Jason Dion - CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Prep #1 Flashcards
Which of the following policies or plans would describe the access requirements for connecting a user’s laptop to the corporate network?
A.Bring your own device policy
B.Password policy
C.Onboarding policy
D.Remote access policy
A.Bring your own device policy
OBJ-3.2: A bring your own device (BYOD) policy allows, and sometimes encourages, employees to access enterprise networks and systems using personal mobile devices such as smartphones, tablets, and laptops. A remote access policy is a document that outlines and defines acceptable methods of remotely connecting to the internal network. A password policy is a set of rules created to improve computer security by motivating users to create dependable, secure passwords and then store and utilize them properly. This document promotes strong passwords by specifying a minimum password length, complexity requirements, requiring periodic password changes, and placing limits on the reuse of passwords. An onboarding policy is a documented policy that describes all the requirements for integrating a new employee into the company and its cultures, as well as getting that new hire all the tools and information they need to begin their job successfully.
Your company is currently using a 5 GHz wireless security system, so your boss has asked you to install a 2.4 GHz wireless network to use for the company’s computer network to prevent interference. Which of the following can NOT be installed to provide a 2.4 GHz wireless network?
A.802.11ac
B.802.11g
C.802.11n
D.802.11b
A.802.11ac
OBJ-2.4: Wireless networks are configured to use either 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz frequencies, depending on the network type. 802.11a and 802.11ac both utilize a 5.0 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11b and 802.11g both utilize a 2.4 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11n and 802.11ax utilize either 2.4 GHz, 5.0 GHz, or both, depending on the Wi-Fi device’s manufacturer. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 5.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.
Which of the following must be added to a VLAN’s gateway to improve the security of the VLAN?
A.Spanning tree protocol
B.Split horizon
C.Access control list
D.Hold down timer
C.Access control list
OBJ-4.3: Without a properly configured ACL, there is no additional security provided by a VLAN. A VLAN (virtual local area network) is any broadcast domain that is partitioned and isolated in a computer network at the data link layer (OSI layer 2). Adding a VLAN to a network provides segmentation of the traffic and traffic must be routed between the VLANs. This allows network administrators the opportunity to allow or deny traffic into or out of a given VLAN for additional security by using access control lists. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that builds a loop-free logical topology for Ethernet networks and operates at layer 2 of the OSI model. The basic function of STP is to prevent bridge loops and the broadcast radiation that results from them. A split-horizon route advertisement is a method of preventing routing loops in distance-vector routing protocols by prohibiting a router from advertising a route back onto the interface from which it was learned. A hold down timer is a function of a router that prevents a route from being updated for a specified length of time (in seconds). A hold down timer allows for the routers in a topology to have sufficient time to reach convergence and be updated when a route fails.
What type of services can allow you to get more storage and more resources added to the cloud as fast as possible?
A.Measured services
B.Metered services
C.Resource pooling
D.Rapid elasticity
D.Rapid elasticity
OBJ-1.8: Rapid elasticity allows users to automatically request additional space in the cloud or other types of services. Because of the setup of cloud computing services, provisioning can be seamless for the client or user. Providers still need to allocate and de-allocate resources that are often irrelevant on the client or user’s side. This feature allows a service to be scaled up without purchasing, installing, and configuring new hardware, unlike if you had to install more physical storage into a server or datacenter. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning.
(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. If this was on the real exam, you would be asked to drag and drop the steps into the proper order from step one to step seven.) Dion Training’s email server is not sending out emails to users who have a Yahoo email address. What is the proper order that you should follow to troubleshoot this issue using the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
A.Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventive measuresEstablish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution,Identify the problem,,Test the theory to determine the cause,Document findings, actions and outcomes,Establish a theory of probable cause
B.Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution,Identify the problem,,Test the theory to determine the cause,Document findings, actions and outcomes,Establish a theory of probable cause, Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventive measures
C. Identify the problem,Establish a theory of probable cause,Test the theory to determine the cause,Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution,Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventive measures, Document findings, actions and outcomes
D.Identify the problem,Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution,Test the theory to determine the cause,Document findings, actions and outcomes,Establish a theory of probable cause, Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventive measures
C. Identify the problem,Establish a theory of probable cause,Test the theory to determine the cause,Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution,Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventive measures, Document findings, actions and outcomes
OBJ-5.1: You must know the network troubleshooting methodology steps in the right order for the exam. You will see numerous questions both in the multiple-choice and simulation sections on this topic. If you received this question on the real exam, it will appear as a “drag and drop” question with each of the steps making up a single box, and you need to put them into the correct order. The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.
A network technician connects three temporary office trailers with a point-to-multipoint microwave radio solution in a wooded area. The microwave radios are up, and the network technician can ping network devices in all of the office trailers. However, users are complaining that they are experiencing sporadic connectivity. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A.Throttling
B.Interference
C.Latency
D.Split horizon
B.Interference
OBJ-5.4: Microwave links require a direct line of sight (LoS) between the antennas to maintain a strong and effective link. These line-of-sight microwave link uses highly directional transmitter and receiver antennas to communicate via a narrowly focused radio beam. Since this microwave-based network is being run in a wooded area, there are likely some trees or leaves that are blocking the line of sight between the antennas. To solve this issue, they should trim the trees and branches to provide a clear light of sight or move the antennas to reestablish a clear line of sight. Latency is the time delay between when a packet is sent and received. While latency will increase with an obstructed microwave line of sight link, latency is an effect of this issue and not the cause of the issue. Throttling is the intentional slowing or speeding of an internet service by an Internet service provider to regulate network traffic and minimize bandwidth congestion. This again is not a cause of intermittent connectivity, but would instead occur if the microwave link was overutilized beyond its SLA contract limitations. Split horizon is a form of route advertisement that prohibits a router from advertising back a route to the same interface from which it learned it. This does not affect the issues experienced with the microwave line. Another way to approach this question is to use the process of elimination: throttling slows down the speed, and latency slows down speed even further. Split horizon prevents loops, so it only makes sense that interference is the correct choice since interference can cause drops in connections in many situations.
Dion Training has a single-mode fiber-optic connection between its main office and its satellite office located 30 kilometers away. The connection stopped working, so a technician used an OTDR and found that there is a break in the cable approximately 12.4 kilometers from the main office. Which of the following tools is required to fix this fiber optic connection?
A.Cable snips
B.Fusion splicer
C.Media converter
D.Cable crimper
B.Fusion splicer
OBJ-5.2: A fusion splicer is used to create long fiber optic cable lengths by splicing multiple cables together or to repair a break in a fiber optic cable. A cable crimper is used to join the internal wires of a twisted pair cable with metallic pins houses inside a plastic connector, such as an RJ-45 connector. A cable snip or cable cutter is used to cut copper cables into shorter lengths from a longer spool of wound cable. A media converter is a layer 1 networking device that connects two different media types, such as a copper twisted pair cable and a fiber optic cable.
You are working as a wireless networking technician and have been sent to a user’s home to install a brand new 802.11ac wireless access point to replace their old access point. To ensure all of the current devices on the network will automatically connect to the new network, you set the SSID, encryption type, and password to the same ones as the existing access point. You turn the new access point on and notice most of the devices connect automatically, but one older wireless printer won’t connect. You notice that the printer is about 7 years old, but the user says it has always worked great over the old wireless network. What is the MOST likely reason that the printer will not connect to the new access point?
A.The transmit power on the access point is too low
B.The incorrect channel is configured on the access point
C.The access point and the wireless printer have a frequency mismatch
D.The wireless printer is configured with the wrong password
C.The access point and the wireless printer have a frequency mismatch
OBJ-5.4: Wireless B/G networks utilize 2.4 GHz, while Wireless AC uses 5.0 GHz. Wireless N can support both 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies. The most likely cause of the issue is that the older access point supported both 2.4 GHz (for older devices) and 5.0 GHz (for newer devices). Since you installed a brand new 802.11ac access point, it is only broadcasting at 5.0 GHz and is preventing the older printer from connecting due to a frequency mismatch. Since the other devices are all connected to it without any issues, it is unlikely to be an issue with the transmission power or the password. With Wireless AC, the channel is automatically configured by the access point by default since there are 24 non-overlapping channels to choose from, making it an unlikely source of this issue.
A network technician determines that two dynamically assigned workstations have duplicate IP addresses. What command should the technician use to correct this issue?
A.ipconfig/release|ipconfig/renew
B.ipconfig/renew
C.ipconfig/dhcp
D.ipconfig/all
A.ipconfig/release|ipconfig/renew
OBJ-5.3: The ipconfig tool displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values on a given system. The ipconfig also can release and renew a DHCP-received IP on a workstation. The first thing to do is release the IP address using the command ipconfig /release. Next, the technician should dynamically assign another IP address using the command ipconfig /renew. These commands could be each entered individually or combined using the pipe (|) syntax as shown in this question. The ipconfig /all option would be used to display the assigned IP addresses. The ipconfig /renew option would be used to renew an existing DHCP lease and not request a new IP address.
(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real exam, you may be given a chart with numerous ports and protocols and be asked to drag and drop them to match the ports with the protocols.) What ports do FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and SFTP (Secure SHell File Transfer Protocol) utilize?
A.22, 23
B.21, 22
C.21, 23
D.20, 21
B.21, 22
OBJ-1.5: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22. Port 23 is used by Telnet. If this were a question on the real exam, you would see a list of ports on one side and a list of protocols on the other, and you would drag and drop each one to match them up. (It might also have 4-6 different pairs to match up.)
What is the lowest layer (bottom layer) of a bare-metal virtualization environment?
A.Hypervisor
B.Physical hardware
C.Host operating system
D.Guest operating system
B.Physical hardware
OBJ-1.2: The bottom layer is physical hardware in this environment. It is what sits beneath the hypervisor and controls access to guest operating systems. The bare-metal approach doesn’t have a host operating system. A hypervisor is a program used to run and manage one or more virtual machines on a computer. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor.
Which of the following network topologies requires that all nodes have a point-to-point connection with every other node in the network?
A.Star
B.Bus
C.Ring
D.Mesh
D.Mesh
OBJ-1.2: A mesh topology connects every node directly to every other node. This creates a highly efficient and redundant network, but it is expensive to build and maintain. A star topology connects all of the other nodes to a central node, usually a switch or a hub. A star topology is the most popular network topology in use on local area networks. A ring topology connects every device to exactly two other neighboring devices to form a circle. Messages in a ring topology travel in one direction and usually rely on a token to control the flow of information. A bus topology uses a single cable which connects all the included nodes and the main cable acts as a backbone for the entire network.
A technician has finished configuring AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) on a new network device. However, the technician cannot log into the device with LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) credentials but can with a local user account. What is the MOST likely reason for the problem?
A.Username is misspelled in the device configuration file
B.Shared secret key is mismatched
C.IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is blocking RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)
D.Group policy has not propagated to the device
B.Shared secret key is mismatched
OBJ-4.1: AAA through RADIUS uses a Server Secret Key (a shared secret key). A secret key mismatch could cause login problems. A shared secret is a text string that serves as a password between hosts.
Scott is a brand new network technician at Dion Training. He has been told to remote into the edge switch from his desk and enable DHCP snooping. Which of the following commands should he use?
A.ip
B.nmap
C.TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) server
D.telnet
D.telnet
OBJ-5.3: The telnet command is used to open a command-line interface on a remote computer or server. Telnet operates in plain text mode and should never be used over an untrusted or public network. While it would be better for Scott to use SSH for security reasons, telnet is still the best answer based on the options presented in this question. Nmap, or Network Mapper, is a cross-platform, open-source tool used to scan IP addresses and ports on a target network, and to detect running services, applications, or operating systems on that network’s clients, servers, and devices. A trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) server is used to send or receive files over a TCP/IP network. TFTP servers are commonly used to transfer firmware images and configuration files to network appliances like routers, switches, firewalls, and VoIP devices. The ip command is a suite of tools used for performing network administration tasks, such as displaying the current TCP/IP network configuration, refreshing the DHCP and DNS settings, assigning an IP address, and configuring TCP/IP settings for a given interface.
An additional network segment is urgently needed for QA testing on the external network. A software release could be impacted if this change is not immediate. The request comes directly from management and was just approved through the emergency change management process. Which of the following should the technician do?
A.Make the change, document the requester, and document all network changes
B.First document the potential impacts and procedures related to the change
C.Send out a notification to the company about the change
D.Wait until the maintenance window and make the requested change
A.Make the change, document the requester, and document all network changes
OBJ-3.2: The best answer is to make the change, document the requester, and document all the network changes. All changes to the enterprise network should be approved through the normal change management processes. If there is an urgent need, there is an emergency change management process that can be used for approval. This is known as an emergency change approval board (ECAB). An ECAB can be executed extremely quickly to gain approval, and then the documentation can be completed after the change is made when using the emergency change management processes.
A technician needs to ensure wireless coverage in the green space near the center of the college campus. The antenna is being installed in the middle of the field on a pole. Which type of antenna should be installed to ensure maximum coverage?
A.Omnidirectional
B.Bi-directional
C.Yagi (Yagi–Uda antenna)
D.Unidirectional
A.Omnidirectional
OBJ-2.4: Omnidirectional antennas send the signal out equally in all directions. Therefore, it will provide the best coverage since it is located in the center of the field. Unidirectional antennas transmit the signal in only one direction and would not provide adequate coverage. Bidirectional antennas transmit the signal in only two directions and would not provide adequate coverage. A Yagi antenna is a type of unidirectional antenna that can focus the transmission over a longer distance but would not be appropriate in this case since you need 360-degree coverage.
Which of the following remote access tools is a command-line terminal emulation program operating on port 23?
A.SSH (Secure SHell)
B.VNC (Virtual Network Computing)
C.RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
D.Telnet
D.Telnet
OBJ-1.5: Telnet is a TCP/IP application protocol supporting remote command-line administration of a host (terminal emulation). Telnet is unauthenticated, which means it sends data such as the username and password in plain text. For this reason, it should not be used, and SSH should be used instead. Telnet runs over TCP port 23. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it. Secure Shell (SSH) uses port 22 to securely create communication sessions over the Internet for remote access to a server or system. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389 and is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.
A third-party vendor has just released patches to resolve a major vulnerability. There are over 100 critical devices that need to be updated. What action should be taken to ensure the patch is installed with minimal downtime?
A.Download and install all patches in the production network during the next scheduled maintenance period
B.Configure endpoints to automatically download and install the patches
C.Test the patch in a lab environment and then install it in the production network during the next scheduled maintenance
D.Deploy the patch in a lab environment to quickly conduct testing, get approval for an emergency change, and then immediately install it in the production environment.
D.Deploy the patch in a lab environment to quickly conduct testing, get approval for an emergency change, and then immediately install it in the production environment.
OBJ-3.2: Patches should always be tested first. Once successfully tested, deployment to the production environment can then be accomplished.
What is the network ID associated with the host located at 192.168.0.123/29?
A.192.168.0.112
B.192.168.0.96
C.192.168.0.120
D.192.168.0.64
C.192.168.0.120
OBJ-1.4: In classless subnets using variable-length subnet mask (VLSM), the network ID is the first IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /29, so each subnet will contain 8 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 192.168.0.123, it will be in the 192.168.0.120/29 network.
Elizabeth was replacing a client’s security device that protects their screened subnet. The client has an application that allows external users to access the application remotely. After replacing the devices, the external users cannot connect remotely to the application anymore. Which of the following devices was MOST likely misconfigured and is now causing a problem?
A.Firewall
B.DNS (Domain Name System)
C.DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
D.Content filter
A.Firewall
OBJ-2.1: A firewall is an integral part of creating a screened subnet. If configured correctly, it can regulate exactly what traffic and users are allowed to access the server. This is different from a content filter because a content filter denies traffic to a user based on content, but not access to a server. If the firewall ruleset was not configured to allow external users to access the application remotely, the default condition is to “deny by default”. Content filtering is the use of a program to screen and/or exclude access to web pages or emails deemed objectionable. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network.
Your supervisor has asked you to run a Cat 5e cable between two network switches in the server room. Which type of connector should be used with a Cat 5e cable?
A.F-type ( coaxial RF connector)
B.DB-25 (Parallel computer port)
C.RJ-11 (Registered Jack type 11)
D.RJ-45 (Registered Jack type 45)
D.RJ-45 (Registered Jack type 45)
OBJ-1.3: A Cat 5e cable should use an RJ-45 connector on each end of the cable. This is the standard type of connector for twisted pair network cables. RJ-11 connectors are used to terminate telephone lines. F-type connectors are screw-type connectors that are used to terminate coaxial cables. DB-25 is a D-shaped subminiature connector used to terminal serial cables and connections.
You are configuring a point-to-point link between two routers and have been assigned an IP of 77.81.12.14/30. What is the network ID associated with this IP assignment?
A.77.81.12.13
B.77.81.12.15
C.77.81.12.12
D.77.81.12.14
C.77.81.12.12
OBJ-1.4: In classless subnets using variable length subnet mask (VLSM), the network ID is the first IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /30, so each subnet will contain 4 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 77.81.12.14/30, the network ID is 77.81.12.12/30, the first router is 77.81.12.13/30, the second router is 77.81.12.14/30, and the broadcast address is 77.81.12.15/30.
Which of the following types of network documentation would provide a drawing of the network cabling imposed over the floorplan for an office building?
A.Site survey report
B.Wiring diagram
C.Logical network diagram
D.Physical network diagram
D.Physical network diagram
OBJ-3.2: A physical network diagram is used to show the actual physical arrangement of the components that make up the network, including cables and hardware. A logical diagram is used to illustrate the flow of data across a network and is used to show how devices communicate with each other. These logical diagrams usually include the subnets, network objects and devices, routing protocols and domains, voice gateways, traffic flow, and network segments in a given network. Wiring diagrams are used to clearly label which cables are connected to which ports. The more in-depth wiring diagrams will include a floorplan or rack diagram, so you can see how the cables are run in the physical environment. A wireless site survey is the process of planning and designing a wireless network to provide a wireless solution that will deliver the required wireless coverage, data rates, network capacity, roaming capability, and quality of service (QoS). The site survey report will contain a floorplan of the areas surveyed with the wireless coverage areas and signal strengths notated on it.
You are performing a high-availability test of a system. As part of the test, you create an interruption on the fiber connection to the network, but the network traffic was not re-routed automatically. Which type of routing is the system utilizing?
A.Distance vector
B.Static
C.Hybrid
D.Dynamic
B.Static
OBJ-2.2: Static routing is a form of routing that occurs when a router uses a manually configured routing entry, rather than information from dynamic routing traffic. Static routes must be configured and re-routed manually during an issue. Dynamic routing, also called adaptive routing, is a process where a router can forward data via a different route or given destination based on the current conditions of the communication circuits within a system. If dynamic routing was used, the router would have automatically routed the traffic to another link or connection on the network. Hybrid routing is a combination of distance-vector routing. Hybrid routing shares its knowledge of the entire network with its neighbors and link-state routing. If a connection is lost, hybrid routing protocols are dynamic and can adjust the advertised routes automatically. A distance-vector routing protocol requires that a router inform its neighbors of topology changes periodically. A distance-vector protocol is a form of dynamic routing and would automatically adjust when the fiber connection or link is lost.
You are configuring a network to utilize SNMPv3 to send information from your network devices back to an SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) manager. Which of the following SNMP options should you enable to ensure the data is transferred confidentially?
A.authEncrypt
B.authProtect
C.authNoPriv
D.authPriv
D.authPriv
OBJ-3.1: In SNMPv3, the authPriv option ensures that the communications are sent with authentication and privacy. This uses MD5 and SHA for authentication and DES and AES for privacy and encryption.
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 3.5 Gbps?
A.802.11a
B.802.11ac
C.802.11b
D.802.11g
E.802.11ax
F.802.11n
B.802.11ac
OBJ-2.4: The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth.
Which protocol is used for the synchronization of clocks between different computer systems over a packet-switched, variable-latency data network?
A.DNS (Domain Name System; phone book of the internet)
B.DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
C.TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)
D.NTP (Network Time Protocol)
D.NTP (Network Time Protocol)
OBJ-1.6: NTP is a networking protocol that is used for the synchronization of clocks between different computer systems that communicate over a packet-switched, variable-latency data network. TCP/IP networks are packet-switched networks, so NTP is used for the synchronization of time across IP-connected servers. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses port 69 and is a simple lockstep File Transfer Protocol which allows a client to get a file from or put a file onto a remote host. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network.
Which of the following technologies combines the functionality of a firewall, malware scanner, and other security appliances into one device?
A.IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
B.Syslog
C.IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)
D.UTM (Unified Threat Management)
D.UTM (Unified Threat Management)
OBJ-2.1: A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security-related measures, combining the work of a firewall, malware scanner, and intrusion detection/prevention. A UTM centralizes the threat management service, providing simpler configuration and reporting than isolated applications spread across several servers or devices. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Unlike an IPS, which can stop malicious activity or policy violations, an IDS can only log these issues and not stop them. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) conducts the same functions as an IDS but can also block or take actions against malicious events. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network.
Michael, a system administrator, is troubleshooting an issue remotely accessing a new Windows server on the local area network using its hostname. He cannot remotely access the new server, but he can access another Windows server using its hostname on the same subnet. Which of the following commands should he enter on his workstation to resolve this connectivity issue?
A.C:\windows\system32> ipconfig /flushdns
B.C:\windows\system32> nslookup
C.C:\windows\system32> route print
D.C:\windows\system32> nbtstat -R
D.C:\windows\system32> nbtstat -R
OBJ-5.3: Since this is a Windows-based network, the client is likely attempting to connect to the servers using NetBIOS. NetBIOS stores a local cached name table in the LMHOSTS file on each client. If the entry in the client file is pointing to the wrong IP, this could cause the connectivity issues described. Therefore, the system administrator should enter the “nbtstat -R” command to purge and reload the cached name table from the LMHOST file on their Windows workstation. The nslookup command is used to query the domain name system (DNS) to obtain information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. The nslookup command has an interactive and non-interactive mode. The ipconfig command is used on Windows devices to display the current TCP/IP network configuration and refresh the DHCP and DNS settings on a given host. The route command is used to create, view, or modify manual entries in the network routing tables of a computer or server.
Which type of network device operates at layer 1 of the OSI model and requires connected devices to operate at half-duplex using CSMA/CD?
A.Switch
B.Router
C.Hub
D.Bridge
C.Hub
OBJ-2.1: A hub is a network hardware device for connecting multiple Ethernet devices together and making them act as a single network segment. A hub operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model. All devices connected by a hub are in a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain, therefore they must use half-duplex for communication and CSMA/CD. A switch is networking hardware that connects devices on a computer network by using packet switching to receive and forward data to the destination device. A switch operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and makes switching decisions based upon MAC addresses. Each switchport on a switch is a separate collision domain, but all switchports are in a common broadcast domain. A switch is networking hardware that connects devices on a computer network by using packet switching to receive and forward data to the destination device. A switch operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and makes switching decisions based upon MAC addresses. Each switchport on a switch is a separate collision domain, but all switchports are in a common broadcast domain. A router is networking hardware that connects computer networks and forwards data packets between those networks. A router operates at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model and makes routing decisions based upon IP addresses. Each switchport on a router is a separate collision domain and a separate broadcast domain.
When a criminal or government investigation is underway, what describes the identification, recovery, or exchange of electronic information relevant to that investigation?
A.Encryption
B.First responder
C.Data transport
D.eDiscovery
D.eDiscovery
OBJ-3.2: By process of elimination, you can easily answer this question. Data transport is the transport of data, while the first responder is the first person to arrive on the scene. Encryption is a method of putting data into a tunnel so that it is completely secure. This leaves us with eDiscovery. eDiscovery is the term that refers to the process of evidence collection through digital forensics. eDiscovery is conducted during an incident response.
The administrator would like to use the strongest encryption level possible using PSK without utilizing an additional authentication server. What encryption type should be implemented?
A.MAC filtering (Media Access Control)
B.WPA2 Enterprise (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)
C.WPA personal (Wi-Fi Protected Access)
D.WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)
C.WPA personal (Wi-Fi Protected Access)
OBJ-4.3: Since he wishes to use a pre-shared key and not require an authentication server, WPA personal is the most secure choice. If WPA2 Personal were an option, it would be more secure, though. WPA2 Enterprise is incorrect since the requirement was for a PSK, whereas WPA2 Enterprise requires a RADIUS authentication server to be used with individual usernames and passwords for each client. MAC filtering does not use a password or preshared key. WEP uses a pre-shared key to secure a wireless network, but WPA uses a stronger encryption standard than WEP.
Which of the following levels would a debugging condition generate?
A.0
B.7
C.1
D.6
B.7
OBJ-3.1: The severity levels range from zero to seven, with zero being the most severe and seven being the least severe. Level 0 is used for an emergency and is considered the most severe condition because the system has become unstable. Level 1 is used for an alert condition and means that there is a condition that should be corrected immediately. Level 2 is used for a critical condition, and it means that there is a failure in the system’s primary application and it requires immediate attention. Level 3 is used for an error condition, and it means that something is happening to the system that is preventing the proper function. Level 4 is used for warning conditions and it may indicate that an error will occur if action is not taken soon. Level 5 is used for notice conditions and it means that the events are unusual, but they are not error conditions. Level 6 is used for information conditions and it is a normal operational message that requires no action. Level 7 is used for debugging conditions and is just information that is useful to developers as they are debugging their networks and applications.
You are working as a network technician running new unshielded twisted pair cables from the intermediate distribution frame to the individual offices on the same floor. The cable comes in 1000 foot spools. Which of the following tools should you use to break the cable into shorter distances?
A.Punchdown tool
B.Cable stripper
C.Cable snip
D.Cable crimper
C.Cable snip
OBJ-5.2: A cable snip or cable cutter is used to cut copper cables into shorter lengths from a longer spool of wound cable. A cable crimper is used to join the internal wires of a twisted pair cable with metallic pins houses inside a plastic connector, such as an RJ-45 connector. A cable stripper is a hand-held tool that is used to remove the insulation or outer sheath from copper cables such as UTP, STP, or coaxial cables. A punchdown tool is used to insert wires into insulation displacement connectors on patch panels, keystone modules, or punchdown blocks.
Which type of wireless technology are OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing) , QAM (Quadrature Amplitude Modulation), and QPSK (Quadrature Phase Shift Keying) examples of?
A.RF interference (Radio Frequency)
B.Frequency
C.Modulation
D.Spectrum
C.Modulation
OBJ-2.4: Modulation is the process of varying one or more properties of a periodic waveform, called the carrier signal, with a separate signal called the modulation signal that typically contains information to be transmitted. WiFi can use different digital modulation schemes for data transmission. Common types of modulation include Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM), Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM), and Quadrature Phase-shift keying (PSK). Frequency is the number of occurrences of a repeating event per unit of time. Wireless networks utilize three different frequency bands: 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 6 GHz. Interference occurs when two radios are transmitting or receiving on the same frequencies. Spectrum refers to the range of frequencies used by a radio transmitter or receiver, such as the 2.4 GHz spectrum which includes frequencies from 2.412 GHz to 2.472 GHz in the United States.
Dion Training is trying to connect two geographically dispersed offices using a VPN connection. You have been asked to configure their networks to allow VPN traffic into the network. Which device should you configure FIRST?
A.Switch
B.Modem
C.Router
D.Firewall
D.Firewall
OBJ-2.1: You should FIRST configure the firewall since the firewall is installed at the network’s external boundary (perimeter). By allowing the VPN connection through the firewall, the two networks can be connected and function as a single intranet (internal network). After configuring the firewall, you will need to verify the router is properly configured to route traffic between the two sites using the site-to-site VPN connection. A modem modulates and demodulates electrical signals sent through phone lines, coaxial cables, or other types of wiring. A layer 2 switch is a type of network switch or device that works on the data link layer (OSI Layer 2) and utilizes MAC Address to determine the path through where the frames are to be forwarded. It uses hardware-based switching techniques to connect and transmit data in a local area network (LAN).
