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255A - Warrant Officer Advance Course > ITIL Foundation V3 Practice Test > Flashcards

ITIL Foundation V3 Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?

A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests

B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests

C. Web front-end

D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software

A

A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests

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2
Q

What is a RACI model used for?

A. Defining roles and responsibilities

B. Monitoring services

C. Performance analysis

D. Recording Configuration Items

A

A. Defining roles and responsibilities

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3
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)

B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization

C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management

Databases (CMDB)

D. The SKMS can include user skill levels

A

A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)

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4
Q

The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)

B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)

D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)

A

A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)

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5
Q

In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?

A. Service Transition

B. Service Design

C. Service Strategy

D. Service Operation

A

B. Service Design

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6
Q

Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skilltominimise the cost of training them

B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles

C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries

D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained

A

B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management databases (CMDB)

B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)

C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization

D. The SKMS can include user skill levels

A

B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)

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8
Q

Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

A. Services and Infrastructure

B. Applications and Infrastructure

C. Resources and Capabilities

D. Utility and Warranty

A

C. Resources and Capabilities

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue

B. The design of Market Spaces

C. The design of new or changed services

D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

A

B. The design of Market Spaces

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate

C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio

D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate

A

D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate

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11
Q

Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?

A. Service Catalogue Manager

B. IT Designer/Architect

C. Process Manager

D. Supplier Manager

A

D. Supplier Manager

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12
Q

(SKIP) Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?

A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A

A

C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

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13
Q

A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?

A. The contract is being negotiated

B. The contract is about to be ended

C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon

D. The contract has been agreed

A

A. The contract is being negotiated

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14
Q

Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines

B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure

C. A change that is made as the result of an audit

D. A change that correctly follows the required change process

A

B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure

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15
Q

The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle

B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services

C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs

A

C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

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16
Q

Exhibit:

(SKIP) Please refer to the exhibit:

Which of the statements is CORRECT for every process?

A. 1 only

B. Neither of the above

C. 2 only

D. Both of the above

A

A. 1 only

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17
Q

Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skilltominimise the cost of training them

B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained

C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles

D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries

A

C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles

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18
Q

Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?

  1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
  2. What services to offer and to whom?
  3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

A. 3 only

B. 1 only

C. 2 only

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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19
Q

Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk

D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database

A

C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk

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20
Q

How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

B. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

C. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

A

D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

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21
Q

Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analysed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question “Did we get there?”?

A. Service Strategy

B. Service Design

C. Service Operation

D. Service Transition

A

C. Service Operation

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22
Q

Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?

  1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
  2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets
  3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place

A. 1 and 3 only

B. All of the above

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only

A

A. 1 and 3 only

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23
Q

Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?

A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator

B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator

C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager

D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager

A

B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator

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24
Q

In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.

It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:

A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line

B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line

C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line

D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line

A

D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line

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25
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)

A

B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

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26
Q

The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?

A. Business Value

B. Functionality

C. IT Assets

D. Service Level Requirements

A

A. Business Value

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27
Q

Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?

A. Whether to buy an application or build it

B. Should application development be outsourced

C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be

D. Where the vendor of an application is located

A

A. Whether to buy an application or build it

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28
Q

What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?

A. Service Solution

B. Customer / Business Needs

C. Service Release

D. Service Requirements

A

B. Customer / Business Needs

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29
Q

What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?

A. Customer / Business Needs

B. Service Release

C. Service Requirements

D. Service Solution

A

A. Customer / Business Needs

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30
Q

Service Acceptance criteria are used to?

A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle

B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place

C. Ensure delivery and support of a service

D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported

A

C. Ensure delivery and support of a service

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31
Q

Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?

A. Service Desk

B. Facilities Management

C. Technical Management

D. IT Operations Control

A

B. Facilities Management

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32
Q

Which of the following are Service Desk organisational structures?

  1. Local Service Desk
  2. Virtual Service Desk
  3. IT Help Desk
  4. Follow the Sun

A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only

A

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

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33
Q

“Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”. These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?

A. Markets and Customers

B. Functions and Processes

C. People, products and technology

D. Applications and Infrastructure

A

B. Functions and Processes

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34
Q

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?

A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk

C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them

D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

A

B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk

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35
Q

Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk

C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database

D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

A

B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk

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36
Q

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Availability Management

B. Service Level Management

C. Continual Service Improvement

D. Business Relationship Management

A

B. Service Level Management

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37
Q

What are the three Service Provider business models?

A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party

B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit

C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party

D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

A

D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

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38
Q

Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Data

B. Knowledge

C. Wisdom

D. Information

A

C. Wisdom

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39
Q

Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

A. Incident Management

B. Request fulfilment

C. Release and Deployment Management

D. Access management

A

B. Request fulfilment

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40
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

  1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
    Operation
  2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services

A. Both of the above

B. Neither of the above

C. 2 only

D. 1 only

A

C. 2 only

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41
Q

The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs

B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle

D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services

A

B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

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42
Q

Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?

A. Overall business riskisoptimised

B. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes

C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system

A

C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

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43
Q

How does Problem Management work with Change Management?

A. By installing changes to fix problems

B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution

C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions

D. By working with users to change their IT configurations

A

C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions

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44
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)

C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

A

D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

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45
Q

Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process?

A. Service Portfolio Management

B. Service Level Management

C. Component Capacity Management

D. Demand Management

A

D. Demand Management

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46
Q

Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.

B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.

C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.

D. Provide training and certification in project management.

A

D. Provide training and certification in project management.

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47
Q

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output

B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service

C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred

D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service

A

D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service

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48
Q

The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?

A. The design and development of new services

B. The design and development of service improvements

C. The design and development of services and service management processes

D. The day-to-day operation and support of services

A

C. The design and development of services and service management processes

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49
Q

How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

B. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

D. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to

implement Continual Improvement

A

C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

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50
Q

Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

A. Access management

B. Request fulfillment

C. Release and Deployment Management

D. Incident Management

A

B. Request fulfillment

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51
Q

To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?

A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve

B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene

C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene

D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve

A

C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene

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52
Q

Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items need to be identified?

A. Business Objectives,IT Objectives, Process Metrics

B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives

C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals

D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions

A

C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals

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53
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

  1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
  2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A. 2 only

B. 1 only

C. Neither of the above

D. Both of the above

A

B. 1 only

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54
Q

Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

A. Resources and Capabilities

B. Services and Infrastructure

C. Utility and Warranty

D. Applications and Infrastructure

A

A. Resources and Capabilities

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55
Q

Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines

B. A change that correctly follows the required change process

C. A change that is made as the result of an audit

D. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure

A

D. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure

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56
Q

What is the definition of an Alert?

A. An error message to the user of an application

B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

C. A type of Incident

D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures

A

B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

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57
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?

A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media)

B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-
defined approval and qualification process exists

C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards

D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for obtaining them

A

C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards

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58
Q

The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

A. Urgent Change Board (UCB)

B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)

C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)

D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

A

C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)

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59
Q

Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Data

B. Wisdom

C. Information

D. Knowledge

A

B. Wisdom

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60
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A. It is measurable

B. Delivers specific results

C. A method of structuring an organization

D. Responds to specific events

A

C. A method of structuring an organization

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61
Q

Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?

A. IT Designer/Architect

B. Process Manager

C. Service Catalogue Manager

D. Supplier Manager

A

D. Supplier Manager

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62
Q

Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio

C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate

D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate

A

D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate

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63
Q

The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?

A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components

B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and effectiveness

C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology metrics include availability and capacity

D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics measure the infrastructure

A

A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components

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64
Q

The term ‘Service Management’ is best used to describe?

A. Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities

B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services

C. The management of functions with in an organisation to perform certain activities

D. A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of services

A

B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services

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65
Q

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred

B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service

C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service

D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output

A

B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service

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66
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager

B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner

C. The Service Desk Manager

D. The Service Manager

A

B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner

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67
Q

Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

A. IT Service Continuity Management

B. Service Level Management

C. Service Catalogue Management

D. Capacity Management

A

D. Capacity Management

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68
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)

C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

A

A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

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69
Q

The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)

B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)

C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)

D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

A

B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)

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70
Q

What is a RACI model used for?

A. Performance analysis

B. Recording Configuration Items

C. Defining roles and responsibilities

D. Monitoring services

A

C. Defining roles and responsibilities

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71
Q

Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives

B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals

C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines

D. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”

A

D. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”

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72
Q

Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure

B. A change that is made as the result of an audit

C. A change that correctly follows the required change process

D. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines

A

A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure

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73
Q

What are the three Service Provider business models?

A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit

C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party

D. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party

A

A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

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74
Q

Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives

B. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”

C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals

D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines

A

B. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”

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75
Q

A Service Level Agreement is?

A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party

B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer

C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier

D. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organisation

A

B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer

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76
Q

One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?

A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

B. Only requirements needed and agreed

C. Only capabilities needed and agreed

D. Only resources and capabilities needed

A

A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

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77
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according

to the agreed and documented process?

A. The Service Desk Manager

B. The Service Manager

C. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager

D. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner

A

D. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner

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78
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation

B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages

C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes

A

B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages

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79
Q

(SKIP) Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?

A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

B. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

C. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B

D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A

A

A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

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80
Q

Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?

A. Extreme focus on cost

B. Extreme focus on responsiveness

C. Vendor focused

D. Extreme internal focus

A

D. Extreme internal focus

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81
Q

Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

A. Where are we now?

B. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

C. Prepare for action

D. Define what you should measure

A

D. Define what you should measure

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82
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages

B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation

C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes

A

A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages

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83
Q

In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?

A. Service Operation

B. Service Transition

C. Service Strategy

D. Service Design

A

D. Service Design

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84
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager

B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner

C. The Service Manager

D. The Service Desk Manager

A

B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner

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85
Q

Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

A. IT Service Continuity Management

B. Service Catalogue Management

C. Capacity Management

D. Service Level Management

A

C. Capacity Management

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86
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?

A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held

B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licences

C. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected

D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected

A

D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected

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87
Q

The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle

B. To design and build processes that will meet business needs

C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services

D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

A

D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

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88
Q

Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?

A. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system

B. Overall business risk is optimised

C. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes

D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

A

D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

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89
Q

Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?

A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure

B. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application

C. Deciding whether to buy or build an application

D. Assisting in the design of the application

A

A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure

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90
Q

What is a RACI model used for?

A. Defining roles and responsibilities

B. Performance analysis

C. Recording Configuration Items

D. Monitoring services

A

A. Defining roles and responsibilities

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91
Q

Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

A. Prepare for action

B. Define what you should measure

C. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

D. Where are we now?

A

B. Define what you should measure

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92
Q

What is the definition of an Alert?

A. A type of Incident

B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

C. An error message to the user of an application

D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures

A

B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

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93
Q

Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct?

A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity

B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services

C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a service has been disrupted

D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal service. This includes technical staff

A

B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services

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94
Q

To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?

A. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene

B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve

C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene

D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve

A

C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene

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95
Q

In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on ‘Stability’, what might the likely outcome be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?

A. Customers needs will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery

B. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability

C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed

D. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within business timescales

A

D. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within business timescales

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96
Q

Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Knowledge

B. Data

C. Information

D. Wisdom

A

D. Wisdom

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97
Q

Major Incidents require?

A. Less documentation

B. Longer timescales

C. Less urgency

D. Separate procedures

A

D. Separate procedures

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98
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue

B. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

C. The design of Market Spaces

D. The design of new or changed services

A

C. The design of Market Spaces

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99
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?

A. Eliminating recurring Incidents

B. Minimising the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented

C. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening

D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimising adverse impact on the business

A

D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimising adverse impact on the business

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100
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?

A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held

B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected

C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licenses

D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected

A

D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected

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101
Q

Which of the following BEST describes a ‘Major Incident’?

A. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal time to log it

B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve

C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business

D. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can be found

A

C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business

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102
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization

B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced

C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes

A

C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages

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103
Q

Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Center would be managed by?

A. Service Desk

B. IT Operations Control

C. Technical Management

D. Facilities Management

A

D. Facilities Management

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104
Q

An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?

A. Excessive focus on quality

B. Excessively reactive

C. Excessively proactive

D. Excessive focus on cost

A

D. Excessive focus on cost

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105
Q

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?

A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them

B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk

C. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

A

B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk

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106
Q

What is the definition of an Alert?

A. An error message to the user of an application

B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures

C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

D. A type of Incident

A

C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

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107
Q

“Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?

A. Functions and Processes

B. Markets and Customers

C. Applications and Infrastructure

D. People, products and technology

A

A. Functions and Processes

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108
Q

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services

have met their targets?

A. Business Relationship Management

B. Continual Service Improvement

C. Service Level Management

D. Availability Management

A

C. Service Level Management

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109
Q

Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals

B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines

C. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”

D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives

A

C. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”

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110
Q

How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?

A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered

B. Showing the business impact of a change

C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items

D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure

A

A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered

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111
Q

Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

A. Service Level Management

B. Performance Management

C. Capacity Management

D. Event Management

A

B. Performance Management

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112
Q

In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:

A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line

B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line

C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line

D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line

A

B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line

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113
Q

Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they
contribute is?

A. Whether to buy an application or build it

B. Should application development be outsourced

C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be

D. Where the vendor of an application is located

A

A. Whether to buy an application or build it

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114
Q

Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?

  1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
  2. What services to offer and to whom?
  3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

A. 2 only

B. 1 only

C. All of the above

D. 3 only

A

C. All of the above

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115
Q

Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?

A. Access Management

B. Incident Management

C. Request Fulfillment

D. Change Management

A

A. Access Management

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116
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A. Delivers specific results

B. A method of structuring an organization

C. Responds to specific events

D. It is measurable

A

B. A method of structuring an organization

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117
Q

Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

A. Applications and Infrastructure

B. Services and Infrastructure

C. Resources and Capabilities

D. Utility and Warranty

A

C. Resources and Capabilities

118
Q

Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?

A. Extreme internal focus

B. Extreme focus on cost

C. Extreme focus on responsiveness

D. Vendor focused

A

A. Extreme internal focus

119
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A. Delivers specific results

B. Responds to specific events

C. It is measurable

D. A method of structuring an organization

A

D. A method of structuring an organisation

120
Q

Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Center?

A. IT Operations Management

B. Applications Management

C. Service Desk

D. Technical Management

A

A. IT Operations Management

121
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?

A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.

B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements

C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.

D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio

A

C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.

122
Q

Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?

A. Software design

B. Process design

C. Environment design

D. Strategy design

A

B. Process design

123
Q

Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?

A. Governance

B. Service Level Management

C. Capacity Management

D. Service Strategy

A

B. Service Level Management

124
Q

Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?

A. Applications Management

B. Service Desk

C. Technical Management

D. IT Operations Management

A

C. Technical Management

125
Q

Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?

A. The Service Owner

B. The Continual Service Improvement Manager

C. The Change Advisory Board (CAB)

D. The Change Management Process Owner

A

A. The Service Owner

126
Q

The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is that:

A. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement

B. An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support needed to deliver the service

C. An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level Targets

D. An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer

A

A. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement

127
Q

Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?

A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs

B. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services

C. To transform Service Management into a strategic asset

D. To underscore the importance of services in the global economy

A

B. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services

128
Q

Which of the following best describes a Service Request?

A. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface

B. A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change

C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a CAB meeting

D. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for

A

C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a CAB meeting

129
Q

(SKIP) Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply

A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

B. To automatically detect service affecting Events

C. The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

A

A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

130
Q

What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?

A. Informational, Scheduled, Normal

B. Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency

C. Informational, Warning, Exception

D. Warning, Reactive, Proactive

A

C. Informational, Warning, Exception

131
Q

Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?

A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management

B. Supplier Management and Demand Management

C. Demand Management and Service Level Management

D. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management

A

A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management

132
Q

Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A. Change Management

B. Service Portfolio Management

C. Supplier Management

D. Continual Service Improvement

A

C. Supplier Management

133
Q

Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service Strategy

B. Continual Service Improvement

C. Service Operation

D. Service Design

A

B. Continual Service Improvement

134
Q

Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

A. Demand Management

B. Incident Management

C. Release and Deployment Management

D. Request Fulfillment

A

D. Request Fulfilment

135
Q

Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?

A. Measurement, methods and metrics

B. Service Design Package

C. Service Portfolio Design

D. Process definitions

A

B. Service Design Package

136
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A. Review and analyse Service Level Achievement results

B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes

C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction

D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

A

D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

137
Q

Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?

  1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
  2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

A

C. Both of the above

138
Q

Access Management is closely related to which other processes?

A. Availability Management only

B. Information Security Management and 3rd line support

C. Information Security Management and Availability Management

D. Information Security Management only

A

C. Information Security Management and Availability Management

139
Q

Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?

A. Service Level Management

B. Problem Management

C. Change Management

D. Event Management

A

B. Problem Management

140
Q

Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. Technology, Customer, User

B. Corporate, Customer, Service

C. Corporate, Customer, Technology

D. Service, User, IT

A

B. Corporate, Customer, Service

141
Q

Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually Improve

B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?

C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented;Improve the solution

D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

A

D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

142
Q

Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages

  1. Monitor, Measure and Review
  2. Continual Improvement
  3. Implement Initiatives
  4. Plan for Improvement

A. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act

B. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act

D. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

A

C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act

143
Q

A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

A. Yes

B. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created

C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented

D. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem

A

A. Yes

144
Q

Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognized in the Service Operation volume of ITIL?

A. Local

B. Centralized

C. Holistic

D. Virtual

A

C. Holistic

145
Q

Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

A. The value of a service

B. Customer satisfaction

C. Total cost of ownership

D. Key performance indicators

A

A. The value of a service

146
Q

Service Design emphasizes the importance of the “Four Ps”. These “Four P’s” include Partners, People, Processes and one other “P”. Which of the following is the additional “P”?

A. Profit

B. Preparation

C. Products

D. Potential

A

C. Products

147
Q

Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as ‘Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision?

A. Where are we now?

B. Where do we want to be?

C. How do we get there?

D. Did we get there?

A

B. Where do we want to be?

148
Q

Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?

  1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
  2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability
  3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals

A. 1 only

B. All of the above

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1 and 3 only

A

B. All of the above

149
Q

In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?

A. An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any users

B. An Incident is passed to second-level support

C. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring incidents

D. Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it

A

C. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring incidents

150
Q

Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of
compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value
through which part of the service lifecycle?

A. Service Transition

B. Risk Management

C. IT Service Continuity Management

D. Availability Management

A

A. Service Transition

151
Q

Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?

A. The IT Executive

B. The ISO27001 Standard

C. The Business

D. The Service Level Manager

A

C. The Business

152
Q

Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process

A. A change to a contract with a supplier

B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes

C. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident

D. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services

A

D. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services

153
Q

Hierarchic escalation is best described as?

A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident

B. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill

C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction

D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement

A

A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident

154
Q

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?

A. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents

B. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle

C. To restore service to a user

D. To eliminate recurring Incidents

A

C. To restore service to a user

155
Q

There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?

  1. Progress
  2. Effectiveness
  3. Efficiency
  4. ?

A. Cost

B. Conformance

C. Compliance

D. Capacity

A

C. Compliance

156
Q

The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is called:

A. A Service Level Package

B. A Service Transition Package

C. A Service Design Package

D. A New Service Package

A

C. A Service Design Package

157
Q

Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

A. Definitive Media Library (DML)

B. Configuration Management System (CMS)

C. Statement of Requirements (SOR)

D. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

A

B. Configuration Management System (CMS)

158
Q

You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines. Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?

A. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership

B. Improved quality of service

C. Improved Service alignment with business goals

D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

A

D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

159
Q

Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

A

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

160
Q

What is the objective of Access Management?

A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings

B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations

C. To manage access to the Service Desk

D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services

A

D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services

161
Q

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed

B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly

C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust

D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language

A

B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly

162
Q

Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

  1. Known Error Data
  2. Change Schedules
  3. Service Knowledge Management System
  4. The output from monitoring tools

A. 1,2 and 3 only

B. 1,2 and4 only

C. 2,3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

163
Q

Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration Management?

A. Describes the topography of the hardware

B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services

C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware

D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

A

B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services

164
Q

“Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production” is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service Operation

B. Service Strategy

C. Service Transition

D. Continual Service Improvement

A

C. Service Transition

165
Q

Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?

  1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
  2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

A

C. Both of the above

166
Q

Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT?

A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being

B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development

C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment

D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing

considered for future development

A

C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment

167
Q

Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:

A. A configuration management database (CMDB)

B. A capacity database (CDB)

C. A configuration management system (CMS)

D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)

A

D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)

168
Q

A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:

  1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
  2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA

Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

A

D. Neither of the above

169
Q

Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:

A. Services and Components

B. Services and Business Processes

C. Components and Business Processes

D. Services, Components and Business Processes

A

A. Services and Components

170
Q

Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?

A. Continual Service Improvement

B. Service Transition

C. Service Design

D. Service Operation

A

D. Service Operation

171
Q

Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change

B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes

C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB

D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

A

C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB

172
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

The Service Owner:

A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own

B. Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service they own

C. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service they own

D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

A

A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own

173
Q

Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not

B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset

C. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not

D. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset

A

B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset

174
Q

The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Continual Service Improvement

B. Service Strategy

C. Service Design

D. Service Transition

A

B. Service Strategy

175
Q

What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers

B. Reporting intervals should be set by the Service Provider

C. Reports should be produced weekly

D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services

A

A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers

176
Q

Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?

A. Service Level Management

B. IT Operations Management

C. Capacity Management

D. Incident Management

A

B. IT Operations Management

177
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?

A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

C. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening

D. To detect security events and make sense of them

A

B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

178
Q

Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?

A. Access Management

B. Facilities Management

C. Event Management

D. Demand Management

A

A. Access Management

179
Q

A risk is:

A. Something that won’t happen

B. Something that will happen

C. Something that has happened

D. Something that might happen

A

D. Something that might happen

180
Q

What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?

A. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books

B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance

C. The Service Support and Service Delivery books

D. Pocket Guides

A

B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance

181
Q

A Process Owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be expected of them?

A. Tell others about the progress of an activity

B. Perform an activity

C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity

D. Manage an activity

A

C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity

182
Q

Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?

A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other

B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority

C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority

D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency

A

D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency

183
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives

B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other

C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate

D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

A

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives

184
Q

Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?

  1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business
  2. The successful release of services into the live environment

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

A

A. 1 only

185
Q

Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?

A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance

B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer

C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity

D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer

A

C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity

186
Q

Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (CIs)?

  1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
  2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
  3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
  4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade

A. 1 and 2 only

B. All of the above

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only

A

B. All of the above

187
Q

What does a service always deliver to customers?

A. Applications

B. Infrastructure

C. Value

D. Resources

A

C. Value

188
Q

Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?

  1. Data mining and workflow tools
  2. Measurement and reporting systems
  3. Release and deployment technology
  4. Process Design

A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

A

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

189
Q

Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?

A. Processes and functions

B. Maturity and cost

C. The end to end service

D. Infrastructure availability

A

C. The end to end service

190
Q

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use

B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer

C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure

D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service

A

D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service

191
Q

Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?

  1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives
  2. A process should be documented

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

A

C. Both of the above

192
Q

Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?

A. The Service Level Manager

B. The Business Relationship Manager

C. The Service Owner

D. The Service Continuity Manager

A

C. The Service Owner

193
Q

Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

  1. Risk assessment
  2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
  3. Monitoring of component availability

A. All of the above

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

A

B. 1 and 2 only

194
Q

Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized Service Desk?

A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves

B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place

C. The desk provides 24 hour global support

D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

A

D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

195
Q

What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:

  1. What is the vision?
  2. Where are we now?
  3. Where do we want to be?
  4. How do we get there?
  5. Did we get there?
  6. ?

A. What is the ReturnOn Investment (ROI)?

B. How much did it cost?

C. How do we keep the momentum going?

D. What is the ValueOn Investment (VOI)?

A

C. How do we keep the momentum going?

196
Q

Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?

A. Remediation Planning

B. Categorization

C. Prioritization

D. Review and Close

A

A. Remediation Planning

197
Q

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported

B. To provide training and certification in project management

C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management

D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

A

B. To provide training and certification in project management

198
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur

B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs

C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users

D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

A

C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users

199
Q

Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?

A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed

C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release

D. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process

A

A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

200
Q

Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?

A. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems

B. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customers

C. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function

D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertise and overall management of the IT Infrastructure

A

D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertise and overall management of the IT Infrastructure

201
Q

IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:

1: Design of the service technology
2: Business continuity strategy
3: Business Impact Analysis
4: Risk assessment

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only

A

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

202
Q

Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents?

A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM)
activities

B. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incident

C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency

D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service

A

A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM)
activities

203
Q

Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?

  1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts
  2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database
  3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts
  4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. None of the above

A

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

204
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?

A. The IT Director

B. The Process Owner

C. The Service Owner

D. The Customer

A

B. The Process Owner

205
Q

When should tests for a new service be designed?

A. At the same time as the service is designed

B. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition

C. As part of Service Transition

D. Before the service is designed

A

A. At the same time as the service is designed

206
Q

Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:

A. Service Design: Design the processes

B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings

C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment

D. Service Operation:IT Operations Management

A

A. Service Design: Design the processes

207
Q

Reliability is a measure of:

A. The availability of a service or component

B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process

C. How long a service or component can perform its function without failing

D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working

A

C. How long a service or component can perform its function without failing

208
Q

What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?

A. Measurements that match the customer’s perception of the service

B. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured

D. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements

A

C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured

209
Q

Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?

A. Network Management and Application Management

B. Technical Management and Change Management

C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management

D. Facilities Management and Release Management

A

C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management

210
Q

As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types?

  1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
  2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
  3. An external service provider

A. All of the above

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

A

A. All of the above

211
Q

What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

A. Rapid, one-off improvement

B. Return on investment within 12 months

C. Quick wins

D. Steady, ongoing improvement

A

D. Steady, ongoing improvement

212
Q

The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:

A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services

B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services

C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue

D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

A

D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

213
Q

Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and
relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?

A. Service Level Management

B. Change Management

C. Incident Management

D. Service Asset and Configuration Management

A

D. Service Asset and Configuration Management

214
Q

What is the Service Pipeline?

A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage

B. All services except those that have been retired

C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. All complex multi-user services

A

A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage

215
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established

B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations
should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management

C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time

D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider

A

B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations
should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management

216
Q

Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

A. The Asset Register

B. The Service Knowledge Management System

C. The Known Error Database

D. The Information Management System

A

B. The Service Knowledge Management System

217
Q

Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?

A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA)

B. The Problem Record

C. The Availability Management Information System

D. The IT Service Continuity Plan

A

B. The Problem Record

218
Q

What are Request Models used for?

A. Capacity Management

B. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests

C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote

D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled

A

D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled

219
Q

Consider the following list:

  1. Change Authority
  2. Change Manager
  3. Change Advisory Board (CAB)

What are these BEST described as?

A. Job descriptions

B. Functions

C. Teams

D. Roles, people or groups

A

D. Roles, people or groups

220
Q

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service

B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use

C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services

D. An SLA for a service with no customers

A

A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service

221
Q

In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation’s contribution?

A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated

B. Measures for optimization are identified

C. Service value is modelled

D. Service value is actually seen by customers

A

D. Service value is actually seen by customers

222
Q

A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:

A. The RACI Model

B. A Release Package

C. A Request Model

D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

A

B. A Release Package

223
Q

Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary
knowledge?

A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt

C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

A

A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

224
Q

Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service Operation to perform?

  1. Communication between Data Center shifts
  2. Communication related to changes
  3. Performance reporting
  4. Routine operational communication

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

225
Q

Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

A. Service Operation

B. Service Transition

C. Continual Service Improvement

D. Service Strategy

A

C. Continual Service Improvement

226
Q

Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available

B. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged

C. All incidents must be fully logged

D. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log

A

C. All incidents must be fully logged

227
Q

In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage ‘How do we get there? 1 is underpinned by which set of activities?

A. Baseline assessments

B. Service and process improvements

C. Taking measurements and recording metrics

D. Setting measurement targets

A

B. Service and process improvements

228
Q

Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

A. The Service Level Manager

B. The IT Service Continuity Manager

C. The Service Catalogue Manager

D. The Supplier Manager

A

D. The Supplier Manager

229
Q

Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?

A. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or disaster

B. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers

C. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damage or loss

D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation

A

D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation

230
Q

Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?

A. A measurement of cost

B. A function described within Service Transition

C. The team of people responsible for implementing a release

D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

A

D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

231
Q

Which process lists “Understanding patterns of business activity” as a major role?

A. Demand Management

B. Supplier Management

C. Service Desk

D. Request Fulfillment

A

A. Demand Management

232
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. Process owners are more important to service management than service owners

B. Service owners are more important to service management than process owners

C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners

D. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization

A

C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners

233
Q

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)

B. A Request for Change (RFC)

C. The Service Portfolio

D. A Service Description

A

A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)

234
Q

The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?

A. The utility of a service

B. The warranty of a service

C. The economic value of a service

D. Return on investment

A

A. The utility of a service

235
Q

What are the two major processes in Problem Management?

A. Technical and Service

B. Resource and Proactive

C. Reactive and Technical

D. Proactive and Reactive

A

D. Proactive and Reactive

236
Q

Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?

A. The Change Advisory Board

B. A person that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change.

C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change.

D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorization for each change

A

C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change.

237
Q

Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?

A. The Service Level Manager

B. The Configuration Manager

C. The Change Manager

D. The Information Security Manager

A

D. The Information Security Manager

238
Q

Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A. Service Design

B. Service Transition

C. Service Strategy

D. Service Operation

A

C. Service Strategy

239
Q

Identify the input to the Problem Management process

A. Request for Change

B. Problem Resolution

C. Incident Records

D. New Known Errors

A

C. Incident Records

240
Q

Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?

A. Early Life Support

B. Service Test Manager

C. Evaluation

D. Release Packaging and Build Manager

A

A. Early Life Support

241
Q

The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be?

A. Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement

B. Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements

C. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backed-
up.

D. Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available.

A

C. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backed-
up.

242
Q

Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

A. The value of a service

B. Customer satisfaction

C. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)

D. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

A

A. The value of a service

243
Q

Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?

A. Capacity Management

B. Incident Management

C. Service Level Management

D. Financial Management

A

A. Capacity Management

244
Q

Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?:

  1. The services
  2. The architectures
  3. The configuration items
  4. The processes

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

245
Q

Service Design emphasizes the importance of the Four Ps’. Which of the following is a correct list of these Four Ps?

A. People, Products, Partners, Profit

B. People, Process, Products, Partners

C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit

D. People, Potential, Products, Performance

A

B. People, Process, Products, Partners

246
Q

With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

A. Incident Management

B. Service Asset and Configuration Management

C. Capacity Management

D. IT Service Continuity

A

A. Incident Management

247
Q

In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against
targets?

A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

B. Capacity Plan

C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

A

D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

248
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base

B. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System

C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system

D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database

A

C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system

249
Q

Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?

A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance

B. The Service Support book

C. Pocket Guides

D. The Service Strategy book

A

A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance

250
Q

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

A. Configuration Baseline

B. Project Baseline

C. Change Baseline

D. Asset Baseline

A

A. Configuration Baseline

251
Q

Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?

A. The Service Provider

B. The Service Level Manager

C. The Customer

D. The Finance department

A

A. The Service Provider

252
Q

Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?

  1. Things that were done correctly
  2. Those things that were done incorrectly
  3. How to prevent recurrence
  4. What could be done better in the future

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

253
Q

What is the name of the area where the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (Cls) are stored and protected?

A. Definitive Media Library

B. Definitive Software Store

C. Service Knowledge Management System

D. Software Secure Library

A

A. Definitive Media Library

254
Q

Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?

A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge

B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom

C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data

D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

A

B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom

255
Q

Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service Strategy

B. Service Transition

C. Service Operation

D. Continual Service Improvement

A

C. Service Operation

256
Q

Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?

  1. Architectures
  2. Technology
  3. Service Management processes
  4. Metrics

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

257
Q

Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

A. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database

B. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item

C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management

D. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported

A

C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management

258
Q

Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?

A. Incident Model

B. Problem Model

C. Configuration Model

D. Change Model

A

C. Configuration Model

259
Q

The BEST processes to automate are those that are:

A. Carried out by Service Operations

B. Carried out by lots of people

C. Critical to the success of the business mission

D. Simple and well understood

A

D. Simple and well understood

260
Q

Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

  1. Risk assessment
  2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
  3. Monitoring of component availability

A. All of the above

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

A

B. 1 and 2 only

261
Q

What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?

A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization

B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization

C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis

D. A document that describes business services to operational staff

A

A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization

262
Q

How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

A. As many as necessary to complete the activity

B. Only one - the process owner

C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor

D. Only one - the process architect

A

B. Only one - the process owner

263
Q

Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work

B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner

C. They deliver specific results

D. They respond to specific events

A

A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work

264
Q

Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?

  1. Roles
  2. Activities
  3. Functions
  4. Responsibilities

A. 1 and 3 only

B. All of the above

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

A

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

265
Q

The Supplier Management process includes:

1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements
2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements
3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 only

C. All of the above

D. 1 and 3 only

A

C. All of the above

266
Q

Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

A. Change Management

B. Service Transition

C. Service Strategy

D. Service Design

A

D. Service Design

267
Q

Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?

A. Categorization

B. Logging

C. Prioritization

D. Closure

A

A. Categorization

268
Q

Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?

  1. Local Service Desk
  2. Virtual Service Desk
  3. IT Help Desk
  4. Follow the Sun

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

A

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

269
Q 
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual 
Service Improvement (CSI)?

A. ReturnOn Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality

B. Strategic, tactical and operational

C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities

D. Technology, process and service

A

D. Technology, process and service

270
Q

Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident?

  1. Incident Model
  2. Known Error Record

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

A

C. Both of the above

271
Q

Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

A. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)

B. Customer and User satisfaction

C. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty

D. Utility and Warranty

A

D. Utility and Warranty

272
Q

Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

A. Do

B. Perform

C. Implement

D. Measure

A

A. Do

273
Q

Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

A. Availability Management

B. Demand Management

C. Financial Management

D. Service Level Management

A

B. Demand Management

274
Q

A change process model should include:

1 - The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependencies or co-processing
defined, including handling issues and unexpected events

2 - Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation

3 - Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions

4 - Complaints procedures

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. All of the above

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

A

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

275
Q

Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider’s ability to handle high volumes of what?

A. Service level requests

B. Changes and Releases

C. Password resets

D. Incidents and Problems

A

B. Changes and Releases

276
Q

Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?

  1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
  2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcome

A. 1 only

B. Both of the above

C. 2 only

D. Neither of the above

A

B. Both of the above

277
Q

Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?

A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes

B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the

Configuration Management System (CMS)

C. To ensure that overall business risk of Change is optimized

D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

A

D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

278
Q

Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimised if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development?

A. Service Design

B. Service Strategy

C. Service Operation

D. Continual Service Improvement

A

A. Service Design

279
Q

Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

A. Service Level Management

B. Problem Management

C. Change Management

D. Event Management

A

B. Problem Management

280
Q

A Service Design Package should be produced for which of the following?

  1. A new IT service
  2. A major change to an IT service
  3. An Emergency Change to an IT service
  4. An IT service retirement

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. All of the above

A

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

281
Q

Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?

A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known

B. The cause of two or more Incidents

C. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business

D. The cause of one or more Incidents

A

D. The cause of one or more Incidents

282
Q

A process owner is responsible for which of the following?

  1. Documenting the process
  2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
  3. Improving the process
  4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required training

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. All of the above

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

A

B. All of the above

283
Q

Contracts are used to define:

A. The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider

B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers

C. Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer

D. Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement

A

B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers

284
Q

In the phrase “People, Processes, Products and Partners”. Products refers to:

A. IT Infrastructure and Applications

B. Services, technology and tools

C. Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services

D. All assets belonging to the Service Provider

A

B. Services, technology and tools

285
Q

Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
Management

B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request
Management

C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration
Management

D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management,
Request Fulfillment

A

A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
Management

286
Q

Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:

A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers

B. People, Process, Products, Technology

C. People, Process, Products, Partners

D. People, Products, Technology, Partners

A

C. People, Process, Products, Partners

287
Q

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?

A. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure

B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service

C. The unknown cause of one or more Incidents

D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an Incident or Problem

A

A. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructur

288
Q

Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard
services?

A. Request Fulfillment

B. Service Portfolio Management

C. Service Desk

D. IT Finance

A

A. Request Fulfillment

289
Q

Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving
services and service management processes?

A. Plan

B. Do

C. Check

D. Act

A

A. Plan

290
Q

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?

A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action

B. A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents

C. A complaint by the business about a missed service level.

D. The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract.

A

A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action

291
Q

Which of the following could BEST be described as “A decision support and planning tool that projects
the likely consequences of a business action”?

A. A Problem model

B. A Service Improvement Plan (SIP)

C. A Request for Change (RFC)

D. A Business Case

A

D. A Business Case

255A - Warrant Officer Advance Course (8 decks)

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