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Cheatsheet Flashcards

1
Q

_________ chromosome in Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML).

A

Philadelphia chromosome.

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2
Q

CYP450 ________ ↓ INR ↓ bleeding ↓ warfarin effect

A

CYP450 inducers.

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3
Q

Chest compressions __:2 in children only for healthcare workers. All others 30:2.

A

15:2

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4
Q

Fever + ______ = INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS!!!

A

Fever + Murmur = Infective Endocarditis

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5
Q

______ + Murmur = INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS!!!

A

Fever + Murmur = Infective Endocarditis

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6
Q

Parkland formula for calculating burns:

Fluids: ___________ x weight (kg) x 4 mL

A

% of body burnt x weight (kg) x 4 mL

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7
Q

Granulocytes without blast cells is seen in Chronic _______ _______.

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia.

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8
Q

Smudge cells is seen in Chronic _________ leukemia.

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia.

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9
Q

Give Desmopressin (increases Factor VIII) in ___________ ___.

A

Haemophilia A.

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10
Q

Give_________ (increases Factor VIII) in Haemophilia A.

A

Desmopressin.

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11
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by ______ 8.

A

HHV 8.

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12
Q

______ _______ is caused by HHV 8

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma.

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13
Q

Parkland formula for calculating burns:

Fluids: % body burnt x ________ x 4 mL

A

weight (kg)

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14
Q

Listeria meningitis seen in _______, elderly, immunocompromised.

A

neonates

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15
Q

_______ meningitis seen in neonates, elderly, immunocompromised.

A

Listeria.

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16
Q

CT Head Children within 1 hour:

ONLY 1: Seizure, ↓ GCS , Skull fracture, _____ ________ _______.

A

Focal Neurological Deficit

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17
Q

CT Head Children within 1 hour:

ONLY 1: ______, ↓ GCS, Skull fracture, Focal neurological deficit.

A

Seizure.

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18
Q

CT Head Children within 1 hour:

ONLY 1: Seizure, ________ , Skull fracture, Focal neurological deficit.

A

↓ GCS

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19
Q

CT Head Children within 1 hour:

ONLY 1: Seizure, ↓ GCS, _____ _______, Focal neurological deficit.

A

Skull Fracture

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20
Q

CT Head Children within 1 hour:

AT LEAST 2: Long _____ ___ _______, Drowsiness, Vomiting (x3), RTA, Fall from Height, Amnesia > 5 mins.

A

Loss of Consciousness > 5 mins.

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21
Q

CT Head Children within 1 hour:

AT LEAST 2: Long Loss of Consciousness > 5 mins, ________, Vomiting (x3), RTA, Fall from > 3m Height, Amnesia > 5 mins.

A

drowsiness.

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22
Q

CT Head Children within 1 hour:

AT LEAST 2: Long LOC > 5 mins, Drowsiness, Vomiting (x3), RTA, Fall from > 3m Height, __________.

A

amnesia > 5 mins.

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23
Q

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia = Crazy ______ ______.

A

Crazy Massive Spleen.

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24
Q

Antiemetic for metabolic causes, drug-induced, toxin-induced → __________, Levomepromazine

A

Haloperidol

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25
Q

Gram positive bugs:

Staph, Strep, _______.

A

Listeria

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26
Q

Gram positive bugs:

______, Strep, Listeria.

A

Staphylococcus

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27
Q

Late presentation in paracetamol poisoning: ___-__________

A

N-Acetylcysteine.

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28
Q

Number Needed to Treat = 1 / _____ _______ ______

A

1 / Absolute Risk Reduction

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29
Q

Absolute Risk Reduction = ___________ - ART (AR of events in treatment group)

A

ARC (AR of events in control group) - ART (AR of events in treatment group)

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30
Q

Sensitivity = _____ _____ / (True Pos + False Neg)

A

True Positive

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31
Q

Sensitivity = True Pos / (_____ _____ + False Neg)

A

True Positive

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32
Q

Sensitivity = True Pos / (True Pos + _______ _____)

A

False Negative

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33
Q

Early presentation < 1 hour in paracetamol poisoning we do ________ ______.

A

Gastric lavage.

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34
Q

Cyclizine to use first line for _______ _____, hyperemesis gravidarum, bowel obstruction induced Nausea/Vomiting.

A

raised Intracranial pressure.

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35
Q

Ondansetron to use first line for _________ induced Nausea/Vomiting.

A

Radiotherapy/Chemotherapy

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36
Q

Low ADAMTS13 level, purpuric lesions indicate ________ thromcytopenic purpura.

A

TTP

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37
Q

___________ is used as treatment for TTP.

A

Plasmapheresis.

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38
Q

Ropirinole given in Restless Leg syndrome is Dopamine __________.

A

Dopamine Agonist.

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39
Q

________ given in Restless Leg syndrome is Dopamine Agonist.

A

Ropirinole

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40
Q

Diabetic medication PRS causes weight gain.

________, Repaglinide, Sulphonylureas (Gliclazide)..

A

Pioglitazone.

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41
Q

Diabetic medication PRS causes weight gain.

Pioglitazone, _________, Sulphonylureas (Gliclazide).

A

Repaglinide

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42
Q

Kidneys do not use MS in diabetic medications:

Metformin:__________.

A

Sulphonylureas

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43
Q

Kidneys do not use MS in diabetic medications:

________:Sulphonylureas.

A

Metformin

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44
Q

Kidney friendly drugs in diabetics are PRL.

Pioglitazone, Repaglinide, __________.

A

linaGliptins

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45
Q

Kidney friendly drugs in diabetics are PRL.

Pioglitazone, _________, linaGliptins.

A

Repaglinide.

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46
Q

SSRI to be given in age < 18 y/o are _________.

A

Fluoxetine.

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47
Q

SSRI for depression to be given in age ________ are Fluoxetine.

A

< 18 y/o.

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48
Q

______ odour = BV = Clue cells.

A

Fishy odour.

49
Q

Fishy odour = BV = ______ cells.

A

Clue cells.

50
Q

___________ to be used as prokinetic, sluggish bowel sounds.

A

Metoclopramide

51
Q

Pregnancy NORMAL Hb
First Trimester ______ g/L,
Second/Third < 105 g/L,
Postpartum < 100 g/L

A

First Trimester < 110 g/L.

52
Q

Pregnancy NORMAL Hb
First Trimester < 110 g/L,
Second/Third _____ g/L,
Postpartum < 100 g/L

A

Second Trimester < 105 g/L.

53
Q

Pregnancy NORMAL Hb
First Trimester < 110 g/L,
Second/Third < 105 g/L,
Postpartum _____ g/L.

A

Postpartum < 100 g/L

54
Q

Anaemia warranting blood tranfusion:
_____ g/L if symptomatic,
< 70 g/L regardless

A

< 80 g/L

55
Q

Anaemia warranting blood tranfusion:
< 80 g/L if symptomatic,
_____ regardless

A

< 70 g/L

56
Q 
CURB-65 score > 2 warranting hospital admission.
C-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
U-Urea > 7 mmol/L
R-Respiratory Rate > 30 
B-Blood pressure 90/60
65-Aged >65
A

Confusion

57
Q 
CURB-65 score > 2 warranting hospital admission.
C-Confusion
U-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
R-Respiratory Rate > 30 
B-Blood pressure 90/60
65-Aged >65
A

Urea > 7 mmol/L

58
Q 
CURB-65 score > 2 warranting hospital admission.
C-Confusion
U-Urea > 7 mmol/L
R-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
B-Blood pressure 90/60
65-Aged >65
A

Respiratory Rate > 30

59
Q 
CURB-65 score > 2 warranting hospital admission.
C-Confusion
U-Urea > 7 mmol/L
R-Respiratory Rate > 30 
B-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
65-Aged >65
A

Blood pressure 90/60

60
Q

Jaundice + Fever + ________ presents in Ascending cholangitis

A

RUQ pain

61
Q

Jaundice + ______ + RUQ pain presents in Ascending cholangitis

A

Fever

62
Q

________ + Fever + RUQ pain presents in Ascending cholangitis

A

Jaundice

63
Q

Jaundice + Fever + RUQ pain presents in ________ __________

A

Ascending cholangitis

64
Q

QRISK score _______ = prescribe atovarstatin 20mg daily

A

> 10%

65
Q

QRISK score > 10% = prescribe _______

A

atorvastatin 20 mg daily.

66
Q

________ ear = Avascular necrosis of pinna = Undrained large haematoma after blunt force trauma = Boxer’s ear/rugby

A

Cauliflower ear

67
Q

Avascular necrosis of pinna is due to undrained _______ haematoma after blunt force trauma seen in boxers

A

large haematoma

68
Q

Compensatory ABG: ↑ pCO2: _______

A

↑ HCO3

69
Q

Compensatory ABG: _______:↑ HCO3

A

↑ pCO2

70
Q

Urinary Incontinence:
Stress:______
Urge:Training/Drugs (Bladder Training/Antimuscarinics/Oxybutynin)

A

Exercise (Pelvic Floor exercises)

71
Q

Urinary Incontinence:
Stress:Exercise (Pelvic Floor exercises)
Urge: ________

A

Training/Drugs

Bladder Training/Antimuscarinics/Oxybutynin

72
Q

Urinary Incontinence:
______:Exercise (Pelvic Floor exercises)
Urge:Training/Drugs (Bladder Training/Antimuscarinics/Oxybutynin)

A

Stress incontinence

73
Q

Vasa Praevia vs Placenta Praevia

Fetal _____ vs Non Fetal distress

A

distress

74
Q

Vasa Praevia vs Placenta Praevia

Fetal distress vs _____ ______ _____

A

Non Fetal distress

75
Q

Pan-systolic murmurs occur in ____, TR, VSD

A

MR: Mitral Regurgitation

76
Q

Pan-systolic murmurs occur in MR, ___, VSD

A

TR: Triscuspid Regurgitation

77
Q

Pan-systolic murmurs occur in MR, TR, ____

A

VSD: Ventricular Septal Defect

78
Q

Level of Vertebrae:

T8 IVC, ___ Oesophagus, T12 Aorta, L4 Iliac crest

A

T10 Oesophagus

79
Q

Level of Vertebrae:

T8 ____, T10 Oesophagus, T12 Aorta, L4 Iliac crest

A

T8 IVC -Inferior Vena Cava

80
Q

Level of Vertebrae:

T8 IVC, T10 Oesophagus, T12 _____, L4 Iliac crest

A

T12 Aorta

81
Q

Level of Vertebrae:

____ IVC, T10 Oesophagus, T12 Aorta, L4 Iliac crest

A

T8 IVC

82
Q

Cystic Fibrosis in NEONATES:
_________ _______
Echogenic bowel on prenatal USG
Bilious vomiting

A

Meconium ileus

83
Q

Cystic Fibrosis in NEONATES:
Meconium ileus
_________ _____ on prenatal USG
bilious vomiting

A

Echogenic bowel on prenatal-USG

84
Q

Cystic Fibrosis in NEONATES:
Meconium ileus
Echogenic bowel on prenatal USG
________ vomitting

A

bilious vomiting

85
Q

COCP and ________ = decreased COCP effectiveness

A

Rifampicin

86
Q 
CRAP GPs: CYP450 Enzyme Inducer = ↓  INR
Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol - chronic
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
P\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Sulphonylurea-gliclazine
A

Phenobarbital

87
Q 
CRAP GPs:  CYP450 Enzyme Inducer = ↓  INR
Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
A\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbital
Sulphonylurea-gliclazine
A

Alcohol - chronic

88
Q 
CRAP GPs: CYP450 Enzyme Inducer = ↓  INR
C\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Rifampicin
Aicohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbital
Sulphonylurea-gliclazine
A

Carbamazepine

89
Q 
CRAP GPs:  CYP450 Enzyme Inducer = ↓  INR
Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol
P\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbital
Sulphonylurea-gliclazine
A

Phenytoin

90
Q 
CRAP GPs:  CYP450 Enzyme Inducer = ↓  INR
Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbital
S\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Sulphonylurea-gliclazine

91
Q

Smudge cells are seen in _______ ________ _______

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

92
Q

______ cells are seen in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

A

Smudge cells

93
Q

________ is one of the complication of Coeliac disease.

A

Lymphoma

94
Q

Ground-glass homogenous echos are seen in _______ ________.

A

Ovarian endometrioma. (chocolate cyst)

95
Q

Antibiotic regime for Chlamydia cervicitis:

1) ________ 100 mg BD for 7 days
2) Azithromycin 1g orally single dose + 500 mg OD for 2 days

A

Doxycycline

96
Q

Antibiotic regime for Chlamydia cervicitis:

1) Doxycycline 100 mg BD for 7 days
2) _________ 1g orally single dose + 500 mg OD for 2 days

A

Azithromycin

97
Q

Antibiotic regime for Gonorrhea cervicitis:

1) ________ 1g IM single dose
2) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg single dose

A

Ceftriaxone

98
Q

Antibiotic regime for Gonorrhea cervicitis:

1) Ceftriaxone 1g IM single dose
2) ________ 500 mg single dose

A

Ciprofloxacin

99
Q 
Antimicrobials for: 
Community-acquired Pneumonia:
Mild: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Moderate: Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin
Severe: Co-Amoxiclav + Clarithromycin
A

Amoxicillin

100
Q 
Antimicrobials for: 
Community-acquired Pneumonia:
Mild: Amoxicillin
Moderate: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ + \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Severe: Co-Amoxiclav + Clarithromycin
A

Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin

101
Q 
Antimicrobials for: 
Community-acquired Pneumonia:
Mild: Amoxicillin
Moderate: Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin
Severe: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ + \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Co-Amoxiclav + Clarithromycin

102
Q

Listeria meningitis we give:

________ + ________

A

Ampicillin + Gentamicin

103
Q

In Meningococcal / Pneumococcal / Haemophilus meningitis in hospital we give: ___________

A

Ceftriaxone

104
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis of closed contacts we give: ___________ or Ciprofloxacin

A

Rifampicin

105
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis of closed contacts we give: Rifampicin or ____________

A

Ciprofloxacin

106
Q

Flumazenil we give as antidote for ____________ toxicity.

A

benzodiazepine toxicity

107
Q

Travellers diarrhoea: Salmonella/ Shigella/ Campylobacter causes we give ___________ or Azithromycin or Ciprofloxacin

A

Erythromycin

108
Q

Travellers diarrhoea: Salmonella/ Shigella/ Campylobacter causes we give Erythromycin or __________ or Ciprofloxacin

A

Azithromycin

109
Q

Travellers diarrhoea: Salmonella/ Shigella/ Campylobacter causes we give Erythromycin or Azithromycin or ___________

A

Ciprofloxacin

110
Q

Acute otitis media we give antibiotic: __________

A

Amoxicillin

111
Q

Specificity = True Negative / ________

A

/ (True Negative + False Positive)

112
Q

Specificity = True Negative / (_______+ False Positive)

A

True Negative

113
Q

Specificity = ________ / (True Negative + False Positive)

A

True Negative

114
Q

Absolute Risk =/ total group

A

incident

115
Q

________ _____ = incident / total group

A

Absolute Risk

116
Q

Crypt abcess + decreased goblet cells are seen in __________ ________

A

Ulcerative Collitis

117
Q

Found Lateral to inferior epigastric vessels in deep inguinal ring is ___________ hernia

A

Indirect inguinal hernia.

118
Q

Found medial to the inferior epigastric vessels and traverses the fascia transversalis is the _________ inguinal hernia.

A

Direct inguinal hernia

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