ISBB

Question 1

Most potent phagocytic cell, most effective at antigen presentation

Answer 1

DENDRITIC CELLS

Question 2

Person submitting urine for drug test

Answer 2

DONOR /CLIENT

Question 3

Major advantage of gel technology

Answer 3

STANDARDIZATION

Question 4

Connection between two blood vessels:

Answer 4

ANASTOMOSIS

Question 5

hallmark rash of measles infection; bluish white spots with a red halo located on the buccal or labial mucosa

Answer 5

KOPLIK’S SPOTS (IN MEASLES)

Question 6

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA)

Answer 6

CHRONIC ACTIVE HEPATITIS

Question 7

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA)

Answer 7

PRIMARY BILIARY CIRRHOSIS

Question 8

Antigenic determinant

Answer 8

EPITOPE

Question 9

Part of the antibody that binds to the antigen

Answer 9

PARATOPE

Question 10

measures total IgE

Answer 10

RADIOIMMUNOSORBENT TEST (RIST)

Question 11

measures allergen-specific IgE

Answer 11

RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST)

Question 12

most common congenital immunodeficiency

Answer 12

SELECTIVE IgA DEFICIENCY

Question 13

• Chickenpox and shingles
• Vaccine important in controlling outbreaks
• Tzanck stain: Giant cells

Answer 13

Varicella-Zoster Virus

Question 14

• Isolated from blood, urine, throat
• In adults: Syndrome similar to mononucleosis, may infect kidney (shed in urine)
• In immunocompromised: Kidney, eye, lung, often fatal

Answer 14

Cytomegalovirus

Question 15

• Heterophile-positive mononucleosis (85%)
• Can produce tumors
• Not isolated in culture

Serologic diagnosis
• Early antigen
• Viral capsid antigen: IgM and IgG
• Nuclear antigen

Answer 15

Epstein-Barr Virus

Question 16

• Human parvovirus B-19 - infectiosum (fifth disease)erythema
• Infects bone marrow cells (erythrocyte) -Causes aplastic crisis

Answer 16

Parvoviruses

Question 17

• Rare acquired disorder resulting from stem cell mutation in the PIGA gene
• Cells lack glycoslyphosphatidlyinositol anchored proteins, including CD55 and CD59
• RBCs are susceptible to complement lysis, because CD55 and CD59 inhibit complement and are absent, cells may lyse spontaneously

Answer 17

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

Question 18

COMPLEMENT COMPONENT _____ is the CENTRAL CONVERGENCE POINT for all complement activation pathways.

Answer 18

C3

Question 19

may be stable in dried blood and blood products at 25°C for up to 7 days.

Answer 19

HBV

Question 20

may be stable in dried blood and blood products at 25°C for up to 7 days.

Answer 20

HBV

Question 21

retains infectivity for more than 3 days in dried specimens at room temperature and for more than 1 week in an aqueous environment at room temperature.

Answer 21

HIV

Question 22

Two main functions of the serologic crossmatch test can be cited:

Answer 22

1. It is a final check of ABO compatibility between donor and patient.2. It may detect the presence of an antibody in the patient’s serum that will react with antigens on the donor RBCs but that was not detected in antibody screening because the corresponding antigen was lacking from the screening cells.

Question 23

SEQUENCE that UNIQUE AMINO ACID is common to all immunoglobulin molecules of a given class in a given species

Answer 23

ISOTYPE

Question 24

: minor variation of sequences that are present in some individuals but not others

Answer 24

ALLOTYPE

Question 25

variable portions of each chain unique to a specific antibody molecule

Answer 25

IDIOTYPE '' Idiot si Var''

Question 26

only blood group system that affects clinical transplantation

Answer 26

ABO

Question 27

REVIEWED AT LEAST ANNUALLY and updated on a regular basis to reflect changes in operations and implementation of new regulations.

Answer 27

BLOOD BANK STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURES (SOP)

Question 28

Marker for HSC cells:

Answer 28

CD 34

Question 29

• Most SERIOUS of the complement deficiencies • Associated with severe and recurrent infections, glomerulonephritis

Answer 29

C3 DEFICIENCY

Question 30

• Most COMMON of the complement deficiencies • Associated with autoimmune diseases (LE-like), atherosclerosis

Answer 30

C2 DEFICIENCY

Question 31

Anaphylaxis, hay fever, asthma, food allergy

Answer 31

TYPE I HYPERSENSITIVITY (ANAPHYLACTIC):

Question 32

Transfusion reactions, HDN, thrombocytopenia Graves dse, Goodpasture, Myasthenia gravis

Answer 32

TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY (CYTOTOXIC)

Question 33

Arthus reaction, serum sickness

Answer 33

TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY (IMMUNE COMPLEX)

Question 34

Contact dermatitis, tuberculin test ex. Mantoux

Answer 34

TYPE IV HYPERSENSITIVITY (DELAYED OR CELL-MEDIATED)

Question 35

predominantly polymorphonuclear (neutrophils)

Answer 35

ACUTE INFLAMMATION

Question 36

predominantly mononuclear cell infiltration (macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells)

Answer 36

CHRONIC INFLAMMATION:

Question 37

PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS 1. SUSCEPTIBLE

Answer 37

• HBsAg negative • Anti-HBc negative Anti-HBs negative

Question 38

• HBsAg negative • Anti-HBc positive* • Anti-HBs positive*

Answer 38

IMMUNE DUE TO NATURAL INFECTION

Question 39

• HBsAg negative • Anti-HBc negative • Anti-HBs positive*

Answer 39

IMMUNE DUE TO HEPATITIS B VACCINE

Question 40

• HBsAg positive* • Anti-HBc positive* • Anti-HBc IgM positive* • Anti-HBs negative

Answer 40

ACUTELY INFECTED

Question 41

Anti-HBs is not produced during chronic HBV infection, in which immunity fails to develop. • HBsAg positive* • Anti-HBc positive* • Anti-HBc IgM negative • Anti-HBs negative

Answer 41

CHRONICALLY INFECTED (Larson)

Question 42

• HBsAg negative • Anti-HBc positive* • Anti-HBs negative

Answer 42

Four possibilities: (1) resolved infection (most common), (2) false positive anti-HBc thus susceptible, (3) low-level chronic infection, and (4) resolving acute infection