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, uraemia is related to _______ ________ purpura.

A

thrombotic thrombocytic purpura TTP.

85
Q

S3, S4 is ________ sphincter.

A

anal sphincter.

86
Q

Faecal calprotectin is ________ in Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and ________ in Irritatable Bowel syndrome.

A

positive in IBD and negative in IBS.

87
Q

Most common area of occlusion in TIA is _______ artery.

A

carotid artery.

88
Q

sensitivity = True pos / (true pos + ______)

A

true pos / (true pos + false neg)

89
Q

No bleeding and INR > 8, we would give oral _________ __.

A

oral Vitamin K.

90
Q

We give __________ acid in gum bleeds.

A

Tranexamic acid.

91
Q

Enzyme inducers of cytochrome P450 ________ INR.

A

decreases INR. (low INR clots fast)

92
Q

Enzyme inhibitors of cytochrome P450 ________ INR.

A

increases INR. (high INR clots slow-blood thin)

93
Q

Glucagon is given in __________ toxicity.

A

Bisoprolol.

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