ISC Simulation Definitions Flashcards
This second-generation language is for microprocessors and other programmable devices, with a strong one-to-one correspondence between the language and the architecture’s machine code instructions. Writing programs in this language is time-consuming and prone to error.
Assembly language
This first-generation language is the elemental language of computers, a set of symbolic instruction code consisting of a long sequence of binary digital zeros and ones (bits). Every CPU has its own unique version.
Machine language
These languages have many routine procedures preprogrammed; the programmer states what is to be done, but not necessarily how to do it (e.g., find all files that contain “smith”). They are often related to a Database Management System (DBMS) that allow programmers to create database structures and manipulate data quickly and relatively easily.
Fourth-generation language
A language which inserts symbols, or tags, into text files to achieve font, color, graphic, and hyperlink effects on World Wide Web pages.
HTML
A settings file format which formats information for use on the Web by identifying the nature of the information (e.g., information coded as a telephone number could be located on a page by a browser and dialed automatically).
XML
Involves the concurrent execution of multiple jobs by the same computer, improving the utilization of system resources and enhancing system throughput.
Multiprogramming
Allows the execution of two or more programs at the same time, requiring the utilization of multiple central processing units (CPU) which share a single memory.
Multiprocessing
A flexible database approach supporting the information needs of multiple users from a common set of integrated database tables or files. Each file contains common data on a particular group (for instance, a master customer file).
Relational database
__________ involves a dedicated channel for the duration of the transmission. The sender signals that it will send a message; the receiver acknowledges the signal. The sender then sends the entire message. Voice and data may use the same line with no special data protocols. The two communicating devices must be compatible.
Circuit switching
Attackers inject malicious scripts into web applications.
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
A perpetrator modifies packet header addresses to either navigate a message to a different machine or modify the target machine’s data.
Message modification
Attackers inject malicious structured query language code into input fields of web applications.
SQL injection
Attackers exploit existing code sequences in a program’s memory to perform malicious actions without injecting new code.
Return-oriented programming (ROP) attack
An attacker intercepts and records valid data transmissions.
Replay attack
Two or more processes or threads attempt to access shared resources simultaneously.
Race conditions
An intruder observes data being transmitted and makes inferences from the frequency and length of the calls.
Traffic analysis
Exploits the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to bring down a host computer, often involving multiple hosts sharing broadcast addresses, causing heavy bandwidth usage
Smurf
A perpetrator initiates connection requests to a target server without finalizing the connection, leading to resource exhaustion and system shutdown.
SYN flood
What attack is used to gain unauthorized access to a system by tricking a user into logging into a malicious system to capture their username and password?
Password spoofing
What helps prevent hardware or software failures from causing system downtime?
Fault tolerance
What distributes data across multiple disks for redundancy and data recovery?
Redundant Array of Inexpensive or Independent Disks (RAID) technology
What role does fault-tolerant hardware play in increasing system resilience?
Fault-tolerant hardware provides hardware redundancy and automatic failover.
Define fault management
Fault management involves identifying and addressing system faults or abnormalities, ensuring minimal disruptions, and maintaining system reliability.
How does platform as a service (PaaS) differ from infrastructure as a service (IaaS)?
PaaS eliminates the need for local installation and maintenance, while IaaS focuses on infrastructure components.
How does software as a service (SaaS) benefit organizations regarding maintenance and updates?
SaaS eliminates the need for local installation and maintenance.
Which cloud service model is most suitable for developers who want to build, test, and deploy applications without dealing with the complexity of underlying infrastructure?
Platform as a service (PaaS)
In a cloud security service-level agreement (SLA), what might be included to ensure data confidentiality?
A guarantee of complete data isolation
Individuals may direct a covered entity to transmit an electronic copy of their PHI in an electronic health record to a third party. What Privacy Rule Principle?
Access
Individuals should be informed of the entity’s privacy practices and how they may use and disclose their PHI. What Privacy Rule Principle?
Notice
Individuals have a right to request that a covered entity restrict the use or disclosure of their PHI for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations or to persons involved in their care or payment for care. What Privacy Rule Principle?
Restrictions
Individuals can contact the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services OCR if they suspect a violation of their privacy rights. What Privacy Rule Principle?
Complaints
Individuals have a right to request that a covered entity modify/update their PHI if it needs to be revised or completed. What Privacy Rule Principle?
Amendment
What control category: help ensure the integrity, accuracy, and completeness of transaction data entered from online devices. Additionally, these controls should ensure that error handling procedures facilitate the timely and accurate resubmission of all corrected data.
Online data entry control
What control category: Review and reconcile data; require users to review data for completeness and accuracy; and have established procedures for distribution, correction, storage, and disposal of data.
Output controls
What control category: Require employees to sign confidentiality agreements; reconcile general ledger accounts to subsidiary totals; use internal and external file labels; use file protection mechanisms; and review and eliminate unneeded or out-of-date data.
Processing and storage control
What control category: ensure the accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of data during its conversion from its original source into computer data or entry into a computer application. In online processing, edit checks are performed during the source data entry process, and incorrect data is not accepted until corrected. In batch processing, a separate program performs the edit checks on the input data before it is processed.
Input validation routine
