Jason Dion - CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Prep #2 Flashcards
What port number does LDAP utilize?
A.3389
B.1433
C.389
D.636
C.389
OBJ-1.5: The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) uses port 389 and is an open, vendor-neutral, industry-standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an Internet Protocol (IP) network. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure (LDAPS) uses port 636 and is an open, vendor-neutral, industry-standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an Internet Protocol (IP) network that is encrypted using an SSL connection. Microsoft SQL uses ports 1433 and is a proprietary relational database management system developed by Microsoft that is fully compatible with the structured query language (SQL). Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389 and is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.
A network engineer is conducting an assessment for a customer who wants to implement an 802.11ac wireless network. What should the engineer reference before estimating the number of WAPs (Wireless Access Point) required?
A.Site survey
B.PoE requirements
C.Network topology
D.Network diagram
A.Site survey
OBJ-3.2: Since it is a wireless network, a review of a site survey is necessary to determine any physical advantages and disadvantages. Network topology and network diagrams can be created once the site survey is complete, and the location of the access points is determined based on distance and expected coverage requirements. The purpose of a wireless site survey is to look at the feasibility of each individual wireless link to provide seamless connectivity for a wireless network.
You typed IPCONFIG at the command prompt and find out your IP is 192.168.1.24. You then go to Google.com and search for “what is my IP,” and it returns a value of 35.25.52.11. How do you explain why your computer has two different IP addresses?
A.This is caused by how a switch handles IP (Internet Procol) addresses
B.This is caused because your gateway is conducting NAT (Network Address Translation) or PAT (Port Address Translation)
C.This is caused by the way traffic is routed over the Internet
D.This is caused because of the way routers handle IP addresses
B.This is caused because your gateway is conducting NAT (Network Address Translation) or PAT (Port Address Translation)
OBJ-1.4: Your computer network uses a private IP address for machines within the network and assigns a public IP address for traffic being routed over the network using either NAT or PAT. Most small office home office (SOHO) networks utilize a single public IP for all of their devices and use a technique known as PAT to associate the public IP with each internal client’s private IP when needed. Network Address Translation (NAT) and Port Address Translation (PAT) allow multiple devices on a LAN to be mapped to a single public IP address to conserve IP address. In NAT, private IP addresses are translated into public IP addresses. In PAT, private IP addresses are translated into a single public IP address and their traffic is segregated by port numbers.
Dion Training has created a guest wireless network for students to use during class. This guest network is separated from the corporate network for security. Which of the following should be implemented to require the least amount of configuration for a student to access the Internet over the guest network?
A.Configure the access point to 802.1x for authentication
B.Enable two-factor authentication on the student’s device
C.Enable SSID (Secure Set IDentifier) broadcast for the guest wireless network
D.Configure WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) with a pre-shared key
C.Enable SSID (Secure Set IDentifier) broadcast for the guest wireless network
OBJ-2.4: Since security was not listed as a requirement for the guest wireless network, it would be easiest not to set up any encryption, passwords, or authentication mechanisms on the network. Instead, you should enable the SSID broadcast for the guest network so students can easily find and connect to it. Using two-factor authentication, 802.1x, or WEP would require the students to complete additional configurations prior to connecting to the guest network.
A network administrator recently set up a network computer lab and discovered some connectivity issues. The administrator can ping the fiber uplink interface, but none of the new workstations plugged into the switch are responding to the technician’s ICMP requests. Which of the following actions should the technician perform next?
A.Verify the ports on the switch are full-duplex
B.Determine if the link lights are lit for the ports
C.Determine if port security is enabled on the ports
D.Verify that the uplink interface is configured correctly
C.Determine if port security is enabled on the ports
OBJ-5.2: A technician can use the LEDs on the switchports to quickly monitor activity and performance for the interfaces. By determining if the link lights are lit for the ports, the administrator can verify if there is any activity on the network, if the ports are enabled, and if the Layer 1 components are working properly. Additionally, some switches have LEDs to indicate if the switchport is operating in half-duplex or full-duplex, and the speed of the link.
A network engineer is designing an 802.11g wireless network that uses three wireless access points for complete coverage. Which of the following channel selections would result in the LEAST amount of interference between each access point?
A.Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 4,8, and 12 with a 40 MHz channel width
B.Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 2,6, and 10 with a 20 MHz channel width
C.Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 7,9, and 11 with a 40 MHz channel width
D.Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 1,6, and 11 with a 20 MHz channel width
D.Adjacent access points should be assigned channels 1,6, and 11 with a 20 MHz channel width
OBJ-5.4: Because the overlapping signals are from access points from unrelated non-overlapping channels, the access points are least likely to interfere with each other. For Wireless B and G networks, you should always use channels 1, 6, and 11 to ensure you are using non-overlapping frequencies.
Your network relies on the use of ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) cells. At which layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnect) model do ATM cells operate?
A.Data link
B.Transport
C.Session
D.Network
A.Data link
OBJ-1.1: In the data link layer (layer 2) of the OSI model, the basic unit of transfer is called a frame. In an ATM network, though, these frames are called cells and are of a fixed (53 octets or bytes) length that allows for faster switching of the cells across the network.
Your company has just finished replacing all of its computers with brand new workstations. Colleen, one of your coworkers, has asked the company’s owner if she can have the old computers that are about to be thrown away. Colleen would like to refurbish the old computers by reinstalling a new operating system and donating them to a local community center for disadvantaged children in the neighborhood. The owner thinks this is a great idea but is concerned that the private and sensitive corporate data on the old computer’s hard drives might be placed at risk of exposure. You have been asked to choose the best solution to sanitize or destroy the data while ensuring the computers will still be usable by the community center. What type of data destruction or sanitization method do you recommend?
A.Shredding
B.Wiping
C.Degaussing
D.Purging
B.Wiping
OBJ-4.5: Data wiping or clearing occurs by using a software tool to overwrite the data on a hard drive to destroy all electronic data on a hard disk or other media. Data wiping may be performed with a 1x, 7x, or 35x overwriting, with a higher number of times being more secure. This allows the hard drive to remain functional and allows for hardware reuse. Degaussing a hard drive involves demagnetizing a hard drive to erase its stored data. You cannot reuse a hard drive once it has been degaussed. Therefore, it is a bad solution for this scenario. Purging involves removing sensitive data from a hard drive using the device’s internal electronics or an outside source such as a degausser, or by using a cryptographic erase function if the drive supports one. Shredding involves the physical destruction of the hard drive. This is a secure method of destruction but doesn’t allow for device reuse.
Which of the following authentication protocols was developed by Cisco to provide authentication, authorization, and accounting services?
A.TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System)
B.RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)
C.Kerberos
D. CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol)
A.TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System)
OBJ-4.1: TACACS+ is an extension to TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) and was developed as a proprietary protocol by Cisco. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that operates on port 1812 and provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting management for users who connect and use a network service, but Cisco did not develop it. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol designed to provide strong mutual authentication for client/server applications using secret-key cryptography developed by MIT. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is used to authenticate a user or network host to an authenticating entity. CHAP is an authentication protocol but does not provide authorization or accounting services.
Jason has just connected his new AirPods to his iPhone to listen to his music wirelessly. Which of the following types of networks is he using?
A.(Campus Area Network; CAN-2)
B.WAN (Wide Area Network)
C.LAN (Local Area Network)
D.PAN (Personal Area Network)
D.PAN (Personal Area Network)
OBJ-1.2: A personal area network (PAN) is centered around a short distance, usually around a person or up to a few meters. PANs are heavily used with Bluetooth and NFC. A local area network (LAN) connects computers within a small and specific area geographically. A campus area network (CAN) is a computer network that spans a limited geographic area. CANs interconnect multiple local area networks (LAN) within an educational or corporate campus. A wide area network (WAN) will typically cover a larger area geographically, such as a continent, a state, or a country.
IPv4 addresses are written using Base 10 numbers, while IPv6 addresses are written in Base 16 numbers. What type of notation does Base16 utilize?
A.Decimal
B.Hexadecimal
C.Binary
D.Octet
B.Hexadecimal
OBJ-1.4: Hexadecimal (or Hex for short) is the system of numbering that uses Base16. This includes the numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, A, B, C, D, E, and F. All IPv6 addresses and MAC addresses are written in hexadecimal format.
Which of the following provides accounting, authorization, and authentication via a centralized privileged database, as well as challenge/response and password encryption?
A.TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System)
B.Multi-factor authentication
C.Network access control
D.ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol)
A.TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System)
OBJ-4.1: TACACS+ is a AAA (accounting, authorization, and authentication) protocol to provide AAA services for access to routers, network access points, and other networking devices. TACACS+ is a remote authentication protocol, which allows a remote access server to communicate with an authentication server to validate user access onto the network. TACACS+ allows a client to accept a username and password, and pass a query to a TACACS+ authentication server. Multifactor authentication is an authentication scheme that works based on something you know, something you have, something you are, something you do, or somewhere you are. These schemes can be made stronger by combining them (for example, protecting the use of a smart card certification [something you have] with a PIN [something you know]). Network Access Control (NAC) is a means of ensuring endpoint security by ensuring that all devices connecting to the network conform to a health policy such as its patch level, antivirus/firewall configuration, and other factors. Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) is used for negotiating, establishing, modification, and deletion of SAs and related parameters in the IPSec protocol.
Your company has several small branch offices around the country, but you work as a network administrator at the centralized headquarters building. You need the capability of being able to remotely access any of the remote site’s routers to configure them without having to fly to each location in person. Your company’s CIO (Chief Information Officer) is worried that allowing remote access could allow an attacker to gain administrative access to the company’s network devices. Which of the following is the MOST secure way to prevent this from occurring while still allowing you to access the devices remotely?
A.Install an out-of-band modem
B.Create an out-of-band management network
C.Configure the remote router’s ACL (Access Control List) to only permit Telnet traffic
D.Configure the remote router’s ACL to only permit HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol) traffic
B.Create an out-of-band management network
OBJ-4.4: You should create an out-of-band management network and use an SSH (console) connection to reach the routers. Out-of-band (OOB) management is a method of remotely controlling and managing critical IT assets and network equipment using a secure connection through a secondary interface that is physically separate from the primary network connection. Telnet and HTTP are not encrypted channels and should not be used for remote connections. Using a modem is also a bad security practice since these are subject to war dialing and provide slow connectivity speeds.
(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question.)
Which of the following is the correct order of the following Fiber Connectors shown?
A.ST, SC, LC (single), LC (duplex), FC
B.SC, ST, FC, LC (single), LC (duplex)
C.LC (single), LC (duplex), FC, ST, SC
D.FC, LC (single), LC (duplex), SC, ST
A.ST, SC, LC (single), LC (duplex), FC
OBJ-1.3: The correct order of the Fiber connections shown is ST, SC, LC (single), LC (duplex), and FC. If this were a real question on the exam, you would have the words provided in a list, and you would drag them below the appropriate fiber connector’s drawing.
Which of the following is a connectionless protocol?
A.SSH (Secure SHell)
B.ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
C.SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
D.TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
B.ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
OBJ-1.5: A connectionless protocol is a form of data transmission in which data is transmitted automatically without determining whether the receiver is ready or even whether a receiver exists. ICMP, UDP, IP, and IPX are well-known examples of connectionless protocols. TCP, SSH, and SSL are all examples of connection-oriented protocols.
Which of the following would require the network administrator to schedule a maintenance window?
A.A minor release upgrade of a production router
B.Rebooting the network administrator’s laptop
C.A company-wide email notification must be sent out
D.A major release upgrade of a core switch in a test lab
A.A minor release upgrade of a production router
OBJ-3.2: During an update of a production router, the router would not route packets, and the network traffic would be affected. Therefore, it would be necessary to announce a maintenance window. A maintenance window is a period of time designated in advance by the technical staff, during which preventive maintenance that could disrupt service is allowed to be performed.
Your company has two office buildings which are connected via a copper network cable that is buried underground. There is some construction being performed near the buildings. Now, the second building discovers they have suffered a network outage that doesn’t appear to be temporary. What is the MOST likely cause of the outage?
A.Signal attenuation on the cable
B.Electromagnetic interference on the cable
C.Cross-talk on the cable
D.An open circuit has been created
D.An open circuit has been created
OBJ-5.2: Since the issue started after construction began, it is most likely that the construction crew broke the cable during digging operations. This can cause an open circuit or short circuit, depending on how the cable was cut or broken by the construction workers. This can be verified using a Time-Domain Reflectometer to determine exactly where in the cable the break has occurred. Once the location is identified, the cable can be repaired or spliced to return it to normal operations.
Your router has been turning itself off and on again for a few weeks. You begin to think back to when these issues began to occur and remember that each time it happened the lights also dimmed momentarily. You hook up a device to monitor the power being supplied to the router and identify that brownouts are frequently occurring, resulting in the router’s power cycling. What should you (a network technician) do to solve this problem?
A.Install a UPS (Uninterruptable Power Supply)
B.Install a surge protector
C.Install a new electrical outlet
D.Install an upgraded router
A.Install a UPS (Uninterruptable Power Supply)
OBJ-3.3: The best solution would be to install a UPS. Since you are a network technician and not an electrician, you should not install a new electrical circuit. The primary function of UPS is to provide battery backup when the electrical power fails or drops to an unacceptable voltage level. It ensures that your electrical equipment gets a consistent current so damage and device power cycling do not occur. A surge protector defends against possible voltage spikes that could damage your electronics, appliances, or equipment. A network technician is not qualified to install a new electrical outlet since that is a job for an electrician. The scenario presents issues that focus on the power levels, therefore installing an upgraded router would not solve these issues.
You have been asked by your supervisor, Tamera, to ensure that you enable 802.3af on a managed switch. Which of the following features does she want you to enable?
A.VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)
B.Trunking
C.PoE (Power over Ethernet)
D.Port bonding
C.PoE (Power over Ethernet)
15.4W of DC power to each device. The IEEE 802.3at standard defines PoE+ and supports 25.5W of DC power to each device. Power over Ethernet or PoE technology describes a system to safely transfer electrical power, along with data, to remote devices over standard data cables in an Ethernet network. Port bonding, or link aggregation, is part of the 802.3ad standard. Port bonding is the combining of multiple network connections in parallel by any of several methods, in order to increase throughput beyond what a single connection could sustain, to provide redundancy in case one of the links should fail, or both. VLANs are part of the 802.1q standard. A virtual LAN (VLAN) is any broadcast domain that is partitioned and isolated in a computer network at the data link layer (OSI layer 2). Trunking is also covered by the 802.1q protocol and supports VLANs.
Which of the following layers within software-defined networking focuses on resource requests or information about the network?
A.Infrastructure layer
B.Application layer
C.Management plane
D.Control layer
B.Application layer
OBJ-1.7: The application layer focuses on the communication resource requests or information about the network. The control layer uses the information from applications to decide how to route a data packet on the network and to make decisions about how traffic should be prioritized, how it should be secured, and where it should be forwarded to. The infrastructure layer contains the physical networking devices that receive information from the control layer about where to move the data and then perform those movements. The management plane is used to monitor traffic conditions, the status of the network, and allows network administrators to oversee the network and gain insight into its operations.
You have just received an email regarding a security issue detected on the company’s standard web browser. Which of the following should you do to fix the issue?
A.Firmware update
B.Vulnerability patch
C.OS update (Operating System)
D.Driver update
B.Vulnerability patch
OBJ-4.3: Since there is a security issue with the current web browser, it most likely needs to be updated with a manufacturer’s vulnerability patch. A vulnerability patch is a piece of software that fixes security issues.
A customer is trying to configure an 802.11b wireless card in an old laptop to connect to an 802.11g wireless router. When the customer scans for the wireless network’s SSID (Secure Set IDentifier) (Dion-Corp), it is not displayed within Windows. What is the MOST likely reason that the SSID is not being displayed?
A.The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router
B.The wireless router is not configured for DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) support
C.802.11g and 802.11b use different frequencies
D.The wireless router is configured with WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) encryption
A.The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router
OBJ-5.4: If the SSID (Secure Set Identifier) is disabled, then the wireless network name will not be broadcast to any available devices within range. Both Wireless B and G use the same frequency band (2.4 GHz) and would not cause this issue. Similarly, encryption that is enabled or disabled would not affect the SSID broadcast since the SSID is sent out in cleartext. DHCP support is used once a device connects to the network. Therefore it would not affect the SSID broadcast.
A network administrator needs to allow employees to upload files to a remote server securely. What port must be allowed through the firewall?
A.25
B.21
C.22
D.161
C.22
OBJ-1.5: To securely upload a file, the employees could use SFTP (Secure FTP) or SCP (Secure Copy). Both SFTP and SCP operate over port 22, therefore port 22 must be opened by the firewall so that the employees can reach the file servers. Port 21 is used by the File Transfer Protocol, but it is not a secure method of sending files. There is a more secure version of FTP known as FTPS, but that uses port 990. Port 25 is reserved for the simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP), which is an internet standard communication protocol for electronic mail transmission. Port 161 is reserved for simple network management protocol (SNMP), which is a networking protocol used for the management and monitoring of network-connected devices in Internet Protocol networks.
What remediation strategies are the MOST effective in reducing the risk to an embedded ICS (Internet Connection Sharing) from a network-based compromise? (Select TWO)
A.Patching
B.Segmentation
C.NIDS (Network-based Intrusion Detection System)
D.Disabling unused services
B.Segmentation
D.Disabling unused services
OBJ-2.1: Segmentation is the best method to reduce the risk to an embedded ICS system from a network-based compromise. Additionally, you could disable unused services to reduce the footprint of the embedded ICS. Many of these embedded ICS systems have a large number of default services running. So, by disabling the unused services, we can better secure these devices. By segmenting the devices off the main portion of the network, we can also better protect them. A NIDS might detect an attack or compromise, but it would not reduce the risk of the attack succeeding since it can only detect it. Patching is difficult for embedded ICS devices since they usually rely on customized software applications that rarely provide updates.
A disgruntled employee executes an on-path attack on the company’s network. Layer 2 traffic destined for the gateway is now being redirected to the employee’s computer. What type of attack is this an example of?
A.ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) Spoofing
B.Evil twin
C.Reflective DNS (Domain Name System)
D.IP (Internet Protocol) spoofing
A.ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) Spoofing
OBJ-4.2: ARP spoofing (also known as ARP poisoning) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages over a local area network. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer, server, or gateway on the network. A reflective DNS attack is a two-step attack used in DDoS attacks. The attacker sends a large number of requests to one or more legitimate DNS servers while using a spoofed source IP of the targeted victim. The DNS server then replies to the spoofed IP and unknowingly floods the targeted victim with responses to DNS requests that it never sent. An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point that masquerades as a legitimate Wi-Fi access point so that an attacker can gather personal or corporate information without the user’s knowledge. IP spoofing is the creation of Internet Protocol (IP) packets that have a modified source address to either hide the identity of the sender, impersonate another computer system, or both.
You work for a bank interested in moving some of its operations to the cloud, but it is worried about security. You recently discovered an organization called CloudBank that was formed by 15 local banks as a way for them to build a secure cloud-based environment that can be accessed by the 15 member banks. Which cloud model BEST describes the cloud created by CloudBank?
A.Public cloud
B.Community cloud
C.Hybrid cloud
D.Private cloud
B.Community cloud
OBJ-1.8: Community Cloud is another type of cloud computing in which the cloud setup is shared manually among different organizations that belong to the same community or area. A multi-tenant setup is developed using the cloud among different organizations belonging to a particular community or group with similar computing concerns. For joint business organizations, ventures, research organizations, and tenders, a community cloud is an appropriate solution. Based on the description of 15 member banks coming together to create the CloudBank organization and its cloud computing environment, a community cloud model is most likely described. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.
You opened your web browser and attempted to visit DionTraining.com, but you appear to have been redirected to a malicious website instead. What type of attack is being conducted?
A.Rogue DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
B.ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) spoofing
C.VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) hopping
D.DNS (Domain Name System; phone book of the internet)
poisoning
D.DNS (Domain Name System; phone book of the internet)
poisoning
OBJ-4.2: DNS spoofing or DNS poisoning is an attack that corrupts the Domain Name System data in the DNS resolver’s cache and causes the name server to return an incorrect result record, such as an attacker’s IP address instead of the IP of the legitimate server. VLAN Hopping is an attack where the attacker is able to send traffic from one VLAN into another by either double tagging the traffic or conducting switch spoofing. ARP spoofing is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages over a local area network. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer, server, or gateway on the network. A rogue DHCP server is a DHCP server set up on a network by an attacker, or by an unaware user, and is not under the control of network administrators. Rogue DHCP servers are also commonly used by attackers for the purpose of network attacks such as an on-path or man-in-the-middle attack.
A network technician is selecting the best way to protect a branch office from as many different threats from the Internet as possible using a single device. Which of the following should meet these requirements?
A.Configure a UTM (Unified Threat Management) device
B.Configure a host-based firewall
C.Configure a network-based firewall
D.Configure a NIDS (Network-based Intrusion Detection System) device
A.Configure a UTM (Unified Threat Management) device
OBJ-2.1: Since this is a branch office and you want to protect it from as many threats as possible, using a Unified Threat Management (UTM) device would be best. A UTM will protect you from most things using a single device. A network-based firewall would provide basic protection, but a UTM will include anti-virus and other protections beyond just a firewall’s capabilities. Host-based firewalls are great, but the network-based firewall or UTM device is configured to protect all devices on a network whereas a host-based firewall only protects the single host device. A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) can detect threats, but it cannot stop or prevent them.
Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent the theoretical maximum rate of data transfer from a source to a destination in a given amount of time under ideal conditions?
A.Throughput
B.Latency
C.Jitter
D.Bandwidth
D.Bandwidth
OBJ-3.2: Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients.
The administrator modifies a rule on the firewall, and now all the FTP users cannot access the server any longer. The manager calls the administrator and asks what caused the extreme downtime for the server. In regards to the manager’s inquiry, what did the administrator forget to do first?
A.Schedule a maintenance window
B.Provide notification of change to users
C.Document the changes
D.Submit a change request
D.Submit a change request
OBJ-3.2: A change request should be submitted through the change management process prior to any changes being made. Change management is a systematic approach to dealing with the transition or transformation of an organization’s goals, processes, or technologies.
Which of the following types of fire suppression systems utilizes a sprinkler system with water to extinguish a fire but requires both an actuator and the sprinklers to be tripped prior to water being released?
A.Pre-action system
B.Clean agent system
C.Wet pipe system
D.HVAC (Heating, Vacuum, Air Conditioning) system
A.Pre-action system
OBJ-3.3: A fire suppression system is an engineered set of components that are designed to extinguish an accidental fire in a workplace or datacenter. A pre-action system minimizes the risk of accidental release from a wet pipe system. With a pre-action system, both a detector actuation like a smoke detector and a sprinkler must be tripped prior to water being released. A wet pipe system is the most basic type of fire suppression system, and it involved using a sprinkler system and pipes that always contain water in the pipes. Special suppression systems, like a clean agent system, use either a halocarbon agent or inert gas. When releases, the agents will displace the oxygen in the room with the inert gas and suffocates the fire. Heating Ventilation and Air Conditioning (HVAC) units are responsible for maintaining the proper temperature and humidity within a datacenter.
Dion Training’s remote office is experiencing poor network performance. You have been asked to look at the traffic patterns for the remote office and compare them to the network performance baselines. Which of the following tools should you utilize?
A.Terminal emulator
B.Spectrum analyzer
C.NetFlow analyzer
D.IP scanner
C.NetFlow analyzer
OBJ-5.3: A NetFlow analyzer is used to perform monitoring, troubleshooting, inspection, interpretation, and synthesis of network traffic flow data. A NetFlow analyzer can help you quickly identify traffic patterns and the different applications/protocols in use on the network. A terminal emulator is used by a network administrator to make a given computer appear like an actual terminal or client computer networked to a server or mainframe. An IP scanner is used to monitor a network’s IP address space in real-time and identify any devices connected to the network. A spectrum analyzer is used to measure the magnitude of an input signal’s frequency.
Which of the following components is used by an agent to send a complete set of key-pair values about a significant event or condition that is occurring in real-time by providing a full list of variables and values for a given device to a manager?
A.OID (Object IDentifier)
B.MIB (Management Information Base)
C.Granular trap
D.Verbose trap
D.Verbose trap
OBJ-3.1: The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) uses ports 161 and 162, and it is a networking protocol used for the management and monitoring of network-connected devices in Internet Protocol networks. A trap is an asynchronous notification from the agent to the manager. A trap is sent by the agent to notify the management of a significant event that is occurring in real-time, such as an alarming condition. A verbose trap may contain all the information about a given alert or event as its payload. A granular trap contains a unique object identifier (OID) number and a value for that OID. A verbose trap contains more information and data than a granular trap, and therefore requires more bandwidth to send the verbose trap over the network. A unique objective identifier (OID) identifies a variable that can be read or set using the SNMP protocol. The management information base (MIB) is a translation file that is used to describe the structure of the management data of a device subsystem using a hierarchical namespace containing object identifiers (OID).
Which of the following communication types are used in IPv6 to send a packet to the nearest interface that shares a common address in a routing table?
A.Broadcast
B.Multicast
C.Unicast
D.Anycast
D.Anycast
OBJ-1.4: An IPv6 anycast address is an address that can be assigned to more than one interface (typically different devices). In other words, multiple devices can have the same anycast address. A packet sent to an anycast address is routed to the “nearest” interface having that address, according to the router’s routing table. Anycast communications are sent to the nearest receiver in a group of receivers with the same IP. Anycast only works with IPv6. Multicasting is a technique used for one-to-many communication over an IP network. Multicast can be used with both IPv4 and IPv6. Broadcast communication has one sender, but it sends the traffic to every device on the network. Broadcast only works with IPv4. Unicast communication only has one sender and one receiver. Unicast works with IPv4 or IPv6.
An end-user receives a new computer and now is unable to connect to the MySQL database over the Dion Training local area network. Other users can successfully connect. The network technician can successfully ping the database server but still is unable to connect. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?
A.The database server is configured with the wrong default gateway address
B.A host-based firewall on the user’s computer is blocking port 3306
C.The router to the database server’s subnet is missing
D.The end user’s network interface card is defective
B.A host-based firewall on the user’s computer is blocking port 3306
OBJ-5.5: MySQL uses ports 3306, and is an open-source relational database management system that is fully compatible with the structured query language (SQL). Since the network technician can pin the MySQL server, it indicates that the route is not missing, the database server is configured with the proper gateway, and the network interface card is not defective. Instead, it is likely that the end user’s computer has a host-based firewall installed, like Windows Defender, and it is blocking outbound requests over port 3306 (MySQL). A change in the firewall settings to allow access to the specified ports will fix the problem. It appears the default firewall on this new computer is blocking the port used to communicate with the database server.
While troubleshooting, a technician notices that some clients using FTP still work and that pings to the local routers and servers are working. The technician tries to ping all known nodes on the network, and they reply positively, except for one of the servers. The technician notices that ping works only when the hostname is used but not when FQDN is used. What server is MOST likely offline?
A.DNS (Domain Name System; phone book of the internet) server
B.Domain controller
C.DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server
D.WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) server
A.DNS (Domain Name System; phone book of the internet) server
OBJ-5.5: The DNS Server translates Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN) to IP addresses. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture. A WINS server is a Microsoft Windows-based server running the Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) that can accept NetBIOS name registrations and queries. WINS servers maintain a database of NetBIOS name to IP address mappings for WINS clients on the network and speed up NetBIOS name resolution by eliminating broadcasts. Since the technician can ping the server using its hostname, the WINS server is working properly. Since the technician cannot ping the server using its fully qualified domain name (FQDN), the DNS server is likely offline.
