JLo CASES Flashcards

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1
Q

**What is the principle of “subordinate legislation”?

A

T r o t t o s o g p h, t a l e, b r b p t d I g p b t l a v a l a o d I a a e o, n o I t e o t l, b a I t p o c r a r c t p p i

The rigidity of the theory of separation of governmental powers has, to a large extent, been relaxed by permitting the delegation of greater powers by the legislative and vesting a larger amount of discretion in administrative and executive officials, not only in the execution of the laws, but also in the promulgation of certain rules and regulations calculated to promote public interest

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2
Q

To whom is the principle of non-delegation of powers applicable?

T p o n- o p I
a t a t t m p o t
G b I e I I t c o
t l p b o t m I
w I d i p.

A

The principle of non-delegation of powers is applicable to all the three major powers of the Government but is especially important in the case of the legislative power because of the many instances when its delegation is permitted.

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3
Q

Why is delegation of legislative power has become the rule and its non-delegation the exception?

A

The reason is the increasing complexity of the task of government and the growing inability of the legislature to cope directly with the myriad problems demanding its attention.

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4
Q

In the delegation of legislative powers, what is the completeness test?

A

The law is complete when it sets the policy to be executed leaving nothing to the delegate except to implement it.

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5
Q

In the delegation of legislative powers, what is the sufficient standard test

A

There must be adequate guidelines or limitations in the law to map out the boundaries of the delegate’s authority and prevent the delegation from running amiss.

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6
Q

In the case of Sobrejuanite-Flores vs. Pilando, when is the administrative regulation valid.

Florentina averred that the requirement under Section 16(c) of the IRR of RA No. 10029 requiring “at least 100 hours of updating workshops and training programs” is unconstitutional because the law itself did not provide for such onerous and discriminatory provisions.

A

Administrative regulations enacted by administrative agencies to implement and interpret the law which they are entrusted to enforce have the force of law and are entitled to respect. The said rules and regulations, such as the IRR of RA 10029, partake of the nature of a statute and are just as binding as if they have been written in the statute itself. They have the force and effect of law and enjoy the presumption of constitutionality and legality until they are set aside with finality in an appropriate case by a competent court

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7
Q

In the determination of just compensation, who is vested as the Special Agrarian Court (SAC)?

W s I t r t t d o j
c I a j f, v w t
R a S, n w t a a. I t
e o s f, t R m w w
t p s b t g l a r.

A

Well-settled is the rule that the determination of just compensation is a judicial function, vested with the RTC as SAC, not with administrative agencies. In the exercise of such function, the RTC must work within the parameters set by the governing law and rules.

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8
Q

Is an award of legal interest allowed in determining just compensation?

A

When there is delay in payment, the Court has allowed the imposition of the governing legal interest rate upon the just compensation as finally determined by the court from the date of the taking until fully paid because the compensation due to the landowner is deemed to be an effective forbearance on the part of the State.

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9
Q

When can the Office of the Solicitor General excused from representing the government?

A

when there is an express authorization by the OSG, naming therein the legal officers who are being deputized in cases involving their respective offices, subject to its supervision and control, or when the OSG takes a position different from that of the agency it is duty bound to represent (HRET vs. Panga-Vega)

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10
Q

When does the Constitutional right against double jeopardy attaches?

A

When the following elements concur: (1) the accused is charged under a complaint or information sufficient in form and substance to sustain their conviction; (2) the court has jurisdiction; (3) the accused has been arraigned and has pleaded; and (4) the accused is convicted or acquitted, or the case is dismissed without his/her consent.

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11
Q

When is the rule on double jeopardy will not apply?

A

When there has been a grave abuse of discretion under exceptional circumstances that rendered the trial court without jurisdiction

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12
Q

Can private complainants cannot bring an action to review a judgment of acquittal without offending the constitutional guarantee against double jeopardy?

A

In the case of Mamerto Austria vs. AAA and BBB, the RTC committed grave abuse of discretion rendering the Joint Orders of acquittal void. On this point, a void judgment of acquittal cannot be the source of legal rights and has no binding effect. In contemplation of law, it is non-existent as if no judgment had been rendered at all. Thus, the accused right against double jeopardy is not violated.

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13
Q

When can a Petition be dismissed be dismissed for having become moot and academic?

A

Courts generally decline jurisdiction over such case or dismiss it on the ground of mootness. This is because the judgment will not serve any useful purpose or have any practical legal effect because, in the nature of things, it cannot be enforced.

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14
Q

Example of moot and academic case

A

The issue on SCB’s representation in the ManCom was obviously mooted by the dissolution of the ManCom, the removal of SCB as creditor in the Rehabilitation Plan, and the eventual termination of the rehabilitation proceedings. Likewise, the issue on the surrender of the collaterals was mooted by the CA Decision dated May 26, 2014 and Resolution dated January 27, 2015 in CA-G.R. SP Nos. 131652 and 132088, which recognized the sale or transfer of the pledged collaterals to LCPI pursuant to the Stipulation, Agreement and Order, as there is no more collateral in SCB’s possession to surrender. (MRM Assets Holding 2 vs Standard Chartered Bank

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15
Q

Are lands reclaimed from foreshore and submerged areas alienable?

A

No. Lands reclaimed from foreshore and submerged areas also form part of the public domain and are also inalienable.

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16
Q

When does lands reclaimed from foreshore and submerged areas becomes alienable?

A

When converted pursuant to law into alienable or disposable lands of the public domain.

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17
Q

When can submerged areas or land become alienable?

A

Submerged areas of Manila Bay remain inalienable natural resources of the public domain until classified as alienable or disposable lands open to disposition and declared no longer needed for public service. The government can make such classification and declaration only after PEA has reclaimed these submerged areas. Only then can these lands qualify as agricultural lands of the public domain, which are the only natural resources the government can alienate. (Central Bay Reclamation vs. COA)

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18
Q

Sample case of violation of Section 3, Article XII of the 1987 Constitution?

A

Since the Amended JVA seeks to transfer to AMARI, a private corporation, ownership of 77.34 hectares of the Freedom Islands, such transfer is void for being contrary to Section 3, Article XII of the 1987 Constitution which prohibits private corporations from acquiring any kind of alienable land of the public domain. (Central Bay Reclamation vs. COA)

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19
Q

Sample case of violation of Section 2, Article XII of the 1987 Constitution?

A

Since the Amended JVA also seeks to transfer to AMARI ownership of 290.156 hectares of still submerged areas of Manila Bay, such transfer is void for being contrary to Section 2, Article XII of the 1987 Constitution which prohibits the alienation of natural resources other than agricultural lands of the public domain.

Clearly the Amended JVA violates glaringly Sections 2 and 3, Article XII of the 1987 Constitution. Under Article 1409 of the Civil Code, contracts whose “object or purpose is contrary to law,” or whose “object is outside the commerce of men,” are “inexistent and void from the beginning.

(Central Bay Reclamation vs. COA)

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20
Q

When can COA correctly reject a Compromise Agreement ?

A

COA can correctly reject a Compromise Agreement absent congressional approval. In case the claim or liability exceeds one hundred thousand pesos, the application for relief therefrom shall be submitted, through the Commission and the President, with their recommendations, to the Congress.

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21
Q

How is the right to a speedy disposition of a case, like the right to a speedy trial, is deemed violated?

A
  1. When the proceeding is attended by vexatious,
    capricious, and oppressive delays; or
  2. When unjustified postponements of the
    trial are asked for and secured, or
  3. When without cause or justifiable motive,
    a long period of time is allowed to elapse without the party having his case
    tried. (Remulla v.
    Sandiganbaya
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22
Q

What is the “balancing test” determine whether a defendant’s right to a speedy trial and a speedy
disposition of cases has been violated?

A

(1) length of delay;
(2) reason for the delay;
(3) defendant’s assertion or non-assertion of his right; and
(4) prejudice to defendant resulting from delay.

None of these elements, however, is either a necessary or sufficient
condition; they are related and must be considered together with other
relevant circumstances.

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23
Q

How to determine if the delay was inordinate?

A

The determination of whether the delay was inordinate is NOT through mere mathematical reckoning but through the examination of the facts and circumstances surrounding the case.

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24
Q

How is the authority of the PDIC to condone?

A

The authority of PDIC to
condone applies only to ordinary receivables, penalties and surcharges
and must be submitted to the [COA] before it is implemented.

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25
Q

When does the power to compromise or release any claim or liability of government-owned
or controlled corporations (GOCC) and other agencies as expressly authorized by their charters exercised?

A

When the interest of the corporation
or agency so requires.

Thus, it is not enough that there is an express statutory authority for the exercise of the power to compromise; such act must be justified by the interest of the corporation or agency.

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26
Q

Can the government refused payment/money claim due to irregularities of the contract?

A

Payment of services done on account of the government cannot be avoided despite irregularity or nullity of the contract.

The High COurt have consistently sustained the grant of compensation to contractors, who have entirely or substantially
accomplished their obligation under the contract on the basis of quantum meruit, regardless of any invalidity or irregularity in its procurement. (PDIC vs COA GR 252411)

Quantum Meruit - When payment is based on quantum meruit, the amount of recovery
should be the reasonable value of the thing or services rendered regardless of any agreement as to value

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27
Q

What are the indispensable conditions that must be satisfied before a government agency or instrumentality hires a private lawyer?

A

(1) the hiring
must be justified by an exceptional circumstance; (2) the written conformity
and acquiescence of the OSG must be secured; and (3) the written concurrence
of the COA must also be obtained.

Exemption:
Exempting national government agencies and instrumentalities from the requirement of the COA’s prior written concurrence subject to specific conditions, the existence of which is to be determined by the COA.

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28
Q

Does the prohibition under
COA Circular No. 86-255, as amended, does not only cover the engagement of private lawyers on retainer fees for actual case litigations?

A

The prohibition covers
the hiring of private lawyers to render any form of legal service. It
makes no distinction as to whether or not the legal services to be
performed involve an actual legal controversy or court litigation. (Polloso v. Gangan)

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29
Q

What is the importance of the statutory procurement requirements ?

A

Public biddings, together with the other procurement requirements, are systematic and definitive methods governed by the principles of transparency, competitiveness, simplicity, and accountability, . To this end, administrative rules and regulations are enacted for strict and faithful compliance to protect the government coffers from unscrupulous transactions.

Payments made by virtue of contracts, awarded without complying with the express procedures of the law and the rules, are considered illegal expenditures which warrant disallowance

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30
Q

What is the purpose of statutory procurement requirements ?

A

Purposely adopted to protect public interest by giving the pubic the best possible advantages through open competition, and to avoid or preclude suspicion of favoritism and anomalies in the execution of public contracts

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31
Q

When are administrative rule or regulation considered valid?

A

An administrative rule or regulation, like DOH AO No. 2006-0011, may be considered valid only if it conforms, and not contradicts, the provisions of the enabling law. Necessarily, if a discrepancy occurs between the basic law and an implementing rule or regulation, it is the former that prevails, because the law cannot be limited nor broadened by mere administrative issuance. (San Larazo Hospital vs. COA)

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32
Q

Is using the rounding-off method in computing the separation pay of displaced or separated GOCC employees valid?

A

Court held that the rounding-off scheme indeed effectively increased the separation benefits of the separated employees.

Absent the President’s approval, it cannot be sustained. As the COA correctly held, the power of the [TransCo] Board to grant additional benefits under Sec. 13 of [RA] No. 9511 is subject to the limitation under Sec. 64 of [RA] No. 9136 requiring the President’s imprimatur for increases in emoluments and benefits of [TransCo] personnel.

The additional separation pay in this case, which resulted from the rounding-off of the length of service, remains to be illegal and unjustified because TransCo still failed to adduce proof of the required presidential approval.

(Transco vs COA)

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33
Q

What is the general rule of good faith in our jurisdiction?

A

Officers who participated in the approval of disallowed allowances or benefits are presumed to have acted in good faith in the performance of their duties.

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34
Q

What is the rule on liability to refund the
disallowed amounts?

A

Section 43 of the Administrative Code of 1987, which states that “every official or employee authorizing or making such payment, or taking part therein, and every person receiving such payment shall be jointly and severally liable to the Government for the full amount so paid or received.

Such civil liability of the officers is grounded upon the showing of bad faith, malice, or gross negligence in the performance of their official duties.

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35
Q

What amounts to gross negligence by public officers?

A

The palpable disregard of laws, prevailing jurisprudence, and other applicable directives amounts to gross negligence, which betrays the presumption of good faith and regularity in the performance of official functions enjoyed by public officers.

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36
Q

When is judicial review exercised ?

A

Judicial review may be exercised only when the person challenging the act has the requisite legal standing, which refers to a personal and substantial interest in the case such that he has sustained, or will sustain, direct injury as a result of its enforcement.

The party’s interest must also be material as distinguished from mere interest in the question involved, or a mere incidental interest.

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37
Q

How can a Plaintiff asserts a “public right” in assailing an allegedly illegal official action

A

He does so as a representative of the general public. Hence, he has to make out a sufficient interest in the vindication of the public order and the securing of relief

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38
Q

How is “Standing” alleged?

A

Whether such parties have “alleged such a personal stake in the outcome of the controversy.

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39
Q

When can the grant of an established practice rendered invalid?

A

The Court has previously held that practice, no matter how long continued, cannot give rise to any vested right if it is contrary to law. The erroneous application and enforcement of the law by public officers does not estop the Government from malting a subsequent correction of such errors.

Where the law expressly limits the grant of certain benefits to a specified class of persons, such limitation must be enforced even if it prejudices certain parties due to a previous mistake committed by public officials in granting such benefit.

(Kapisanan ng mga Manggagawa sa Government Service Insurance System (KMG) v. Commission on Audit)

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40
Q

How can one’s participation in the disallowed transaction is a determinant of the extent of liability?

A

While the officers’ good faith is determinative of their liability, such state of mind is immaterial to the recipients’ obligation because mere receipt of disallowed funds results in unduly benefitting from the government, giving rise to the obligation to refund.

(Madera v. Commission on Audit)

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41
Q

Can COA be gravely erred in excusing the passive recipients’ liability to return the rice allowance that they individually received solely on the basis of good faith?

A

Mere receipt of public funds without valid basis or justification, regardless of good faith or bad faith, is already undue benefit that gives rise to the obligation to return what was unduly received in accordance with the principles of solutio indebiti and unjust enrichment.

Mere receipt of public funds without valid basis or justification, regardless of good faith or bad faith, is already undue benefit that gives rise to the obligation to return what was unduly received in accordance with the principles of solutio indebiti and unjust enrichment. (HAGONOY WATER DISTRICT, CELESTINO S. VENGCO, AND REMEDIOS M. OSORIO, PETITIONERS, VS. COA)

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42
Q

When is the period to appeal or file a petition for review to the COA Proper?

A

The appeal shall be taken within the time remaining of the six (6) months period under Section 4, Rule V, taking into account the suspension of the ruling period under Section 5 of the same Rule in case of appeals from the Director’s decision.

SEC. 4. When Appeal Taken. - An Appeal must be filed within six (6) months after receipt of the decision appealed from.

SEC. 5. Interruption of Time to Appeal. - The receipt by the Director of the Appeal Memorandum shall stop the running of the period to appeal which shall resume to run upon receipt by the appellant of the Director’s decision.

Rule VII of the COA Revised Rules of Procedure

Arcena vs. COA

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43
Q

Why are Procedural rules essential?

A

Procedural rules are essential in the administration of justice.

They do not exist for the convenience of the litigants, but are established primarily to provide order to, and enhance the efficiency of our judicial system.

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44
Q

What is the doctrine of immutability of judgement?

A

The Court can no longer exercised its jurisdiction over a judgment which already attained finality can no longer be modified, much less reversed.

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45
Q

What is the prescribed procedure to appeal the COA decision?

A

The 2009 Revised Rules of Procedure of the COA prescribed the procedure to appeal the COA decision, to wit:
RULE IV
PROCEEDINGS BEFORE THE AUDITOR
x x x x
Section 8. Finality of the Auditor’s Decision. — Unless an appeal to the Director is taken, the decision of the Auditor shall become final upon the expiration of six (6) months from the date of receipt thereof.
x x x x
RULE V
PROCEEDINGS BEFORE THE DIRECTOR
x x x x
Section 4. When Appeal Taken. — An Appeal must be filed within six (6) months after receipt of the decision appealed from.
Section 5. Interruption of Time to Appeal. — The receipt by the Director of the Appeal Memorandum shall stop the running of the period to appeal which shall resume to run upon receipt by the appellant of the Director’s decision.

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46
Q

How is the Service of Copies of ND/NC/NS, Order or Decision, validly done?

A

Section 7,[38] Rule IV of the 2009 Revised Rules of Procedure of the COA provides:

In case there are several payees, as in the case of a disallowed payroll, service to the accountant who shall be responsible for informing all payees concerned, shall constitute constructive service to all payees listed in the payroll.

47
Q

What is the rule on the grant of “performance incentives”?

A

There must be a showing that the incentive had proper legal basis.

48
Q

What is the effect of the disallowance of entitlement to a “performance incentives bonus”?

A

It give rise to the duty to return the amount that was unduly received in accordance with the principles of unjust enrichment and solutio indebiti.

Unless there is a genuine and bona fide justification that would warrant the application of equitable considerations to absolve the recipients’ civil obligation to the government.

(NPC vs COA Jan 26, 2021)

49
Q

Who has the burden of proving the validity or legality of the grant of allowance, benefits, or compensation?

A

It is with the government agency or entity granting, or the employee claiming them. It must provide adequate evidence to establish the legal and factual basis for granting the incentives.

In the case of Ngalob vs COA, despite several opportunities before the Audit Team, the COA-CAR, the COA Proper, and even before this Court, the RDC-CAR consistently disregarded its burden to prove the validity or legality of the disallowed incentives by failing to present an approved special project plan in accordance with paragraph 4.3 of DBM Circular 2007-2

50
Q

Provide the jurisprudential variations in the refund of disallowed amounts and formulated rules for the liabilities of the persons involved.

A

The civil liability of approving or certifying officers provided under Administrative Code of 1987, and the treatment of such liability as solidary under the same Code, are grounded upon the manifest bad faith, malice, or gross negligence of public officers, who have in their favor the presumption of good faith and regularity in the performance of official duty.

On the other hand, the payees’ obligation in a disallowed transaction is grounded upon the civil law principles of solutio indebiti and unjust enrichment

51
Q

What is the rule of good/bad faith in obligation to return in disallowance cases? Are there exceptions”

A

While the officers’ good faith or bad faith is determinative of their liability, such state of mind is immaterial with regard to the recipients’ obligation to return in disallowance cases.

By way of exception:
1. the recipients do not incur liability to refund when they can prove their entitlement to what they received as a matter of fact and law
2. undue prejudice, social justice considerations, and other bona fide exceptions depending on the purpose and nature of the disallowed amount relative to the attending circumstances.

52
Q

Did COA committed grave abuse of discretion when it denied the request for relief from accountability in the absence of security escort which indicate negligence?

A

COA committed grave abuse of discretion when it denied the request for relief from accountability.

The conclusion that the accountable officers, in hindsight, should have requested a security escort is insufficient to establish negligence. While the COA’s diligence in guarding public properties and funds is admirable, we stress that it should not be at the cost of government employees who are not guilty of negligence, and who, in the performance of their duties, risk their lives and limbs.

(Angeles vs COA)

53
Q

What is Negligence?

A

Stated otherwise, negligence is want of care required by the circumstances. Negligence is, therefore, a relative or comparative concept. Its application depends upon the situation the parties are in, and the degree of care and vigilance which the prevailing circumstances reasonably require.

(Bintudan v. Commission on Audit)

54
Q

What is the rule in the return of disallowed amounts

A

The General rule is that recipients should be liable to return the disallowed amounts that they received.

Compassionate justice considerations, being mere exceptions to such liability, must be applied only in clearly meritorious cases.

55
Q

How is the legality of his warrantless arrest deemed waived?

A

When the accused: 1. entered his plea during arraignment
2. actively participated in the trial
3. Did not move to quash the information on the ground of the illegality of arrest.

Consequently, the trial court obtained jurisdiction over the accused, and any supposed defect in his arrest was deemed waived.

(Santia vs, Poeple of the Philippines GR 232147?

56
Q

When should the legality of a warrantless arrest deemed waived?

A
  1. Any objection by an accused to an arrest without a warrant must be made before he enters his plea, otherwise, the objection is deemed waived.
  2. An accused may be estopped from assailing the illegality of his arrest if he fails to challenge the information against him before his arraignment.
57
Q

What is the effect of of failure to question the legality of an arrest?

A

It affects only the jurisdiction of the court over the person of the accused, and any defect in his arrest may be deemed cured when he voluntarily submitted to the jurisdiction of the trial court.

58
Q

What is the Plain View Doctrine?

A

Objects falling in the plain view of an officer who has the right to be in the position to have the view are subject to seizure and may be presented in evidence

59
Q

What does the Plain View Doctrine requires?

A

(a) the law enforcement officer in search of the evidence has prior justification for an intrusion or is in a position from which he can view a particular area;
(b) the discovery of the evidence in plain view is inadvertent; and
(c) it is immediately apparent to the officer that the item he observes may be evidence of a crime, contraband or otherwise subject to seizure

60
Q

What determines the crime charged against the accused?

Arturo was accused of violating COMELEC Resolution No. 8714. The charge against him is in relation to BP Blg. 881 and the amendatory law, RA No. 7166.

The facts pleaded in the information constitute the offense of carrying firearms outside residence or place of business under Section 261 (q) of BP Blg. 881. Thus, Arturo was duly apprised of the charge against him; there is no violation of his constitutional right to be informed of the nature of the accusation against him.

(Santia v. People GR 232147)

A

It is well-settled that it is the recital of facts of the commission of the offense in the information, not the nomenclature of the offense that determines the crime charged against the accused.

Differently stated, the crime is not determined by the caption or preamble of the information nor from the specification of the provision of law alleged to have been violated, but by the factual allegations in the complaint or information.

61
Q

When are checkpoints valid?

Checkpoint conducted by the Malay Police was pursuant to the gun ban enforced by the COMELEC.

(Santia v. People GR 232147)

A

Checkpoints, which are warranted by the exigencies of public order and are conducted in a way least intrusive to motorists, are allowed since the COMELEC would be hard put to implement the ban if its deputized agents are limited to a visual search of pedestrians.

62
Q

What are the guidelines in the conduct of bus searches?

A
  1. Prior to entry, passengers and their bags and [luggage] can be subjected to a routine inspection akin to airport and seaport security protocol. In this regard, metal detectors and x-ray scanning machines can be installed at bus terminals.
  2. Passengers can also be frisked. In lieu of electronic scanners, passengers can be required instead to open their bags and [luggage] for inspection, which inspection must be made in the passenger’s presence.
  3. Should the passenger object, he or she can validly be refused entry into the terminal.
63
Q

What is the elements illegal possession of firearm during a gun ban?

(Santia v. People GR 232147)

A

(Ismael and Alijon v. People GR 234435-36)

  1. The existence of a firearm, and
  2. the accused who owned or possessed the firearm does not have the corresponding license or permit to possess the same.

The burden to adduce evidence that the accused is exempt from the COMELEC Gun Ban lies with the accused.

64
Q

When is the constitutional right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation transgressed?

A

So long as the criminal information clearly alleges the acts constituting the offense specifically imputed against the accused for them to properly their defense, he constitutional right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusations is not transgressed

65
Q

Is the information alleging conspiracy stands even if only person is charged?

A

An information alleging conspiracy can stand even if only one
person is charged except that the court cannot pass verdict on the co-conspirators who were not charged in the information.

66
Q

What is the basis of corrupt practices under RA 3019 (The Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act) in relation to

A

The prosecution must present proof beyond reasonable doubt that
the officer’s act or omission is accompanied with the elements of
1. manifest partiality, 2. evident bad faith, or
3. gross inexcusable negligence

to justify the conviction. Bad faith is never
presumed, especially in criminal cases which have its existence as an
element.

67
Q

Right to speedy disposition of cases vs Right to speedy trial

A

Right to speedy trial may only be invoked in criminal prosecutions against courts of law

vs.

Right to speedy disposition of cases, however, may be invoked before any tribunal, whether judicial or quasi-judicial. What is important is that the accused may already be prejudiced by the proceeding for the right to speedy disposition of cases to be invoked.

68
Q

What constitute a valid waiver of the right to speedy disposition of cases?

A

1) that the right exists;
(2) that the person involved had knowledge of the existence of such right, either actual or constructive; and,
(3) that said person had an actual intention to relinquish the right.

Moreover, the waiver should not only be voluntary but must also be knowingly and intelligently made.

69
Q

Is the failure to assert the right to speedy disposition of cases before the Ombudsman is a ground for the denial of the motion to quash?

A

No. Court finds that Rene’s failure to assert his right before the Ombudsman is not a ground for the denial of the motion to quash absent any pleading or act on his part that contributed to the deferral of the proceedings.

The burden is not upon Rene to ensure that the wheels of justice continue to turn. Rather, it is for the State to guarantee that the cases are disposed of within a reasonable period. It is sufficient that Rene raised the constitutional violation after the Sandiganbayan admitted the amended informations and prior to his arraignment

(Figueroa vs SB GR 235965-66)

70
Q

Naturalization

When is the declaration of intention to become a citizen of the Philippines filed before the DOJ?

A

The declaration of intention must be filled one year prior to the filing of the petition for naturalization.

In one case, the one-year period must be computed from Mohamed’s filing of
his supplemental declaration of
intention because he introduced substantial change in the original
declaration.

(SEFYAN ABDELHAKIM MOHAMED vs. REPUBLIC of the PHILIPPINES GR 220674)

71
Q

Is the filing of declaration of intention of one year prior to the filing of the petition for naturalization can be waived?

A

The filing of such declaration of intention, upon faithful compliance with the statutory requirements, is mandatory and an absolute prerequisite to naturalization.

Moreover, the premature filing of the petition for naturalization before the expiration of the one-year period is fatal.

72
Q

What is the purpose of the 1 yr period of filing of declaration of intention for naturalization?

A

The period is designed to give the government ample time to screen and examine the qualifications of an applicant and to measure the latter’s good intention and sincerity of purpose.

73
Q

ELECTIION LAWS

Can the COMELEC validly extend the deadline for submission of the SOCEs and exempt the candidates and political parties exempt from administrative liabilities?

A

No. The COMELEC cannot validly extend the deadline for submission of the SOCEs and exempt the candidates and political parties exempt from administrative liabilities.

The Court agrees with the PDP-Laban and Peralta, et al. that the language of Section 14 of RA No. 7166 is unambiguous and that the required SOCEs must be filed within 30 days after the elections.

Foremost, verba legis non est recedendum is a basic rule in statutory construction.[21] The maxim translates “from the words of a statute there should be no departure.

(PDP-Laban v. COMELEC GR 225152)

74
Q

What is the maxim, verba legis non est recedendum?

A

The maxim translates “from the words of a statute there should be no departure.” Differently stated, a statute that is clear is not susceptible to interpretation and should be applied regardless of who may be affected, even if the law is harsh and onerous.

The remedy is with Congress to modify or even abandon the law.

75
Q

Can COMELEC judgment be controlled by Mandamus?

A

Mandamus will not lie to control the judgment of an independent constitutional body over matters which the law gives it the authority to decide absent grave abuse of discretion.

76
Q

What are the requirements to warrant the issuance of a writ of mandamus?

A

1) the petitioner has a clear and unmistakable legal right to the act demanded;

(2) it is the duty of the respondent to perform the act because it is required by law;

(3) the respondent unlawfully neglects the duty enjoined by law or unlawfully excludes the petitioner from the use or enjoyment of the right or office;

(4) the act to be performed is ministerial; and

(5) there is no plain, speedy, and adequate remedy in the ordinary course of law

These requirements are wanting in this case. The assailed COMELEC actions involve the exercise of judgment. Moreover, there was no grave abuse of discretion. (Unlayao v. COMELEC GR 246332)

77
Q

What is the constitutional duty of COMELEC?

A

The COMELEC is vested with the constitutional power and function to “enforce and administer all laws and regulations relative to the conduct of an election.” Among its powers is the promulgation of rules and regulations of election laws. It exercises discretion on how certain aspects of elections are implemented. This is explicit in the following provisions of RA No. 8436, as amended, by RA No. 9369.

78
Q

Can a petition for mandamus is dismissible on the ground of mootness?

A

Yes. A case becomes “moot” when it ceases to present a justiciable controversy by supervening events so that a declaration thereon would be of no practical use or value.

Here, the conclusion of the 2019 National Elections rendered the petition academic. ((Unlayao v. COMELEC GR 246332))

79
Q

When can the court decide on cases, otherwise moot and academic?

A
  1. there is a grave violation of the Constitution;
  2. the exceptional character of the situation and the paramount public interest is involved;

3.when the constitutional issue raised requires formulation of controlling principles to guide the bench, the bar, and the public; and
4. the case is capable of repetition yet evading review.

80
Q

When can the COMELEC motu proprio
declare candidates as nuisance?

A

Section 69 of the OEC:

The Commission may,
1. motu proprio or
2. upon a verified petition of an interested party, refuse to give due course to or cancel a certificate of candidacy if:

A. it is shown that said certificate has been filed to put the election process in mockery or disrepute or

B. to cause confusion among the voters by the similarity of the names of the registered candidates or

C. by other circumstances or acts which clearly demonstrate that the candidate has no bona fide intention to run for the office for which the certificate of candidacy has been filed

thus prevent a faithful determination of the true will of the electorate.

81
Q

Does the COMELEC has the authority to declare a nuisance candidate under Section 69 of the Omnibus Election Code?

A

The authority of the COMELEC to refuse due course to or cancel the CoC of nuisance candidate under Section 69 of the Omnibus Election Code applies to elections of all public officers.

82
Q

Is the last phrase in Section 69 of the
OEC “by other circumstances or acts which clearly demonstrates that the candidate has no bona fide intention to run for the office” constitutional?

A

The last phrase in Section 69 of the
OEC, which allows the COMELEC to declare a candidate a nuisance based on acts demonstrating a lack of bona fide intention to run for office, is constitutional.

It does not violate the due process
clause, the right of suffrage, or the equal protection clause. It serves as a valid limitation on the privilege to run for public office.

83
Q

Can the Comelec declare a candidate nuisance solely based on CoC?

A

The Comelec had legal and factual grounds to declare a candidate a nuisance candidate. The absence of strong financial capacity and political machinery justified the decision.

The Supreme Court upheld the application of Section 60 of OEC and clarified it remains the fundamental laws on elections, it serves as a valid limitation on the privilege to run for public office.

(De Alban vs. COMELEC GR 243968)

84
Q

What is the limitation of the CSC’ s rule-making power?

A

The laws that the CSC interprets and enforces fall within the prerogative of Congress.

As an administrative agency, the CSC’s quasi-legislative power is subject to the same limitations applicable to other administrative bodies. The rules that the CSC formulates must not override, but must be in harmony with, the law it seeks to apply and implement

85
Q

What is the status of the decisions of Regional administrative offices?

A

Decisions of the Regional Offices are not ipso facto executory.

The finality of a decision of Regional Offices requires a collegial action by the Commission Proper

86
Q

When is a decisions of Regional Offices / Commission Proper immediately executory?

A

Under Uniform Rules on Administrative Cases in the Civil Service,

The decisions of the Commission Proper or its Regional Offices shall be immediately executory after fifteen (15) days from receipt thereof, unless a motion for reconsideration is seasonably filed, in which case the execution of the decision shall be held in abeyance.

87
Q

Can dismissal from service executory pending appeal?

A

Dismissal from the service imposed by the Civil Service Commission Regional Office (CSCRO) cannot be executed pending appeal with the Civil Service Commission Proper (CSC). Premature execution of the decision ordering the employee’s dismissal from the service entitles the employee to the payment of backwages even though the employee is not fully exonerated on appeal.

(DepEd vs. Maneja FR 209052)

88
Q

Can the accused be held civilly liable even after the acquittal in the criminal case?

A

Yes, Every person criminally liable for a felony is also civilly liable.

The dismissal of the criminal action does not carry with it the extinction of the civil liability where: “(a) the acquittal is based on reasonable doubt as only preponderance of evidence is required;

(b) the court declares that the liability of the accused is only civil; and

(c) the civil liability of the accused does not arise from or is not based upon the crime of which the accused is acquitted.

89
Q

What is the quantum of proof to establish civil liability?

A

It is Preponderance of evidence.

It is evidence which is more convincing to the court as worthy of belief than that which is offered in opposition thereto.

90
Q

What is the threefold liability rule?

A

The threefold liability rule
- the wrongful acts or omissions of public officers may give rise to civil, criminal and administrative liabilities.

Corollarily, public officers could still be held civilly liable to reimburse the injured party notwithstanding their acquittal.

91
Q

What is the quantum of proof in administrative proceedings?

A

The quantum of proof in administrative proceedings necessary for a finding of guilt is -

substantial evidence -

or such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind may accept as adequate to support a conclusion

92
Q

How to prove grave misconduct in bribery or extortion cases?

A
  1. Evidence showing corruption,
  2. clear intent to violate the law, or
  3. flagrant disregard of the rules

**There is no evidence to establish the extortion. It is incumbent upon the NBI to prove that Conrado attempted to solicit money from Francis. Yet, the NBI failed to present competent evidence and merely relied on Francis’ unsubstantiated narrations.

(NBI vs Najera GR 237522)

93
Q

What evidence is controlling in administrative bodies in the adjudication of cases?

A

While the rules of evidence are not controlling in administrative bodies in the adjudication of cases, the evidence presented before them must at least have a modicum of admissibility for it to be given some probative value.

94
Q

Is the official who is the head of the audited agency suffice to hold him or her personally liable for disallowances on account of his or her subordinate’s actions?

A

No. Liability depends upon the wrong committed and not solely by reason of being the head of an agency.

Absent a clear showing of wrongdoing and bad faith, malice, or gross negligence on the part of the public officer, the presumptions of good faith and regularity in the performance of official duty shall prevail.

Petitioner should be absolved from civil liability because he had no participation or knowledge at all in the disallowed transaction/s.

(Ampatuan vs. COA GR252007)

95
Q

In administrative cases, what are the elements of newly discovered evidence to be admissible as evidence?

A

Newly-discovered evidence may be admissible in evidence if the following requisites are present:

(1) that the evidence was discovered after trial;

(2) that the evidence could not have been discovered and produced at the trial even with the exercise of reasonable diligence;

(3) that it is material, not merely cumulative, corroborative or impeaching; and

(4) that the evidence is of such weight that, if admitted, would probably change the judgment.

The substitute PDS meets the criteria for newly discovered evidence. (Ramos vs. Rosell GR 241363)

96
Q

In administrative cases, what is Simple negligence?

A

Simple negligence means the failure of an employee or official to give proper attention to a task expected of him or her, signifying a disregard of a duty resulting from carelessness or indifference

Here, Ramos was negligent in filling out her PDS when she declared that she was a CSSPE holder and that she obtained a rating of 80.03 in the CS examination. She was likewise negligent when she failed to verify that the HRMO forwarded the corrected or updated PDS to the CSC. (Ramos vs. Rosell GR 241363)

Ramos is not liable for Serious Dishonesty, Grave Misconduct, Conduct Prejudicial to the Best Interest of the
Service, and Falsification of Official Documents. She is liable for simple
negligence only.

97
Q

Is the finding of liability for a lesser offense equivalent to exoneration?

A

A finding of liability for a lesser offense is not equivalent to exoneration; and, the mere reduction of the penalty on appeal does not entitle a government employee to back salaries as he was not exonerated of the charge against him.

In the case of Ramos vs. Rosell , Ramos is not entitled to backwages because she is not completely exonerated from the charges.

98
Q

What constitute Grave misconduct for public officers?

A

That the public officer is impelled by any corrupt or ill motive or intent to gain or profit that would constitute the offense of grave misconduct.

99
Q

Does reliance on subordinate’s logbook amounted to gross negligence?

A

No.

Although supervising the workers of the Oyster Program may have consisted a very small percentage of Ricardo’s tasks, he was still duty-bound to faithfully accomplish it, and to not simply entrust it to his subordinate.

Thus, Ricardo cannot be excused for having merely relied on his subordinate, even if it was done in good faith. However, this Court finds that Ricardo’s negligence in this case cannot be considered as gross.

The carelessness is tantamount to simple negligence, which did not involve the element of intent.

(Trinidad Jr vs. Office of the Ombudsman GR 227440)

100
Q

Who are Public Officers

A

To be a public officer, one must be:

(1) Taking part in the performance of public functions in the government, or Performing in said Government or any of its branches public duties as an employee, agent, or subordinate official, of any rank or class; and

(2) That his authority to take part in the performance of public functions or to perform public duties must be —

a. by direct provision of the law, or
b. by popular election, or
c. by appointment by competent authority.[1

101
Q

What are the three attributes is necessary to consider an entity a GOCC?

A

(1) any agency organized as a stock or non-stock corporation;

(2) vested with functions relating to public needs whether governmental or proprietary in nature; and, (3) owned by the Government directly or through its instrumentalities either wholly, or, where applicable as in the case of stock corporations, to the extent of at least 51% of its capital stock.

102
Q

How is Sec. 3 (e) of RA No. 3019 may be committed?

A

In Uriarte v. People, Sec. 3 (e) of RA No. 3019 may be committed either by :

a. dolo - as when the accused acted with evident bad faith or manifest partiality, or
b. culpa - as when the accused committed gross inexcusable negligence

103
Q

What is Manifest partiality as per Sec. 3 (e) of RA No. 3019 ?

A

Manifest partiality - signifies a clear, notorious, or plain inclination or predilection to favor one side or person rather than another

104
Q

What is Gross inexcusable negligence as per Sec. 3 (e) of RA No. 3019 ?

A

Gross inexcusable negligence - is the degree of negligence characterized by the want of even the slightest care, acting or omitting to act in a situation where there is a duty to act, not inadvertently but willfully and intentionally, with conscious indifference to consequences insofar as other persons may be affected

105
Q

What is Evident bad faith as per Sec. 3 (e) of RA No. 3019 ?

A

Evident bad faith - entails not only bad judgment but also palpably and patently fraudulent and dishonest purpose to do moral obliquity or conscious wrongdoing for some perverse motive or ill will

106
Q

Can the Court review the Ombudsman’s finding of probable cause?

A

Following this principle of non-interference, the Court exercises restraint in reviewing the Ombudsman’s finding of probable cause.

Since this Court is not a trier of facts, it generally defers to the sound judgment of the Ombudsman, as it is in a better position to assess the facts and circumstances necessary to find probable cause.

107
Q

Is there an exception as when the Court reviews Ombudsman’s finding of probable cause?

A

The only exception is when there is grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction.

Moreover:
(a) to afford protection to the constitutional rights of the accused;
(b) when necessary for the orderly administration of justice or to avoid oppression or multiplicity of actions;
(c) when there is a prejudicial question which is sub judice;
(d) when the acts of the officer are without or in excess of authority;
(e) where the prosecution is under an invalid law, ordinance or regulation;
(f) when double jeopardy is clearly apparent;
(g) where the court has no jurisdiction over the offense;
(h) where it is a case of persecution rather than prosecution; and
(i) where the charges are manifestly false and motivated by the lust for vengeance

108
Q

Describe the power of the of the Ombudsman to investigate.

A

As an independent constitutional body, the power of the Ombudsman to investigate is plenary and unqualified such that it has full discretion to determine whether a criminal case should be filed or not based on the attendant facts and circumstances of each case.

109
Q

What is the duty of the agencies tasked with preliminary investigation?

A

The effort to eradicate graft and corruption and remove scalawags in government is commendable. Yet, this Court cannot overemphasize the admonition to agencies tasked with preliminary investigation to shield the innocent from precipitate, spiteful and burdensome prosecution.

(Macasil vs. Faio GR 226898)

110
Q

What is Fiscal decentralization — as an aspect of local autonomy?

A

Does not signify the absolute freedom of the LGUs to create their own sources of revenue and to spend their revenues unrestrictedly or upon their individual whims and caprice.

Indeed, local autonomy was never intended to sever the partnership and interdependence between the central administration and LGUs.[

111
Q

Are exemption on the responsibility to return?

A

As a general rule, invocation of good faith as passive recipients cannot exonerate their liability to refund.

Exceptions:
(1) benefits or incentives were genuinely given in consideration of services rendered; or

(2) when excused by the Court on the basis of undue prejudice, social justice considerations, and other bona fide exceptions depending on the purpose, nature, and amount of the disallowed benefit or incentive relative to the attending circumstances (Equitable Considerations)

(3) when three years have already lapsed from the time of receipt of the disallowed allowances or benefits before an ND or any similar notice indicating illegality or irregularity of the disbursement was issued.

In the case of Cagayan De Oro City Water District v. Commission on Audit, on grounds of equity and fairness, the lapse of this three-year period is reasonable to excuse recipients from liability in the disallowed transactions.

112
Q

How are the factual findings of administrative bodies treated by Court?

A

The factual findings of administrative bodies are accorded great weight and respect and even finality by this Court, except when their findings conflict with that of the appellate court.

113
Q

State the NEW LAWYERS OATH.

A

I IVY TOMENLACO ESTOR do solemnly swear that I accept the honor, privilege, duty and responsibility of practicing law in the Philippines as an officer of the court, in the interest of our people.

I declare fealty to the constitution of the Republic of the Philippines.

In so doing, I shall work towards promoting the rule of law in a regime of truth, justice, freedom, love, equality and peace.

I shall conscientiously and courageously work for justice as well as safeguard the rights and meaningful freedoms of all persons, identities and communities.

I shall ensure greater and equitable access to justice.

I shall do no falsehood, nor shall I pervert the law to unjustly favor or prejudice anyone.

I shall faithfully discharge these duties and responsibilities to the best of my ability, with integrity and utmost civility.

I impose upon myself without mental reservation nor purpose of evasion.

So help me God.