Jepessen

Question 1

Define MORA.

Answer 1

This is an altitude that provides known obstruction clearance 10 NM either side of the route centreline.

Question 2

Define MSA.

Answer 2

MSA provides a 1,000 ft obstacle clearance within a 25 NM radius from the navigational facility upon which the MSA is predicted.

Question 3

Define DEPENDENT PARALLEL APPROACHES.

Answer 3

Simultaneous approaches to parallel or near-paral- lel instrument runways where radar separation minima between aircraft on adjacent extended runway centre lines are prescribed.
(P.78)

Question 4

What is the difference between Distress and Urgency?

Answer 4

URGENCY — A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft/person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
DISTRESS — A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
(P.78)

Question 5

Define Final Approach.

Answer 5

FINAL APPROACH (ICAO) — That part of an instrument approach procedure which commences at the specified final approach fix or point, or where such a fix or point is not specified,
a. at the end of the last procedure turn, base turn or inbound turn of a racetrack procedure, if specified; or
b. at the point of interception of the last track specified in the approach procedure; and ends at a point in the vicinity of an aerodrome from which:
1. a landing can be made; or
2. a missed approach procedure is initiated.
(P.80)

Question 6

Define FAF.

Answer 6

FINAL APPROACH FIX (FAF) — The fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an airport is executed and which identifies the beginning of the final approach segment. It is designated in the profile view of Jeppesen Terminal charts by the Maltese Cross symbol for non-precision approaches and by the glide slope/path intercept point on precision approaches.
(p. 80)

Question 7

Define MOCA.

Answer 7

MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE (MOCA) — The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment.
(p. 90)

Question 8

Define MORA.

Answer 8

MINIMUM OFF-ROUTE ALTITUDE (MORA) — This is an altitude derived by Jeppesen. The MORA provides known obstruction clearance 10NM either side of the route centerline.
(p.80)

Question 9

What is “Near-Parallel RWYs”?

Answer 9

NEAR-PARALLEL RUNWAYS — Non-intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of convergence/divergence of 15 degrees or less.
(p.92)

Question 10

Define OCA.

Answer 10

OBSTACLE CLEARANCE ALTITUDE (OCA) OR OBSTACLE CLEARANCE HEIGHT (OCH) — The lowest altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
(p.92)

Question 11

What is SSR?

Answer 11

SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR (SSR) — A surveillance radar system which uses trans- mitters/receivers (interrogators) and transponders.
(p.99)

Question 12

What is SEGREGATED PARALLEL OPERATIONS?

Answer 12

SEGREGATED PARALLEL OPERATIONS — Simultaneous operations on parallel or near-paral- lel instrument runways in which one runway is used exclusively for approaches and the other runway is used exclusively for departures.
(p.100)

Question 13

Define SLUSH.

Answer 13

SLUSH — Water-saturated snow which with a heel-and-toe slap-down motion against the ground will be displaced with a splatter; specific gravity: 0.5 up to 0.8.
(p.100)

Question 14

What is the definition of THRESHOLD?

Answer 14

THRESHOLD (THR) — The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing.
(p.104)

Question 15

What is VISIBILITY (according to ICAO)?

Answer 15

VISIBILITY (ICAO) — The ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of distance, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night.

a. Flight Visibility — The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
b. Ground Visibility — The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer.
c. Runway Visual Range (RVR) — The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the center- line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centerline.
(p. 106)

Question 16

During a taxi in BGN, you encounter a red sign “30-APCH”. What does it mean?

Answer 16

If it is necessary to hold an aircraft on a taxiway located in the approach or departure area for a runway so that the aircraft does not interfere with operations on that runway a sign with the designation of the approach end of the runway followed by a “dash” (-) and letters “APCH” will be located at the holding position on the taxiway.
(p.197)

Question 17

What is the Localizer envelope - angles and distances?

Answer 17

Up to 10M: +/-35 deg.
10-18M: +/-10 deg.
(p.321)

Question 18

What is the maximum offset an LDA approach can have from the RWY course?

Answer 18

The LDA is not aligned with the runway. Straight-in minimums may be published where alignment does not exceed 30 degrees between the course and runway. Circling minimums only are published where this alignment exceeds 30 degrees.
(p.321)

Question 19

Until what distance a glide slope is normally useable?

Answer 19

The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of 10 NM. However, at some locations, the glide slope has been certified for an extended service volume which exceeds 10 NM.
(p.322)

Question 20

Define MEA.

Answer 20

The altitude for an enroute segment that provides adequate reception of relevant navigation facilities and ATS communications, complies with the airspace structure and provides the required obstacle clearance.
(p.916)

Question 21

Define MSA.

Answer 21

The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 1000 ft above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle of 25 NM radius centered on a significant point.
(p.916)

Question 22

What is RVR?

Answer 22

The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.
(p.921)

Question 23

What is PROCEDURE DESIGN GRADIENT (PDG)?

When the climb gradient is specified for a SID?

Answer 23

The procedure design gradient (PDG) is intended as an aid to the procedures designer, who adjusts the route with the intention of minimizing the PDG consistent with other constraints.
Published gradients are specified to an altitude/height after which the minimum gradient of 3.3 per cent is considered to prevail.
(p.941)

Question 24

Under which conditions we will see a comment: “Expect close in obstacles” at the departure?

Answer 24

Gradients to a height of 60 m (200 ft) or less, caused by close-in obstacles, are not specified. A note will be published stating that the close-in obstacles exist.
(p.943)

Question 25

What is the missed approach climb gradient in an ILS approach, unless otherwise is noted on the approach chart?

Answer 25

Unless otherwise noted on the instrument approach chart, the nominal missed approach climb gradient is 2.5 per cent.
(p.976)

Question 26

During holding, the turns should be made at which rate?

Answer 26

All turns are to be made at a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
(p.991)

Question 27

PANS-OPS holding speeds.

Answer 27

Up to 14,000' - 230kt
14,000'-20,000 - 240kt
20,000'-34,000' - 265kt
Above 34,000' - 0.83M
(p.994)

Question 28

TAA - what is it?

What is its reference point?

Answer 28

The purpose of the terminal arrival altitude (TAA) is to provide a transition from the en- route structure to an RNAV approach procedure. Where published, TAAs replace the 25 NM MSA. The TAA reference point is normally the associated IAF.
(p.1011)

Question 29

COMM failure procedure.

Answer 29

1. Maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 7 minutes following:
   i. the time the last assigned level or minimum flight altitude is reached; or
   ii. the time the transponder is set to Code 7600; or
   iii. the aircraft’s failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point;
   whichever is later and thereafter adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan;
   when being vectored proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight plan route no later than the next significant point;
2. Proceed according to the current flight plan route to the appropriate designated navigation aid or fix serving the destination aerodrome;
3. Commence descent at, or as close as possible to, the expected approach time last received and acknowledged/according to flight plan;
4. Complete a normal instrument approach procedure;
5. Land, if possible, within 30 minutes after the estimated time of arrival.
   (p.1208)

Question 30

What is the format of distress message?

Answer 30

It should consist of as many as possible of the following elements spoken distinctly and, if possible, in the following order:

1. Name of the station addressed;
2. The identification of the aircraft;
3. The nature of the distress condition;
4. Intention of the person in command;
5. Present position, level (i.e., flight level, altitude, etc., as appropriate) and heading.
   (p. 1299)

Question 31

Airport categories for rescue and fire fighting are based on which parameter?

Answer 31

Airport categories for rescue and fire fighting are based on the over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the airport and its maximum fuselage width.
This category determines the minimum usable amounts of extinguishing agents.
(p. 1322)

Question 32

What are ACN and PCN, and what is their interrelation?

Answer 32

ACN (Aircraft Classification Number) — A number expressing the relative effect of an air- craft on a pavement for a specified standard subgrade category.
PCN (Pavement Classification Number) — A number expressing the bearing strength of a pavement for unrestricted operations.
The reported PCN indicates that an aircraft with an ACN equal to or less than the repor- ted PCN can operate on the pavement subject to any limitation on the tire pressure.
(p.1327)

Question 33

How do we calculate our climb gradient?

Answer 33

(Rate of climb)/(ground speed)=climb gradient
For example: 2000’/m, ground speed of 230kt = ~8.7%
(p. 1414)